3. Frank is considering two cell phone plans. The first company charges $120 for the
phone and $30 per month for the calling plan that Juan wants. The second company
charges $40 for the same phone but charges $45 per month for the calling plan that
Juan wants. After how many months would the total cost of the two plans be the same?
Representations:
Equations:

Answer:

its b. infinite solutions

Answer:

B. Infinite solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you solve an equation and you end up with an obvious identity, such as 5 = 5, you'll know that the orginal equation is also an identity, with an infinite number of solutions. ... No matter what value you choose for x, the equation will be a FALSE statement.

d. the second derivative is available Taylor Series methods of order greater than one for ordinary differential equations require the second derivative of the solution to be available.

These methods use a Taylor series expansion to approximate the solution of an ordinary differential equation. The Taylor series is a polynomial representation of a function in terms of its derivatives evaluated at a particular point. By computing higher order derivatives at the initial point, a higher order Taylor series can be constructed, which provides a more accurate approximation of the solution. Therefore, to use Taylor Series methods of order greater than one, the second derivative of the solution must be available.

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Step-by-step explanation:

There are three big '1' blocks shaded in dark blue. They have a total sum of 3.

There are 9 small '1/3' blocks shaded in light blue. They also have a total sum of 3.

We can divide the total sum, 3, by the '1/3' blocks to get 9 blocks.

The division problem being shown is 3 / (1/3) = 9.

The division 3 ÷ (1/3) model shows 3 fraction bars. The bars are labeled 1 and each has 3 boxes underneath labeled one-third option first is correct.

Fraction number consists of two parts one is the top of the fraction number which is called the numerator and the second is the bottom of the fraction number which is called the denominator.

As we can see in the picture:

There is a dark blue box in which there are 3 times 1 so the total sum of the ones:

= 1

There are three sky blue boxes each box contains 1/3 of the sum of the all 1/3 is:

=9(1/3)

= 3

So the fraction becomes:

\(= \frac{3}{\frac{1}{3} }\)  or

= 3 ÷ (1/3)

= 9

Thus, the division 3 ÷ (1/3) model shows 3 fraction bars. The bars are labeled 1 and each has 3 boxes underneath labeled one-third option first is correct.

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Answer:

a couple different obes

Step-by-step explanation:

there are five

Solution

-8 r + 8r =0

And the correct answer would be:

Inverse property of addition

The range and the vertex is   4 ≤ y < [infinity] and  (5, 4).

To find the vertex, we can take the derivative of the function and set it equal to 0:

y' = |x − 5|' = 0

=> x − 5 = 0

=>  x = 5

Then, we can plug x = 5 into the original equation to find the y-value at the vertex:  

y = |x − 5| = |5 − 5| = |0| = 0

So, the vertex of y = |x − 5| is (5, 4).

To find the range, we need to consider the range of the absolute value function. The range of the absolute value function is:

−[infinity] < y < [infinity]. So, the range of y = |x − 5| is also −[infinity] < y < [infinity] (or 4 ≤ y < [infinity]).

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Answer

5 and 6

Step-by-step explanation:

First | Find the square root of √30 (Put it in the calculator)

Answer | 5.47722557505...

Second | Round the number to the tenths

Anwer | 5.5 (ect the number in the hundreths place is greater than 5 so you bump up the 4 by 1 so 5.4 to 5.5)

Third | Get a line and see where 5.5 belongs it cant be 4 and 5 since the answer will need to be 4 or 5.0

Concusion | Here are the steps to find the answer hope this helped!

We can solve the given problem by using the binomial probability formula. The binomial probability formula is given as\(P (X = k) = n C k  *  p k  *  q n - k\)  where n is the total number of trials, p is the probability of success, q is the probability of failure, k is the number of successes, and nCk is the binomial coefficient. Given that the population of adults experiences hypertension at some point in their lives with a probability of 40%. The probability of success, p = 0.40The probability of failure, q = 1 - p = 0.60The sample size, n = 20We are required to find the probability that at most 5 of them would have experienced hypertension.

At most 5 is equivalent to less than or equal to 5. Therefore, we need to find the probability of

X ≤ 5P (X ≤ 5) = P (X = 0) + P (X = 1) + P (X = 2) + P (X = 3) + P (X = 4) + P (X = 5)P (X ≤ 5)

= Σ n C k  *  p k  *  q n - k k=0 to 5P (X ≤ 5)

= Σ n C k  *  p k  *  q n - k k=0

to 5= (20 C 0  *  0.40 0  *  0.60 20 ) + (20 C 1  *  0.40 1  *  0.60 19 ) + (20 C 2  *  0.40 2  *  0.60 18 ) + (20 C 3  *  0.40 3  *  0.60 17 ) + (20 C 4  *  0.40 4  *  0.60 16 ) + (20 C 5  *  0.40 5  *  0.60 15 )

= (1  *  1  *  0.60 20 ) + (20  *  0.40  *  0.60 19 ) + (190  *  0.40 2  *  0.60 18 ) + (1140  *  0.40 3  *  0.60 17 ) + (4845  *  0.40 4  *  0.60 16 ) + (15504  *  0.40 5  *  0.60 15 )= 0.000000 + 0.000000 + 0.000003 + 0.000460 + 0.015223 + 0.135072= 0.150758Therefore, the probability that at most 5 of them would have experienced hypertension is 0.150758 (approx).

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Answer: I’m really sorry if you get this wrong and I will feel so bad so please don’t take it from me because I’m only 15 and also doing summer school lol, but if I had to take a quick, random guess i’d say 4. Please wait until someone else responds or look it up! I don’t want to be the reason you get it wrong.

A frequency polygon is a graphical representation of a frequency distribution. Skewness refers to the asymmetry or departure from symmetry in the shape of the distribution. In terms of frequency polygons:

A frequency polygon with a large positive skew will have a long tail on the right side of the distribution, indicating an elongated right tail. This means that there are a few extreme values on the right side pulling the distribution in that direction, resulting in a positive skew.

Conversely, a frequency polygon with a large negative skew will have a long tail on the left side of the distribution, indicating an elongated left tail. This means that there are a few extreme values on the left side pulling the distribution in that direction, resulting in a negative skew.

It is important to note that without specific data or frequency distributions to analyze, it is not possible to determine which specific frequency polygons have large positive or negative skewness. The skewness of a distribution can only be determined by examining the actual data or frequency distribution.

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Answer:

1.2 kilograms

Step-by-step explanation:

1 kilogram is equal to 1000 grams

Therefore we can divide the weight by 1000 in order to find the amount of kilograms

1200/1000 = 1.2

Answer:

1.2

Step-by-step explanation:

1 gram is 0.001 kilograms

or 1000 kilograms to a gram

so 1200 grams is 1.2 kilograms

In a hypothesis testing context, before examining the data, one should typically decide whether the alternative hypothesis is one-sided or two-sided. This decision is based on the specific research question and the expected direction of the effect being tested.

It helps determine the appropriate statistical test and the formulation of the null and alternative hypotheses.

The computation of the p-value and the decision of whether or not to reject the null hypothesis are made after examining the data and conducting the statistical analysis. The p-value is a measure of the strength of the evidence against the null hypothesis, and it is compared to a predetermined significance level to make a decision. If the p-value is below the significance level, the null hypothesis is typically rejected in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) decided whether the alternative hypothesis is one-sided or two-sided.

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Answer: a. $1392

b. 31.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

a. What was Joe's capital loss?

Cost price = $22.07 × 200 = $4414

Selling price = $15.11 × 200 = $3022

Capital loss = $3022 - $4414

= -$1392

b. Express Joe's capital loss as a percent, rounded to the nearest percent.

= Capital loss/Cost price × 100

= 1392/4414 × 100

= 31.5%

Answer:

a. $1392

b. 31.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

a. What was Joe's capital loss?

Cost price = $22.07 × 200 = $4414

Selling price = $15.11 × 200 = $3022

Capital loss = $3022 - $4414

= -$1392

b. Express Joe's capital loss as a percent, rounded to the nearest percent.

= Capital loss/Cost price × 100

= 1392/4414 × 100

= 31.5%

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

1) y-5- -5 (x+8)

2) y-5= -5x-40 (use distributive property to multiply -5 by x and 8)

3) you will find your slope just by distributing (-5x-40), no need to say the new equation, but if you would like to know the new equation if you were to solve all this... it is y=-5x-35

Hope this helped. Adiós (Bye)

Answer:

inequality: x > -3

Set notation: {x: x> -3}

Interval notation: [-3, ∞)

The interval can be described as inequality is x>-3, the set notation is {x: x>-3}, and the interval notation is [-3, α).

The positive, negative, whole, and rational numbers can be mark on a number line. Numbers appearing on the right side of 0 are positive, and those reflected on the left side are negative.

The thick line on the picture starts at -3 and tends towards positive infinity.  So, it can be represented as inequality by x>-3.

The set notation can be described for x-axis elements since it is a line. The elements greater than -3 are present in it. So it can represented as {x :x> -3}.

The interval ranges from -3 to positive infinity; hence, it can be represented as [-3,α).

So we can conclude that the interval can be represented by an inequality as x > -3, the set notation contains elements greater than -3, and the interval ranges from -3 to positive infinity.

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Answer:

\( \pi\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\( Lim_{x \to\pi} f(x) \)

\( =Lim_{x \to\pi} \pi \)

(\( \because for\: x =\pi, \: f(x) = \pi\))

\( = \pi \) (Applying limit)

The statement ''A frequency polygon is a very useful graphic technique when comparing two or more distributions'' is true because a frequency polygon is a very useful graphic technique for comparing two or more distributions.

A frequency polygon is a line graph that shows the distribution of a dataset.

It is created by plotting the frequency of each data value or interval on the y-axis and the corresponding values or intervals on the x-axis, and then connecting the points with line segments.

By using frequency polygons, it becomes easy to compare the shapes and spread of two or more distributions. We can overlay different frequency polygons on the same graph and compare them.

This helps to identify similarities and differences between the data sets.

For instance, frequency polygons can help identify which data set has a higher mean or median, and which distribution has a greater variance.

In summary, frequency polygons are a useful visual tool for comparing distributions and identifying patterns in data.

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Means and Variances of Linear Combinations:


(a) X1 - 2X2

Mean: μa = μ1 - 2μ2

Variance: σa2 = σ12 + 4σ22 + 4σ122



(b) X1 + 2X2 - 3

Mean: μb = μ1 + 2μ2 - 3

Variance: σb2 = σ12 + 4σ22 + 4σ122



(c) 3X1 - 4X2

Mean: μc = 3μ1 - 4μ2

Variance: σc2 = 9σ12 + 16σ22



In the case that X1 and X2 are independent, then σ122 = 0, so:

(a) X1 - 2X2

Mean: μa = μ1 - 2μ2

Variance: σa2 = σ12 + 4σ22



(b) X1 + 2X2 - 3

Mean: μb = μ1 + 2μ2 - 3

Variance: σb2 = σ12 + 4σ22



(c) 3X1 - 4X2

Mean: μc = 3μ1 - 4μ2

Variance: σc2 = 9σ12 + 16σ22

Answer:

\(\huge\boxed{\boxed{ \sf 0. {4x}^{2} - 3.2x + 5.7}}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

and

we are done

To begin solving this problem, we need to determine the dimensions of the rectangular region that the farmer will fence in. Let's say the length of thr uses, is given by the equation:
e rectangle is L and the width is W. The perimeter of the rectangle, which will be the length of fencing the farme
2L + W = 350

Solving for W, we get:

W = 350 - 2L

Next, we need to divide the rectangular region into three smaller rectangles by placing two parallel fences. Let's say the two fences are placed along the length of the rectangle, dividing it into three sections with widths of x, y, and z. Therefore, we have:

L = x + y + z

Now, we can determine the area of the entire fenced-in region by summing the areas of the three smaller rectangles. The area of a rectangle is given by the equation:

Area = Length x Width

Therefore, the total area of the fenced-in region is:

Area = (xW) + (yW) + (zW)

Substituting W = 350 - 2L and L = x + y + z, we get:

Area = (x(350-2(x+y+z))) + (y(350-2(x+y+z))) + (z(350-2(x+y+z)))

Simplifying this equation, we get:

Area = 350(x+y+z) - 2(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)

To maximize the area, we need to take the derivative of this equation with respect to one of the variables (x, y, or z), set it equal to zero, and solve for the variable. This process is too complicated to do by hand, so we will use a calculator or computer program to find the maximum area.

After finding the maximum area, we can determine the dimensions of the region that give us this maximum area. We do this by using the equations we derived earlier:

W = 350 - 2L

L = x + y + z

With the maximum area and these equations, we can solve for the dimensions of the region that give us the maximum area.

In summary, the farmer should fence in a rectangular region with dimensions that maximize the total area of three smaller rectangles created by placing two parallel fences. The maximum area can be found by taking the derivative of the area equation and setting it equal to zero. The dimensions of the region that give us the maximum area can be found by using the equations we derived earlier.

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Answer:

wow to hard dis might take a while

Answer:

The negative square root of -49 is -7

Answer:

Terms: 4f and 8, coefficient: 4, and constant: 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Terms in an equation are every single part (not including the +, -, etc.)

Coefficients are the numbers in front of a variable (letter)

Constants are numbers that do not have a letter attached to them

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for continuously compounded interest is:

A = Pe^(rt)

where:

A = the final amount

P = the initial amount

r = the annual interest rate (as a decimal)

t = the time (in years)

We can use this formula to solve for t, the time it takes for $50 to grow to $130 at a 7% annual interest rate compounded continuously.

First, let's plug in the given values:

$130 = $50e^(0.07t)

Next, let's solve for t by isolating it on one side of the equation:

e^(0.07t) = $130/$50

e^(0.07t) = 2.6

Take the natural logarithm of both sides:

ln(e^(0.07t)) = ln(2.6)

0.07t = ln(2.6)

Solve for t:

t = ln(2.6)/0.07 ≈ 13.4 years

Therefore, it takes approximately 13.4 years for $50 to grow to $130 at a 7% annual interest rate compounded continuously.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

We can use the formula for the average (arithmetic mean) of a set of numbers to solve this problem:

Let's call the missing number x. Then the sum of the numbers in the list is:

We want the average of this list to be 12, so we can set up the following equation:

Multiplying both sides by 6, we get:

Subtracting 52 from both sides, we get:

Therefore, the missing number is 20, and the complete list is:

The average of this list is:

Answer:

75.36

Step-by-step explanation:

First you would use the formula \(C=2\pi r\) and the fill in your values, 2·3.14·12 and you will get 75.36.

The measure of angle T is 122 degrees in the pentagon

The sum of the interior angles of a pentagon is 180(5-2) = 540 degrees.

We can use this fact to find the measure of angle T

angle ∠T = 540 - ∠P - ∠Q -∠R -∠S

∠T = 540 - 85 - 134 - 97 - 102

∠T = 122

Therefore, the measure of angle T is 122 degrees in the pentagon

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