A 0.050 m solution of the weak acid ha has [h3o ] = 3.77 x 10-4 m. what is the ka for the acid?
a) 5 x 10-3 m
b) 2.8 x 10-6 m
c) 8.0 x 10-7 m
d) 7.0 x 10-8 m

Answer:

The system has two solutions:

(1, -1) and (0, 0)

Explanation:

We have the system of equations:

x + y = 0

x = x^2 + 2*x*y

To solve this, the first step is to isolate one of the variables in one of the equations, I will isolate x on the first one.

x = -y

Now we can replace this on the other equation, to get:

x = x^2 + 2*x*y

(-y) = (-y)^2 + 2*(-y)*y

Now we can solve this equation for y.

-y = y^2 - 2*y^2

-y = -y^2

y^2 - y = 0

We can solve this using the Bhaskara's formula:

The solutions are then:

\(y = \frac{-(-1) \pm \sqrt{(-1)^2 - 4*1*0} }{2*1} = \frac{1 \pm 1}{2}\)

Then the two possible solutions are:

y = (1 + 1)/2 = 1

and

y = (1 - 1)/2 = 0

Suppose that we take the first one, y = 1.

Then the solution for x is given by "x = -y"

Then:

x = -1

This means that one solution of the system is (-1, 1)

If we take the other solution for y, y = 0

The value of x will be:

x = -y = -0 = 0

Then another solution of the system is (0, 0)

The sled will slide horizontally a distance of 18.94 m before coming to a stop.

The horizontal motion of the sled is under the influence of frictional forces acting opposite to the direction of motion. When the sled comes to rest, the frictional force would have done work to bring the sled to a halt.

To find the distance the sled would move, use the work-energy theorem which states that the work done by all the forces acting on a body is equal to the change in the kinetic energy of the body.

Kinetic energy = 1/2mv²where m is the mass and v is the velocity of the body

Initial velocity of the sled = 9.2 m/s

Mass of the sled and students = 120 kg

Coefficient of friction = 0.23There is no vertical motion so the potential energy remains constant and is ignored.The sled starts with kinetic energy equal to the work done by all the forces acting on it. The frictional force does negative work and removes the kinetic energy and bring the sled to a stop.Work done by friction = force × distance.

The force of friction is proportional to the normal force acting on the sled. We do not know the normal force acting on the sled, but we know the gravitational force acting on the sled and this gives the normal force.Force of gravity = mass × acceleration due to gravity = mg.

The normal force = force of gravity × cos (0) = mg × cos (0) = mg.

The angle between the horizontal and the slope is zero, so the angle of inclination is zero.

Work done by friction = force of friction × distance

Work done by friction = frictional force × distance

Work done by friction = μmg × distance

Work done by friction = kinetic energy at start of slide = 1/2mv²

Work done by friction = (1/2)(mass)(initial velocity)²

Work done by friction = (1/2)(120 kg)(9.2 m/s)²

Work done by friction = 5 137.6 J

Frictional force = μmg

Frictional force = (0.23)(120 kg)(9.8 m/s²)

Frictional force = 270.96 N270.96 N × distance = 5 137.6 J

distance = 5 137.6 J/270.96 N

distance = 18.94 m

Therefore, the sled will slide horizontally a distance of 18.94 m before coming to a stop.

For more such questions on distance, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/26550516

#SPJ8

Answer:

7500 m/s

Explanation:

We can use the equation velocity of a wave equals wavelength times  frequency.  Therefore, v = wavelength*f = (25 m)(300 Hz) =  m/s7,500

Answer:

CLAIM: When you eat the hamburger, your body uses it and breaks it down which is chemical energy than use that food for energy for mechanical energy which makes thermal energy

EVIDENCE: This happens every day to people across the world and also it is scientifically proven

REASONING: The reason why this evidence supports it is because as I said  it happens everyday and when you feel energized after and apple after you were lazy that just happened

Explanation:

The velocity of the astronaut as he moves backward is -0.33 m/s.

Velocity is the rate of change of dispalcement.

To calculate the velocity the astronaut moves backward, we use the formula below

Formula:

Where:

From  the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 1 and solve for v

Hence, the velocity is -0.33 m/s.

Learn more about velocity here: https://brainly.com/question/24445340

#SPJ1

Answer:

pascal principle states that pressure exerted to a confined fluid is transmitted uniformly in all direction

The true statement is Pascal principle states that pressure exerted to a confined fluid is transmitted uniformly in all direction.

Pascal principle states that a pressure change at any point in a confined incompressible fluid is transmitted throughout the fluid such that the same change occurs everywhere.

P = F/A

Thus, the true statement is Pascal principle states that pressure exerted to a confined fluid is transmitted uniformly in all direction.

Learn more about Pascal principle here: https://brainly.com/question/4262025

#SPJ6

Let's calculate the values based on the given information:

The area of the wooden block can be calculated by multiplying the length and width of one of its faces:

Area = Length * Width

Area = 40 cm * 20 cm

Area = 800 cm²

To convert to square inches, we can use the conversion factor 1 inch = 2.54 cm:

Area in square inches = Area in square centimeters / (2.54 cm/inch)²

Area in square inches = 800 cm² / (2.54 cm/inch)²

Area in square inches ≈ 124.03 in²

The volume of the wooden block can be calculated by multiplying its length, width, and height:

Volume = Length * Width * Height

Volume = 40 cm * 20 cm * 10 cm

Volume = 8000 cm³

To convert to cubic inches, we can use the conversion factor 1 inch = 2.54 cm:

Volume in cubic inches = Volume in cubic centimeters / (2.54 cm/inch)³

Volume in cubic inches = 8000 cm³ / (2.54 cm/inch)³

Volume in cubic inches ≈ 488.19 in³

The density of the wooden block can be calculated by dividing its mass by its volume:

Density = Mass / Volume

Density = 5 kg / 8000 cm³

To convert to grams per cubic centimeter (g/cm³), we can use the conversion factor 1 kg = 1000 g:

Density in g/cm³ = Density in kg/cm³ * 1000 g/kg

Density in g/cm³ = (5 kg / 8000 cm³) * 1000 g/kg

Density in g/cm³ ≈ 0.625 g/cm³

To convert to pounds per cubic inch (lb/in³), we can use the conversion factor 1 kg = 2.20462 lb and 1 inch = 2.54 cm:

Density in lb/in³ = Density in kg/cm³ * (2.20462 lb/kg) / (2.54 cm/inch)³

Density in lb/in³ = (5 kg / 8000 cm³) * (2.20462 lb/kg) / (2.54 cm/inch)³

Density in lb/in³ ≈ 0.036 lb/in³

Pressure is defined as force divided by area. In this case, we need more information to calculate the pressure. If the block is subjected to a specific force, we can divide that force by the appropriate surface area to find the pressure.

The pressure on the top surface of the wooden block depends on the force applied to it. Without information about the applied force, we cannot calculate the pressure.

Similarly, the pressure on the bottom surface of the wooden block depends on the force applied to it. Without information about the applied force, we cannot calculate the pressure.

The force on the top surface of the wooden block depends on the pressure applied and the surface area. Without information about the pressure or force applied, we cannot calculate the force.

The force on the bottom surface of the wooden block depends on the pressure applied and the surface area. Without information about the pressure or force applied, we cannot calculate the force.

Without the values for forces on the top and bottom surfaces, we cannot determine the difference between them.

To know more about pressure here

https://brainly.com/question/28012687

#SPJ4

1. The area of the wooden block can be calculated using the formula for the surface area of a rectangular prism: SA = 2(lw + lh + wh), where l, w, and h are the length, width, and height of the block, respectively. Using the given dimensions, we can find the surface area in cm²:

SA = 2(40 × 20 + 40 × 10 + 20 × 10)

SA = 2(800 + 400 + 200)

SA = 2(1400)

SA = 2800 cm²

To convert cm² to in², we can use the conversion factor 1 in² = 6.45 cm². So, the area in in² is:

2800 ÷ 6.45 = 434.96 in² (rounded to two decimal places)

2. The volume of the wooden block can be calculated using the formula for the volume of a rectangular prism: V = lwh. Using the given dimensions, we can find the volume in cm³:

V = 40 × 20 × 10

V = 8000 cm³

To convert cm³ to in³, we can use the conversion factor 1 in³ = 16.39 cm³. So, the volume in in³ is:

8000 ÷ 16.39 = 487.61 in³ (rounded to two decimal places)

3. The density of the wooden block can be calculated using the formula: density = mass/volume. The mass of the block is given as 5 kg. To convert this to grams, we can use the conversion factor 1 kg = 1000 g. So, the mass in grams is:

5 kg × 1000 g/kg = 5000 g

Using the volume calculated in part 2, we can find the density in g/cm³:

density = 5000 g/8000 cm³

density = 0.625 g/cm³

To convert g/cm³ to lb/in³, we can use the conversion factor 1 g/cm³ = 0.0361 lb/in³. So, the density in lb/in³ is:

0.625 g/cm³ × 0.0361 lb/in³/g/cm³ = 0.0226 lb/in³

4. The pressure on the wooden block is given by the formula: pressure = force/area. To find the pressure, we need to know the force acting on the block. Since the block is simply resting on the tabletop, the force acting on it is due to its weight. Using the formula for weight: w = mg, where w is weight, m is mass, and g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²).

To find the weight in newtons (N), we can use the conversion factor 1 kg = 9.8 N. So, the weight of the block is:

5 kg × 9.8 N/kg = 49 N

Using the area of the block's base (40 cm × 20 cm = 800 cm²), we can find the pressure in N/cm²:

pressure = 49 N/800 cm²

pressure = 0.06125 N/cm²

To convert N/cm² to psi, we can use the conversion factor 1 psi = 6894.76 N/m². So, the pressure in psi is:

0.06125 N/cm² × (1 m²/10,000 cm²) × (1 psi/6894.76 N/m²) = 0.0089 psi (rounded to four decimal places)

5. The pressure on the top surface of the wooden block is the same as the pressure calculated in part 4: 0.06125 N/cm² or 0.0089 psi.

6. To find the pressure on the bottom surface of the block, we can use the formula: pressure = force/area. Since the bottom surface has the same area as the top surface, the pressure will also be the same: 0.06125 N/cm² or 0.0089 psi.

7. The force acting on the top surface of the wooden block is simply its weight, which we calculated to be 49 N in part 4.

8. The force acting on the bottom surface of the wooden block is also its weight, which we calculated to be 49 N in part 4.

9. The force on the bottom surface is equal in magnitude to the force on the top surface.

Learn more about density calculations for rectangular prisms:

https://brainly.com/question/24530449

#SPJ11

The correct choices are: It is deflected by our magnetic field of the earth, protecting us. They create the auroras seen as the Northern and Southern Lights.

When solar wind, which consists of charged particles emitted by the Sun, reaches the Earth, two notable effects occur. Firstly, the Earth's magnetic field acts as a protective shield, deflecting the solar wind particles away from the planet's surface. This deflection helps protect the Earth's atmosphere and life from the harmful effects of direct exposure to the solar wind. Secondly, when the solar wind particles interact with the Earth's magnetic field, particularly in the polar regions, they can create stunning displays of light known as the auroras or Northern and Southern Lights. These colorful lights are generated when the charged particles from the solar wind collide with atoms and molecules in the upper atmosphere, causing them to emit light.

learn more about magnetic field here;

https://brainly.com/question/19542022

#SPJ11

It is because the effort distance is greater than the load distance

Explanation:

As we know, Effort×effort distance = load × load distance

So when effort distance is increases,

The effort decreases

So when the spanner’s handle is long

A tight knot can easily be opened by less effrot

I hope it helped

The diameter of Venus can be calculated using the angular size at inferior conjunction and its orbital parameters. With an angular size of 55" and a distance of 0.3 AU from Earth, the physical size of Venus can be determined.

The angular size of an object is the angle it subtends at the observer's location. In this case, the maximum angular size of Venus is given as 55" (arcseconds) during inferior conjunction. Inferior conjunction occurs when Venus is positioned between Earth and the Sun, and its distance from Earth is 0.3 AU (astronomical units). Venus is also stated to be 0.7 AU from the Sun.

To calculate the physical size of Venus, we can use the small-angle formula, which relates the angular size, distance, and physical size of an object. The formula is given by:

Angular size (in radians) = Physical size / Distance

Since the angular size is usually measured in arcseconds, it needs to be converted to radians. One radian is equal to 206,265 arcseconds.

Converting the given angular size of 55" to radians:

Angular size (in radians) = 55" / 206,265 ≈ 0.000266 radians

Using the small-angle formula, we can rearrange it to solve for the physical size:

Physical size = Distance × Angular size

Substituting the values, where the distance is 0.3 AU:

Physical size = 0.3 AU × 0.000266 radians ≈ 0.00008 AU

Finally, to convert the physical size from astronomical units to kilometers, we can use the conversion factor of 1 AU = 149.6 million kilometers:

Physical size = 0.00008 AU × 149.6 million kilometers/AU ≈ 12,000 kilometers

Therefore, the diameter (physical size) of Venus is estimated to be approximately 12,000 kilometers.

Learn more about here:

https://brainly.com/question/32968193

#SPJ11

The wavelength shift of scattered X-rays at a scattering angle of 55.0 degrees can be determined using the Compton scattering formula

To calculate the wavelength shift of scattered X-rays, we can use the Compton scattering formula. The Compton effect describes the change in the wavelength of X-rays when they interact with matter.

the formula for the wavelength shift (Δλ) in Compton scattering is given by:

Δλ = λ' - λ = (h / (m_ec)) * (1 - cos(θ))

Where:

Δλ is the wavelength shift

λ' is the scattered wavelength

λ is the initial wavelength (incident wavelength)

h is the Planck's constant (6.62607015 × 10^(-34) J·s)

m_e is the mass of the electron (9.10938356 × 10^(-31) kg)

c is the speed of light in a vacuum (299,792,458 m/s)

θ is the scattering angle (55.0 degrees in this case)

Let's calculate the wavelength shift:

θ = 55.0 degrees

λ' = λ (initial wavelength)

Substituting the given values into the formula:

Δλ = (h / (m_ec)) * (1 - cos(θ))

    = (6.62607015 × 10^(-34) J·s) / ((9.10938356 × 10^(-31) kg) * (299,792,458 m/s)) * (1 - cos(55.0 degrees))

Calculating this expression will give us the wavelength shift of the scattered X-rays.

Learn more about wavelength

brainly.com/question/31143857

#SPJ11

Answer:

hope this helps  : )

Explanation:

brainliest plz

Answer:

The red substance was ionic. The white substance was molecular.

Explanation:

B.C.

If Clarisse had three substances, A white substance was waxy and malleable. A red crystal was translucent, and it cracked when she hit it with a hammer. A silver substance could be flattened by hitting it with a hammer, but it did not crack. the two true statements are the red substance was ionic and the white substance was molecular. therefore the correct option is B and D.

The chemical compound is a combination of two or more either similar or dissimilar chemical elements, for example, H₂O is a chemical compound made up of two oxygen atoms and a single hydrogen atom.

These chemical compounds are formed because of different types of bonds between the constituent's elements, the chemical bonds are mainly ionic bonds, covalent bonds,s, and hydrogen bonds.

Ionic bonds are formed due to the transfer of electrons between two bond-forming pairs differentiated by their electronegativity.

Covalent bonds are formed by the sharing of electrons. Generally, organic compounds are formed as the reason for covalent bonds.

As the white substance is waxy and malleable and the silvers substance could be flattened by hitting with a hammer but it did not crack it means the white substance is a metallic material that is molecular in nature , the red crystal is translucent and cracked when hit with a hammer this means it is ionic in nature.

Thus, the correct options are option B and option D.

Learn more about a chemical compound from here

brainly.com/question/12166462

#SPJ5

Answer:

attractive/magnetic

mark me brainliestt :))

The Torque is only produced when the force is applied perpendicular to the moment arm.

The equal and opposite force acting at a point from the axis of rotation is called the moment.

M = F x r

Moment of force is also called as Torque.

Moment arm is the distance of the point of application of force from the axis of rotation of the body.

Thus, the perpendicular component only, produces the torque.

Learn more about moment of force.

https://brainly.com/question/6278006

#SPJ2

Answer:

Explanation:

Pneumatic and hydraulic systems have many similarities. Both pneumatics and hydraulics are applications of fluid power. They each use a pump as an actuator, are controlled by valves, and use fluids to transmit mechanical energy.

1MeV = 1.6 x 10-13 J and  3.5 x 1011 joules of energy is energy in joules per kilogram of reactants.

The amount of fuel needed to meet US expectations for energy consumption over the next ten years.
In the US, each person uses 3.5 x 1011 joules of energy annually. 310,000,000 people make up the present population, thus use 1MeV = 1.6 x 10-13 J in your calculations.
In the US, annual energy consumption per person is equal to 3.5 x 1011Joules (estimated, varies by source, August 2009)
USA population: 310,000,000, roughly.
One mega electron volt, or one million electron volts, is designated as MeV. A particle with one electron charge will gain one MeV of energy when it passes through a potential difference of one million volts in a vacuum.

To learn more about Mev please visit -
https://brainly.com/question/13093080
#SPJ1

Explanation:

everything can be found in the picture

The x-coordinate of the center of mass of the uneaten pizza above the x-axis is -1.5 in.

The x-coordinate of the center of mass of the uneaten pizza above the x-axis (second quadrant) can be found by taking the average of the x-coordinates of the points in that quadrant.

To find the x-coordinate of the center of mass, we need to determine the average x-coordinate of the uneaten pizza in the second quadrant.

In the given scenario, the center of mass of the partially eaten pizza is located at Xcm = -1.5 in. This means that the uneaten pizza in the second quadrant is symmetric with respect to the y-axis.

Since the uneaten pizza is symmetrical, the x-coordinate of the center of mass of the uneaten portion above the x-axis will also be -1.5 in. This is because the uneaten portion is evenly distributed in the second quadrant, resulting in an equal distribution of mass on both sides of the y-axis.

Therefore, the x-coordinate of the center of mass of the uneaten pizza above the x-axis is -1.5 in.

To learn more about center of mass, here

https://brainly.com/question/8662931

#SPJ4

The complete question is:

The location of the center of mass of the partially eaten, 12-inch diameter pizza shown in the figure (Figure 1) is Xcm = - 1.5 in

and Ycm = -1.5 in . Assuming each quadrant of the pizza to be the same, find the center of mass of the uneaten pizza above the x axis (that is, the portion of the pizza in the second quadrant). Find the x-coordinate.

Answer:

Explanation:

A simple pendulum consists of a mass (usually represented as a small object or bob) attached to a string or rod of negligible mass. The mass is free to swing back and forth under the influence of gravity.

In the figure, the point of suspension is denoted by "O," and the mass (bob) is represented by the small circle. The string or rod is represented by the vertical line connecting the point of suspension to the bob.

Amplitude:

The amplitude of a pendulum refers to the maximum displacement or swing of the bob from its equilibrium position. In the figure, the amplitude can be represented by the angle formed between the vertical position and the position of the bob when it swings to its maximum distance on one side. It is usually denoted by the symbol "A."

Effective Length:

The effective length of a pendulum refers to the distance from the point of suspension to the center of mass of the bob. It represents the distance over which the mass swings back and forth. In the figure, the effective length can be measured as the length of the string or rod from the point of suspension to the center of the bob. It is usually denoted by the symbol "L."

It is important to note that the amplitude and effective length of a simple pendulum affect its period of oscillation (the time taken for one complete swing). The relationship between these parameters and the period can be described by mathematical formulas.

Overall, the simple pendulum is a fundamental concept in physics and provides a simplified model for understanding oscillatory motion and the principles of periodic motion.

The average velocity of the pirates is 1.44 miles/hr.

A vector quantity is an average velocity. The change in position or displacement (x) divided by the time intervals (t) in which the displacement happens yields the average velocity. Depending on the sign of the displacement, the average velocity can be positive or negative. Meters per second (m/s or ms-1) is the SI measure of average velocity.

total time = t₁ + 1 + t₂

T = 1 + 1 + 3

T = 5hr

Displacement = AC = √(4² + 6²)

S = √16+36

S = √52

Average velocity = Displacement/ Time

v = S/t

substituting the value in the above equation, we get

v = 7.2/5

v = 1.44 mile/hr

Thus, the average velocity of the pirates is 1.44 miles/hr.

Learn more about average velocity here:

https://brainly.com/question/862972

#SPJ4

A. The distance between the slits is approximately 3.21 × \(10^{-6}\) m.

B. The wavelength of the second source of light is approximately 4.48 × \(10^{-7}\) m.

Part A:

To find the distance between the slits (d), we can use the formula for the interference pattern:

d * sin(θ) = m * λ

Where:

d is the distance between the slits

θ is the angle between the line perpendicular to the slits and the direction of the bright band

m is the order of the bright band (m = 1, 2, 3, ...)

λ is the wavelength of the light

In this case, we know that adjacent bright bands are 2.2 cm apart, which can be converted to meters by dividing by 100:

2.2 cm = 0.022 m

We can consider the first-order (m = 1) bright band. The angle θ can be approximated as the tangent of the angle:

θ ≈ tan(θ) = opposite/adjacent = 0.022 m / 4.5 m

Now we can rearrange the formula to solve for d:

d = (m * λ) / sin(θ)

Using the values we have:

d = (1 * 5.6 × \(10^{-7}\) m) / sin(0.022 m / 4.5 m)

Calculating this expression:

d ≈ 3.21  × \(10^{-6}\) m

Therefore, the distance between the slits is approximately 3.21  × \(10^{-6}\) m.

Part B:

For the second source of light, we know that the fifth-order minimum (m = 5) occurs at the same point on the screen as the fourth-order minimum (m = 4) for the previous light. Let's assume the wavelength of the second source of light is λ'.

We can set up the following equation using the formula for interference patterns:

d * sin(θ) = m * λ'

For the fourth-order minimum, we have:

d * sin(θ) = 4 * λ

And for the fifth-order minimum, we have:

d * sin(θ) = 5 * λ'

Since both minima occur at the same point on the screen, the values of sin(θ) and d are the same for both equations. Therefore, we can equate the right sides of the equations:

4 * λ = 5 * λ'

To find λ', we can rearrange the equation:

λ' = (4 * λ) / 5

Substituting the known value for λ:

λ' = (4 * 5.6 × \(10^{-7}\) m) / 5

Calculating this expression:

λ' = 4.48 × \(10^{-7}\) m

Therefore, the wavelength of the second source of light is approximately 4.48 × \(10^{-7}\) m.

To know more about wavelength here

https://brainly.com/question/13200660

#SPJ4

It can be said that the car which travels first at 40 miles in 40 minutes and then 30 miles in 30 minutes is traveling at a constant speed.

The formula and procedure we will use to solve this exercise is:

v = x /t

Where:

Information about the problem:

Applying the velocity formula for the first data information of the travel, we get:

v₁ = x₁ /t₁

v₁ = 40 miles /40 min

v₁ = 1 mile/min

Applying the velocity formula for the second data information of the travel, we get:

v₂ = x₂ /t₂

v₂ = 30 miles /30 min

v₂ = 1 mile/min

As we notice v₁ = v₂ that means that the car is traveling with a constant speed during the trip

It is a physical quantity that indicates the displacement of a mobile per unit of time, it is expressed in units of distance per time, for example (miles/h, km/h).

Learn more about velocity at: brainly.com/question/80295?source=archive

#SPJ4

Answer:

magnet b

Explanation:

because it has a stronger current so it attracts more paper clips

my brain.

Explanation:

...................

Answer:The Nokia XR20. ... HMD Global said the Nokia XR20 is the most durable phone it's created to date. The XR20 sports a tough 6.67-inch Gorilla Glass Victus display from American tech firm Corning and can resist damage from scratches and drops from about 6 feet, the company says.Jul 26, 2021

Explanation:

Answer:

Force (F) = Mass (m) * Acceleration (a)

F = ma

Explanation:

If the mass is doubled, the force will be doubled. The same is with acceleration, if acceleration is doubled, the force will double. This also translates to other numbers, the relationship is direct, however, since it's just multiplication.

The region from the origin to the elastic limit on an applied force versus elongation graph for a typical metal under tension is referred to as the elastic region.

In this region, the metal behaves elastically, meaning that it can be stretched or deformed under applied force, but will return to its original shape once the force is removed.

The elastic limit is the point at which the metal begins to behave plastically, meaning that it will not return to its original shape after being stretched or deformed.

Beyond the elastic limit, the metal will undergo permanent deformation and may eventually fail.

Understanding the behavior of metals in the elastic region is important for designing structures and products that can withstand applied forces without failing.

The elastic region is the area from the origin to the elastic limit on an applied force versus elongation graph for a typical metal under tension.

For more such answers on Elastic Region

https://brainly.com/question/15318192

#SPJ11

Given, mass of the man, m=60kg

Kinetic energy of the man, E

k

=750J

If v is the velocity of the man, then

E

k

=

2

1

mv

2

or v=

m

2E

k

=

60

2×750

=5m/s

Answer:

\({ \bf{kinetic \: energy = \frac{1}{2}m {v}^{2} }} \\ { \tt{ 750= \frac{1}{2} \times 60 \times {v}^{2} }} \\ { \tt{ {v}^{2} = 25 }} \\ \\ { \tt{v = \sqrt{25} }} \\ { \bf{velocity = 5 \: m {s}^{ - 1} }}\)