Answer: only the same bloof cell type
Explanation:
it say in the book
Which of the following is a main function of the circulatory system?
A.
To break down nutrients into a simpler form
B.
To transport oxygen to tissues throughout the body
C.
To send signals to the nervous system
D.
To produce hormones for reproduction
B. transport oxygen to tissues
15. final synthesis. describe how a cell that is fixed can be used to estimate the time spent in the phases of mitosis. explain the process you used to determine the times for each phase.
Cells in our body reproduce at very different rates.
For example, while skin cells reproduce quite frequently liver cells reproduce rarely. Whereas some cells enter a special stage of the cell cycle called the G0 phase and never reproduce. The entire process of mitosis takes about 90 minutes to complete.
The root tip of a plant is considered the best place for rapid growth, so the root tip of onion is ideal for showing the time spent in each stage of mitosis. Examine the onion root tips carefully under a microscope. Here the cells grow rapidly.
Try to identify the cell cycle stage of at least 20 randomly selected cells and record this information in your notebook. In the onion root tip, the entire cell cycle takes approximately 12 hours or 720 minutes to complete the process. Now calculate the percentage of time spent in each phase by counting the total number of cells in each phase and dividing by the total number of cells counted.
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spatio-temporal coordination at the maternal-fetal 2 interface promotes trophoblast invasion and vascular 3 remodeling in the first half of human pregnancy
The spatio-temporal coordination at the maternal-fetal interface promotes trophoblast invasion and vascular remodeling in the first half of human pregnancy.
During human pregnancy, the maternal-fetal interface refers to the region where the placenta attaches to the lining of the uterus. It plays a crucial role in facilitating the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the mother and the developing fetus.
Spatio-temporal coordination refers to the precise timing and spatial organization of events and processes. In the context of the maternal-fetal interface, it refers to the orchestrated sequence of events that occur during the early stages of pregnancy.
Trophoblast invasion is a process where specialized cells called trophoblasts, which are derived from the embryo, invade the maternal tissues of the uterus. This invasion is essential for the establishment and maintenance of a functional placenta. The spatio-temporal coordination ensures that trophoblast invasion occurs at the right time and in the right locations within the maternal tissues.
Vascular remodeling refers to the modification of the maternal blood vessels in the vicinity of the maternal-fetal interface. This remodeling is necessary to establish a sufficient blood supply to the developing placenta and facilitate nutrient and oxygen exchange between the mother and the fetus. Again, spatio-temporal coordination ensures that vascular remodeling occurs in a coordinated and controlled manner.
The statement suggests that the spatio-temporal coordination at the maternal-fetal interface is crucial for promoting trophoblast invasion and vascular remodeling during the first half of human pregnancy. This coordination ensures that these processes occur at the appropriate times and locations, ultimately supporting the development and function of the placenta and facilitating a healthy pregnancy.
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true or false? if you were dealing with a patient with a recently diagnosed cancer, the patient would probably have a recently appeared mutation in genes controlling cell division.
The given statement " if you were dealing with a patient with a recently diagnosed cancer, the patient would probably have a recently appeared mutation in genes controlling cell division " is true because In a patient with recently diagnosed cancer, it is likely that they have a recently appeared mutation in genes controlling cell division.
Cancer occurs when cells in the body grow and divide uncontrollably, forming tumors or spreading to other parts of the body. This uncontrolled growth is often caused by mutations in genes that regulate cell division, such as oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes.
Oncogenes are genes that normally promote cell division. However, when mutated, they can become overactive and cause cells to divide uncontrollably, leading to cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, on the other hand, are responsible for slowing down cell division and preventing the formation of tumors. Mutations in these genes can cause them to lose their ability to suppress cell growth, also resulting in cancer.
In conclusion, the statement is true. A patient with recently diagnosed cancer would probably have a recently appeared mutation in genes controlling cell division. This mutation disrupts the normal regulation of cell growth, leading to the uncontrolled division of cells and the development of cancer.
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Recently in Antarctica, a penguin with all black feathers was
discovered. This trait had never been seen before. What is
the likely source for this "new" trait?
The penguin in question has a rare genetic mutation called melanism, which makes skin, fur, and feathers black due to a high concentration of the pigment melanin. It's basically the opposite of albinism, which is caused by a lack of pigment.
why do antibiotics quickly lose their effectiveness in the treatment of bacterial infections? some bacterial strains have natural resistance to antibiotics, and using antibiotics selects for these strains. bacteria can eat the antibiotics, and this makes them grow bigger and stronger. bacteria grow rapidly to large numbers, so they are unaffected by antibiotics. bacteria have a high rate of mutation and quickly develop resistance to antibiotics. bacteria are able to transport antibiotics through their cell walls.
Answer:
Through mutation and selection, bacteria can develop defense mechanisms against antibiotics. For example, some bacteria have developed biochemical “pumps” that can remove an antibiotic before it reaches its target, while others have evolved to produce enzymes to inactivate the antibiotic.
Explanation:
Fill in the blanks please help!
A cell has 6 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have if it undergoes mitosis
Answer:
At the end of mitosis, the two daughter cells will be exact copies of the original cell. Each daughter cell will have 30 chromosomes. At the end of meiosis II, each cell (i.e., gamete) would have half the original number of chromosomes, that is, 15 chromosomes.
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Explanation:
to what temperature do scientists need to raise a strand of mouse dna for it completely separate?
Denaturation is done at a very high temperature of 95 degree Celsius for complete separation of mouse DNA.
What is PCR?The polymerase chain reaction, or PCR, is one of the most important uses of molecular biology. To amplify the target DNA molecule, PCR is utilised. In a thermal cycler, PCR is performed.
The three main stages to do PCR are as follows:
1. Denaturation 95 degrees Celsius is a very high temperature at which it is performed. This high temperature causes a process known as denaturation, which causes the DNA strands to split from one another.
2. The temperature is lowered to 55 degrees centigrade for renaturation in order to allow the denaturized DNA strands to anneal with one another.
3. DNA synthesis Deoxyribonucleotides, a thermostable DNA polymerase, and an RNA primer are added to the 3" ends of both strands to carry out the synthesis of new DNA strands relative to the template strands.
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The number of severe weather occurrences has risen over the past 30 years. Choose one severe weather event from the past 30 years, either hurricane,
tsunami, tomado, or monsoon and do some research. Form a well-constructed paragraph with the following information:
• Location, time frame, and name of event (if applicable).
• What was the cause of the severe storm?
• What impact, immediate and long term, did the severe weather have on the environment, vegetation, and humans in the area.
• If you feel humans are the main cause of global warming, do you think you contribute to global warming, and if so, how?
• Where do you stand on whether the U.S. government should be addressing global warming and climate change?
Answer:
One severe weather event that occurred in the past 30 years was Hurricane Katrina, which hit the Gulf Coast of the United States in August of 2005. It was caused by warm sea surface temperatures, low wind shear, and atmospheric disturbances. The hurricane had a devastating impact as it caused widespread flooding and extensive damage to infrastructure and homes. The immediate impacts included lack of access to basic necessities such as food, water, and medical care. Many people experienced power outages which led to spoiled food and stoves that did not work. The long-term impacts included loss of wetlands and damage to the local economy, with some estimates putting the total cost of the storm at over $100 billion. I do believe humans are the main cause of global warming, and I contribute to it by using gas to fuel my car and using oil to heat my home. I believe that the U.S. government has a responsibility to address global warming and climate change as it has the potential to cause significant environmental, economic, and social impacts. It is imperative that policies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions and promote the use of renewable energy sources are enforced to help mitigate the effects of global warming.
What happens to the water vapor in an air mass as it ascends?
Answer:
Air parcel expands and cools at higher altitudes
Explanation:
Gas cloud 1 is most likely to form a star, gas 2 has not
Gas Cloud 1 aligns with the conditions favoring star formation, while Gas Cloud 2 deviates from these conditions, making it less likely to form a star.
Based on the given information, the conditions can be matched with the gas clouds as follows:
Gas Cloud 1:
Its temperature stays well below 14 million Kelvin.Its volume shrinks, and density increases due to gravity.Its hydrogen atoms retain their electrons.Gas Cloud 2:
It is spread out, with a greater volume.Its hydrogen atoms shed their electrons.It has a lesser concentration of elements.Gas Cloud 1 is likely to form a star because its temperature remains below 14 million Kelvin, indicating conditions suitable for stellar birth. The shrinking volume and increasing density due to gravity suggest gravitational collapse, a crucial step in star formation. The fact that its hydrogen atoms retain their electrons is important as it enables the fusion process required for star formation.
Gas Cloud 2, on the other hand, is not likely to form a star. It is spread out, indicating a lack of gravitational collapse. The statement that its hydrogen atoms shed their electrons implies ionization, which can hinder the fusion process necessary for star formation. Additionally, Gas Cloud 2 has a lesser concentration of elements, which may affect its ability to undergo the processes involved in stellar birth.
Overall, Gas Cloud 1 aligns with the conditions favoring star formation, while Gas Cloud 2 deviates from these conditions, making it less likely to form a star.
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When Mason was a todder, he had to have many blood tests which required him to have mutiple needle pokes of the people that drew his blood as a toddler wore whit ab coats when they drew the blood Later, when he went with his
mother to the pharmacy he was tightened by the pharmacists weanng a whies lab coat. What is this an example of
O cognitive mapping
O observational leaming
O classical conditioning
O operant conditioning
When Mason was a todder, he had to have many blood tests which required him to have multiple needle pokes of the people that drew his blood as a toddler wore whit ab coats when they drew the blood Later, when he went with his mother to the pharmacy he was tightened by the pharmacists weaning a whites lab coat is an example of classical conditioning.
Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a previously neutral stimulus acquires the ability to produce a response that was originally produced by another stimulus. In this case, the neutral stimulus is the white lab coat. Initially, the lab coat had no special significance to Mason.
However, after being exposed to medical personnel wearing white lab coats during his blood tests, Mason learned to associate the white lab coat with the pain caused by the needle pokes. As a result, when Mason saw the pharmacist wearing a white lab coat, he experienced fear and anxiety.
Classical conditioning is a type of learning that occurs through repeated association of two or more different stimuli. The result of classical conditioning is that the neutral stimulus eventually comes to elicit the response originally produced by the unconditioned stimulus.
The unconditioned stimulus is the stimulus that produces the natural, unlearned response. In this example, the unconditioned stimulus is the pain caused by the needle pokes during the blood tests. The unconditioned response is the pain and discomfort experienced by Mason in response to the needle pokes.
Over time, the previously neutral stimulus (the white lab coat) becomes associated with the unconditioned stimulus (the pain from the needle pokes). As a result, the white lab coat becomes a conditioned stimulus that elicits a conditioned response (fear and anxiety) in Mason. This is an example of classical conditioning.
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Does passive transport require energy? How does this relate to the concentration gradient? Name the 3 types of passive transport
Passive transport is a type of transport that does not require any energy for the transport of molecules as it occurs along the concentration gradient.
In the case of passive transport, there is no requirement of energy for transporting the molecules across as a membrane as it happens along the concentration gradient. All the molecules which are basically easily soluble get transported through this process of passive transport.
This process occurs in the cells in order to maintain the balance as well as the equilibrium level in the cells. Osmosis, facilitated diffusion as well as diffusion are three of the examples of passive transport.
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How does lactose (allolactose) act as an INDUCER in this system? Select one: a. Allolactose binds to the lacl protein (repressor), this induces a conformation change in lacl, it dissociates from the lac operator, so that RNA polymerase can transcribe the lacz gene, and the cell can use lactose as an energy source. b. Allolactose is broken down by the lacZ protein, and the cell can use lactose as an energy source O c. Allolactose binds to the lacl protein (repressor), this induces a conformation change in lacl, it binds more tightly to the lac operator RNA polymerase can't transcribe the lacZ gene, and the cell can't use lactose as an energy source. d. Allolactose binds to the lac promoter and recruits RNA polymerase to the lacZ gene, RNA polymerase transcribes the lacZ gene, and the cell can use lactose as an energy source.
Lactose (allolactose) acts as an inducer in this system by binding to the lacI protein (repressor), inducing a conformational change in lacI, leading to its dissociation from the lac operator.
This allows RNA polymerase to transcribe the lacZ gene, enabling the cell to use lactose as an energy source.
In the lac operon system, lactose (specifically allolactose, an isomer of lactose) acts as an inducer by binding to the lacI protein, which functions as a repressor. When lactose is present in the cell, some of it is converted to allolactose by the enzyme β-galactosidase, encoded by the lacZ gene.
Binding of allolactose to the lacI repressor induces a conformational change in the repressor protein, causing it to dissociate from the operator region of the lac operon. This dissociation allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter region and transcribe the genes involved in lactose metabolism, such as the lacZ gene.
The transcription of the lacZ gene results in the production of β-galactosidase enzyme, which further hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose, which can be utilized as an energy source by the cell.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer: Allolactose binds to the lacI protein (repressor), inducing a conformation change in lacI, leading to its dissociation from the lac operator. This allows RNA polymerase to transcribe the lacZ gene, and the cell can use lactose as an energy source.
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what is the mode of nutrition of viruses
Answer:
Viruses are too small and simple to collect or use their own energy – they just steal it from the cells they infect. Viruses only need energy when they make copies of themselves, and they don't need any energy at all when they are outside of a cell.
Explanation:
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Title: Does temperature have an effect on growth rate of crystals? what about leaving them covered or uncovered? Does dry air or moist air seem to grow more crystals
Hypothesis:
IF
THEN
BECAUSE
Help pls
Answer:
Temperature also affects the growth of crystals because "the higher the temperature, the warmer the crystal solution will be, and the faster its molecules will move. This movement allows them to evaporate more quickly, leaving particles behind to form into crystals.
Explanation:
A Warm and Light Atmosphere
Warm air temperature aids water evaporation, causing the crystals to grow more quickly. Crystals will still grow in cooler temperatures, but it will take much longer for the water to evaporate. Crystal growth also requires light.
Which of the following is NOT part of the cell theory?
Question 1
All living organisms are composed of one or more cells
All cells are produced from other cells.
All things are composed of at least one cell
Cells are the basic unit of life
Answer:
I think it is, Cells are the basic unit of life.
I hope it helps you....
The presence of which feature is the first step to being classified in Domain Eukarya? A. membrane-bound nucleus. B. ribosomes. C. cell wall. D. chloroplast.
The presence of a membrane-bound nucleus is the first step to being classified in Domain Eukarya.
Organisms in Domain Eukarya are characterized by having cells that contain a true nucleus, which is enclosed by a nuclear envelope, as well as other membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum.
This distinguishes them from organisms in the other two domains, Bacteria and Archaea, which lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Ribosomes, cell walls, and chloroplasts are also present in some eukaryotic organisms, but the defining feature that sets them apart from prokaryotic organisms is the presence of a membrane-bound nucleus.
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The presence of a membrane-bound nucleus is the first step to being classified in Domain Eukarya. The correct option is A.
Organisms in Domain Eukarya are characterized by having cells that contain a true nucleus, which is enclosed by a nuclear envelope, as well as other membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum.
This distinguishes them from organisms in the other two domains, Bacteria and Archaea, which lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Ribosomes, cell walls, and chloroplasts are also present in some eukaryotic organisms, but the defining feature that sets them apart from prokaryotic organisms is the presence of a membrane-bound nucleus.
Therefore the correct option is A.
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A cell of an organism has four chromosomes. It undergoes a process at the end of which two daughter cells are produced. Each daughter cell has four chromosomes. Which process is described? A. fertilization B. meiosis C. mitosis
Explanation:
The process described in which a cell with four chromosomes produces two daughter cells, each with four chromosomes, is mitosis. Mitosis is a cellular division process that results in the production of two identical daughter cells, each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This process is involved in the growth, repair, and asexual reproduction of organisms. Fertilization, on the other hand, is the process of fusion between gametes (sperm and egg) during sexual reproduction, which results in the formation of a zygote with a complete set of chromosomes. Meiosis is a different cellular division process that occurs in specialized cells (germ cells) and leads to the production of gametes with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
phenolics typically kill microbes by
Phenolics typically kill microbes by denaturing proteins and disrupting membranes.
In organic chemistry, phenols, every now and then known as phenolics, are a category of chemicals consisting of 1 or greater hydroxyl groups bonded without delay to a fragrant hydrocarbon group. The handiest is phenol, C ₆H ₅OH.
Phenolic acids, effectively absorbed thru intestinal tract partitions, are useful to human fitness due to their potential antioxidants and ward off the harm of cells resulting from loose-radical oxidation reactions. On everyday consumption, phenolic acids additionally promote the anti-infection capability of humans.
They'll be beneficial to our fitness because they paint as antioxidants that prevent cellular harm because of loose-radical oxidation reactions.
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which of the following physiological alterations is/are commonly observed in aki? select all that apply. group of answer choices increased urine output metabolic alkalosis hypoparathyroidism fluid accumulation decreased urine output metabolic acidosis decreased energy expenditure
Physiological alterations commonly observed in AKI (Acute Kidney Injury) are: Decreased urine output, Fluid accumulation, Metabolic acidosis,
Decreased urine output: This occurs because the kidneys are not able to filter and eliminate waste products and excess fluid from the body properly, leading to a decrease in urine production.
Fluid accumulation: This occurs due to the inability of the kidneys to regulate fluid balance, leading to an accumulation of fluid in the body.
Metabolic acidosis: This occurs due to the buildup of acidic waste products in the blood that the kidneys are not able to eliminate, leading to an imbalance in the body's acid-base balance and metabolic processes.
Increased urine output, metabolic alkalosis, hypoparathyroidism, and decreased energy expenditure are not commonly observed in AKI.
In summary, Urine output, fluid accumulation, and metabolic acidosis are commonly observed in AKI.
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13. List 4 safety symbols that would be seen if you are working with a material that is biohazard, such as bacteria.
Answer:
1. Skull and crossbones
2. A triangle (commonly painted colour red or yellow) with an exclamation sign inside.
3. biohazard symbol
4. A radiation sign in the form of a triangle, having other little image descriptions inside.
Explanation:
Note that a biohazard material refers to dangerous substances of biological (living) nature that can pose a threat to humans. Thus, safety symbols try as much as to draw attention to the descriptions used.
For example, skull and crossbones and biohazard symbols are used to indicate that a material that is biohazard, such as bacteria could result in the death of a person.
What mechanism of gene transfer do you think was responsible for transferring the antibiotic resistant gene between these two strains of bacteria? explain your answer.
conjunction mechanism of gene transfer
the process of introducing new DNA into an organism's cells using modified viruses and plasmids as carriers. Cells can be transformed ex vivo for delivery to people or in vivo through gene therapy administered directly to the patient. The non-sexual transmission of genetic data between genomes is referred to as horizontal gene transfer (HGT; often referred to as lateral gene transfer). Genes can be replaced by incoming DNA or RNA, or new genes can be added to a genome. The exchange of genes across organisms is referred to as gene transfer. Both horizontal and vertical gene transfers are possible. When a DNA segment is copied and inserted from one place of the same molecule to another, the transfer of genes occurs horizontally.
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Which of the following reactions will have a net negative delta E value?
TCA Cycle
Glycolysis
Fermentation
Pentose Phosphate Pathway
Photosynthesis
A reaction with a net negative delta E value means that the reaction is spontaneous. Spontaneous reactions are the ones that release energy and move toward equilibrium without any external input. When a reaction has a net negative delta E value, it means that the products are more stable than the reactants.
The reactants will, therefore, spontaneously convert into products. This means that the reaction is exothermic as heat is given off.
The TCA Cycle is the only one of the options given that will have a net negative delta E value. The TCA Cycle (also known as the Krebs Cycle) is a series of reactions that occur in the mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotic cells. The TCA Cycle is responsible for the oxidation of acetyl-CoA and the generation of NADH and FADH2, which will be used later in the electron transport chain to produce ATP.
During the TCA Cycle, the oxidation of acetyl-CoA to CO2 releases energy. This energy is used to generate ATP, NADH, and FADH2. Since energy is released, the reaction is exothermic, and delta E is negative. This means that the TCA Cycle will have a net negative delta E value.
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What structural property of dna gave watson and crick the idea that dna replication was likely to proceed via a semiconservative mechanism?.
The complementary nature of base pairing between the two strands of DNA is the structural property of DNA that gave Watson and Crick the idea that DNA replication was likely to proceed via a semiconservative mechanism.
DNA is a double-helix structure made from nucleotides. The nucleotides of the DNA are made from nitrogenous bases, sugar, and a phosphate group.
The nucleotide bases which is complementary to each other form a ladder by which the structure of the DNA is maintained. Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine of the other strand.
Each strand of the DNA acts as a template to form in a semi-conservative replication model.
It was due to the complementary nature of the DNA that Watson and Crick proposed the semiconservative model for DNA replication. Each DNA strand acts as a template through which a new strand is made that is complementary to it.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
What structural property of DNA gave Watson and Crick the idea that DNA replication was likely to proceed via a semiconservative mechanism?
A) The nitrogen content in the bases
B) The complementary nature of base pairing between the two strands
C) The repeating nature of the sugar-phosphate backbone
D) The helical shape of the double strand
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Help ... ... ...... .......... .................... ........................
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
She's trying to find the affect different shapes have on the distance the plane flies, not the affect different types of paper have on distance. If she were to use different paper for each plane she'd be testing two variables instead of one.
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which body system is repsoible for the production of estorgen in human females
Answer:
In women, estrogen is produced mainly in the ovaries. Ovaries are grape-sized glands located by the uterus and are part of the endocrine system. Estrogen is also produced by fat cells and the adrenal glands.
the increasingly forceful labor contractions during childbirth are an example of...
a. receptor activation
b. effector shutdown
c. negative feedback
d. positive feedback
The increasingly forceful labor contractions during childbirth are an example of positive feedback.
Positive feedback is a physiological mechanism in which a stimulus or change leads to a response that amplifies or reinforces the initial change. In the case of labor contractions, the process begins with the release of oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates the uterine muscles to contract. As the contractions become stronger and more frequent, they exert pressure on the cervix, causing it to stretch and stimulate the release of more oxytocin. This cycle continues, with each contraction triggering the release of more oxytocin, leading to even stronger contractions. This positive feedback loop continues until the baby is born.
The purpose of positive feedback in childbirth is to ensure effective cervical dilation and delivery of the baby. As the contractions intensify, they help push the baby downward and exert pressure on the cervix, facilitating its gradual opening. This positive feedback mechanism allows for the progression of labor and ultimately leads to the successful delivery of the baby.
Positive feedback is a crucial mechanism in various physiological processes, such as blood clotting, lactation, and the immune response. It plays a significant role in amplifying and reinforcing certain physiological changes to achieve a specific outcome. In the case of childbirth, positive feedback ensures the progression of labor until the baby is delivered. Understanding these feedback mechanisms is essential for comprehending the intricacies of various physiological processes.
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Which of the following is NOT a reason for using a sample, rather than a census? a. sampling saves time b. sampling saves time some testing c. procedures are destructive some testing d. procedures are deductive
The fact that (d) processes are deductive is NOT a justification to choose a sample rather than a census.
Sampling is commonly used in research and data analysis as it provides several advantages over conducting a census, which involves gathering information from the entire population. The reasons for using sampling instead of a census include:
a. Sampling saves time: Conducting a census can be time-consuming and resource-intensive, especially when dealing with large populations. Sampling allows researchers to obtain representative information from a smaller subset of the population, saving time and effort.
b. Sampling saves time and reduces testing: When conducting certain tests or measurements on individuals within a population, it may not be necessary or practical to perform them on every single member of the population. Sampling allows researchers to collect data from a representative sample, reducing the amount of testing required.
c. Procedures are destructive for some testing: In certain cases, the procedures used for data collection or testing may be destructive, meaning they alter or consume the sample being analyzed. In such situations, it may not be feasible or desirable to perform these procedures on the entire population. Sampling allows researchers to select a subset of individuals for testing, minimizing the impact on the population.
Therefore, the correct option is d. procedures are deductive, as it does not relate to the reasons for using sampling instead of a census.
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