8 identically sized pieces of timber are x cm long when put together .how long is each individual piece

The solution is, the value of the variables are x = 40 and, y = 160.

Notice that "x" and "3x+20" are supplementary angles so their sum is 180°

(x) + (3x + 20) = 180

4x + 20 = 180

4x = 160

x = 40

To solve for "y", you have 2 options: either notice that "x" and "y-20" are supplementary angles so their sum is 180° or notice that "3x + 20" and "y - 20" are vertical angles so are equal to each other. I am going to solve using the first option because it is less work.

(x) + (y - 20) = 180°

40 + y - 20 = 180

y + 20 = 180

y = 160

Answer: x=40, y=160

The solution is, the value of the variables are x = 40 and, y = 160.

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complete question:

Find the value of each variable

You have completed the first three parts correctly. Nothing to add from my side.

Answer:

x=12°

Step-by-step explanation:

property of triangles:

4x-2=180°-30°-100°=50°

\(4x+2=50\)

\(4x=50-2=48\)

\(x=\frac{48}{4} =12^{0}\)

I hope this help you

Answer:

slope is 3/1 y=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

28.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Area = C²/ 4π = 28.245673384359

Answer:

28.25 units^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

The given statement in the question , if a sequence of uniformly bounded functions uniformly converges then its limit function must also be uniformly bounded is true.

It is true that a sequence of uniformly convergent bounded functions must converge to a bounded function. A uniformly convergent series of unbounded functions is difficult to describe.

On the real line, for example, f n (x) = x converges uniformly to f (x) = x.

In mathematics, a family of bounded functions is said to be uniformly bounded if all of its members can have their boundaries defined by the same constant.

This constant is greater than or equal to the absolute value of any of the family's functions.

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Answer:

\(2500 cm\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is in the attachment.

The scale of the map is 1:1000

This means that, 1 cm on the map represents 1000 cm on the ground(actual distance).

To find the actual distance between two points that are 2.5 cm on the map, we just have to multiply by 1000 to get:

\(2.5 * 1000=2500\)

Therefore the corresponding actual distance is 2500 cm

The corresponding actual distance for the distance of 4.9 cm between two points on the map is 0.049 km.

Distance is a numerical representation of the distance between two items or locations. Distance refers to a physical length or an approximation based on other physics or common usage considerations.

It is given that:

A property map is drawn at a scale of 1:1000.

1 cm = 1000

4.9 cm = 4.9x1000

= 4900 cm

1 km = 1000 cm

1 m = 100 cm

4900 cm in km:

= 4900/(100000)

= 0.049 km

Thus, the corresponding actual distance for the distance of 4.9 cm between two points on the map is 0.049 km.

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Answer:

the answer is 45

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 384

Step-by-step explanation:

a1 = 2, a2 = 3, a3 = 4,

an = ?

n = 44

d = a2 - a1 = 3 - 2 = 1

d = a3 - a2 = 4 - 3 = 1

Here, the common difference is the same everywhere

So,

\( a_{n} = a + (n - 1) \times d\)

\(a_{44} = 2 + (44 - 1) \times 1\)

\(a_{44} = 2 + 43\)

\(a_{44} = 45\)

Answer:

3 pints or 1.5 quarts

Step-by-step explanation:

1 quart has 2 pints, so each pitcher holds 4 pints -- 12 pints all together. So 15-12 = 3 pints that will not fit into the pitchers. 3 pints is equal to 1.5 quarts!

Answer:

The experimental probability depends on how many times you're spinning it and theoretical probability is stating what "would" happen if you're only spinning it once. After you get the theoretical probability, you would multiply that percentage by 25 to get the experimental probability percentage.

Step-by-step explanation:

The experimental probability depends on the number of times the experiment is conducted. The result from a theoretical probability is what would happen if the experiment is done once.

Probability determines how likely a stated event would occur. The probability the event occurs is 1 and the probability that the event does not occur is 0. Experimental probability is based on the result of an experiment that has been carried out multiples times

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Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula of 90 Degree angle

(y,-x)

Answer:

thay

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

------------------------

Find the slope of AB:

Use point-slope form and point A(2, 4) to determine the line:

Multiply both sides by 9 to clear fraction:

Open parenthesis and convert the equation into ax + by + c = 0:

Answer:

Therefore, the earliest time to take the next pill is after 10.85 hours and the latest time is before 15.14 hours have passed.

Step-by-step explanation:

The concentration of the drug in your system after ingesting 100.0 mg can be calculated using the formula:

C = D / V

where C is the concentration, D is the dose, and V is the volume of distribution (assumed to be constant).

At the initial time, t = 0, the concentration is:

C(0) = 100.0 mg / V

After one half-life, t = 16 hours, the concentration is:

C(16) = C(0) / 2 = 50.0 mg / V

After two half-lives, t = 32 hours, the concentration is:

C(32) = C(16) / 2 = 25.0 mg / V

After three half-lives, t = 48 hours, the concentration is:

C(48) = C(32) / 2 = 12.5 mg / V

To find the earliest and latest times to take the next 100.0 mg pill, we need to calculate the concentration at those times and make sure it stays between 20.0 mg and 140.0 mg.

Let's first find the earliest time at which the concentration drops below 20.0 mg.

20.0 mg / V = C(16 + x) = 50.0 mg / V / (2^(x/16))

Solving for x:

2^(x/16) = 50.0 / 20.0 = 2.5

x/16 = log2(2.5)

x = 16*log2(2.5) = 16*0.678 = 10.85

So the earliest time to take the next pill is after 10.85 hours.

Now let's find the latest time at which the concentration goes above 140.0 mg.

140.0 mg / V = C(16 + x) = 50.0 mg / V / (2^(x/16))

Solving for x:

2^(x/16) = 50.0 / 140.0 = 0.3571

x/16 = log2(0.3571)

x = 16*log2(0.3571) = -15.14

So the latest time to take the next pill is before 15.14 hours have passed.

Answer:

The perimeter of the square is 32x + 20 inches, and the perimeter of the rectangle is (4x - 5) + (4x - 5) + (12x + 15) + (12x + 15) = 32x + 20 inches.

So, to find the value of x that makes the perimeters the same, we set 32x + 20 = 32x + 20 and solve for x.

x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the together rate, it is found that the time it would take the second pump, working alone, to fill the tank is:

B. 90 minutes

The together rate is the sum of each separate rate.

In this problem:

Then:

\(\frac{1}{150} + \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{60}\)

\(\frac{x + 150}{150x} = \frac{1}{60}\)

Applying cross multiplication:

\(150x = 50x + 9000\)

\(100x = 9000\)

\(x = \frac{9000}{100}\)

\(x = 90\)

Hence, it would take 90 minutes for the second pump, working alone, to fill the tank.

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Using the together rate, it is found that the time it would take the second pump, working alone, to fill the tank is:

B. 90 minutes

The together rate is the sum of each separate rate.

In this problem:

The together rate is of 1/60.

The first rate is of 1/150.

The second rate is of 1/x.

Then:

Applying cross multiplication:

Hence, it would take 90 minutes for the second pump, working alone, to fill the tank.

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Answer:

4.6 . . . . . . . .. . .. .. . . ,.,.,.,..,

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

\(a+b+c=180\\\frac{b+c}{2}=a \rightarrow b+c=2a\\\\a+2a=180\\3a=180\\a=60\)

Therefore, the value of a is 60 degrees

Answer:

D. A pair of intersecting lines

Step-by-step explanation:

A conic section is a fancy name for a curve that you get when you slice a double cone with a plane. Imagine you have two ice cream cones stuck together at the tips, and you cut them with a knife. Depending on how you cut them, you can get different shapes. These shapes are called conic sections, and they include circles, ellipses, parabolas and hyperbolas. If you cut them right at the tip, you get a point. If you cut them slightly above the tip, you get a line. If you cut them at an angle, you get two lines that cross each other. That's what happened in your question. The plane cut the cone at an angle, so the curve is two intersecting lines. That means the correct answer is D. A pair of intersecting lines.

I hope this helps you ace your math question.

a) To find f(-2), first determine which part of the piecewise function the x-value of -2 falls into.

b) f(5) can be computed -1.5

c) In f(x) = -7/2, x = -3.

We have,

A type of function that is defined by multiple sub-functions, each of which is applied to a specific interval or domain of the main function. It is made up of individual pieces, each of which is defined by an equation with a specific domain.

a) To find f(-2), first determine which part of the piecewise function the x-value of -2 falls into. Since -2 is greater than -6 and less than 0, the first part of the piecewise function applies. Thus, f(-2) can be computed as follows:

f(-2) = 1/2(-2) - 2

= -3

b) To find f(5), first determine which part of the piecewise function the x-value of 5 falls into. Since 5 is greater than 0 and less than or equal to 8, the second part of the piecewise function applies. Thus, f(5) can be computed as follows:

f(5) = 1/2(5) - 4

= -1.5

c) To find x when f(x) = -7/2, first determine which part of the piecewise function applies. Since -7/2 is less than 0, the first part of the piecewise function applies. Thus, x can be computed as follows:

-7/2 = 1/2x - 2

x = -4+7

= -3

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complete question:

attached

E and M are shown as congruent. This could be an Isosceles Triangle, so let's check. In an isosceles triangle, there are two congruent angles adjacent to the non-congruent side, and two congruent sides to the non-congruent angle. This angle is the apex. The apex of this triangle is adjacent to two congruent sides, however it is congruent to angle M, and thus this cannot be an isosceles triangle. That means this is an equilateral triangle, so all sides are congruent. So: LM = 16

For any matrices A and B, where A is a m x n matrix and B is a n x p matrix, the inequality rank(AB) ≤ min rank(A), rank(B) holds.

To see why this is so, examine the rank of a matrix, which is defined as the matrix's greatest number of linearly independent rows or columns.

In other words, it is the dimension of the vector space covered by the matrix's rows or columns.

When we multiply matrices A and B to obtain AB, we get a matrix with m rows and p columns.

The dot product of a row from A and a column from B yields each element in the matrix.

Because the rows and columns of AB are linear combinations of the rows and columns of A and B, the rank of AB is at most the minimum of the rank of A and the rank of B.

If either A or B has a lower rank than the other, there will be some linear dependency between the rows or columns of one of the matrices, which will carry over to AB. This indicates that AB's rank will be strictly less than the bigger matrix's rank.

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Answer:

You are t subtract both 28,176.44-$1500

Step-by-step explanation:

right after that the answer you get for subtraction you go ahead and use it to subtract with 34,083.30

The probability of flipping heads twice followed by tails three times is 1/32 or approximately 0.031.

Each coin flip is an independent event, meaning the outcome of one flip does not affect the outcome of any other flip. Therefore, the probability of getting heads on any one flip is always 1/2, regardless of previous outcomes.

Using this information, we can calculate the probability of flipping heads twice followed by tails three times as:

P(heads) = 1/2

P(tails) = 1/2

P(heads on first flip) = 1/2

P(heads on second flip) = 1/2

P(tails on third flip) = 1/2

P(tails on fourth flip) = 1/2

P(tails on fifth flip) = 1/2

P(heads twice followed by tails three times)

= P(heads on first flip) x P(heads on second flip) x P(tails on third flip) x P(tails on fourth flip) x P(tails on fifth flip)

= (1/2) x (1/2) x (1/2) x (1/2) x (1/2)

= 1/32

Therefore, the probability of flipping heads twice followed by tails three times is 1/32 or approximately 0.031.

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Using area formula,

a. Area of the trapezium = 47.5m².

b. Area of parallelogram = 54inches².

The area of a thing is the amount of space it occupies in two dimensions. It is a way to count how many unit squares completely round the surface of a closed figure. The standard unit of area is the square unit, which is usually expressed as square inches, square feet, etc.

a. Sides of the trapezium are, a = 5m and b = 14m.

Height, h = 5m.

Area of the trapezium = (a+b)/2 × h

= (5 + 14)/2 × 5

= (19× 5)/2

= 95/2

= 47.5m².

b. Height of parallelogram = 6inches.

Base of parallelogram = 9inches.

Area = b × h

= 6 × 9

= 54inches².

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Answer:

if a:c=2:3 andb:c=3:4therefore a:c=2:4