Answers
The nurse should inform the patient that this kind of therapy could increase he risk of prostrate cancer.
Higher testosterone levels in the body (or genetically existent) or from androgenic medication increase the risk of breast and endometrial cancer in women and prostate cancer in men.
Testosterone increases the risk of estrogen receptor (ER)-positive, but not ER-negative, breast cancer.
Older male patients may be at increased risk of prostate enlargement or prostate cancer if they are treated with anabolic steroids.
Androgens stimulate the proliferation of prostate cancer cells. The main androgens in the body are testosterone and dihydrotestosterone (DHT). Most androgens are made in the testicles, but the adrenal glands (the glands above the kidneys) and prostate cancer cells themselves can also make androgens.
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Related Questions
"Look over there! It's a bear," your friend yells. You quickly turn your head to look.
This movement of attention accompanied by movement of the eyes or body is
known as:
Answers
This sudden movement of attention accompanied by the movement of the eyes or body is known as Saccadic movement.
Which part of the eyes undergoes the movement?The part of the eyes that undergoes sudden movement is the eye lens. But the superior colliculus gives the command to your eyes when and where to move with respect to the movement of your head and shoulders.
Saccadic movement may be defined as the quick and simultaneous movement of both eyes in the same direction with respect to any external stimuli. It involves two or more phases of fixation immediately after one by one.
Therefore, Saccadic movement is the sudden movement that involves attention accompanied by the movement of the eyes or body with respect to external commands or stimuli.
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a nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. which human need would the nurse most likely need to address?
Answers
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has just lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse most likely need to address the Self-esteem needs which human need.
Self-esteem need- Aspects of self-esteem include courage, tenacity, self-belief, societal and personal acceptance, and respect from others. The achievement of these prerequisites is one of the most crucial elements in obtaining satisfaction or self-actualization.
Self-esteem has an effect on all aspects of life, including relationships, emotional health, and general wellbeing. It also has an impact on motivation since people with healthy, positive self-perceptions are aware of their potential and may be inspired to take on new challenges.
Cause of Low esteem- Unhappy childhood marked by constant criticism from parents or other powerful people.
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sbar T.N. delivered a healthy male infant 2 hours ago. She had a midline episiotomy. This is her sixth pregnancy. Before this delivery, she was para 4014. She had an epidural block for her labor and delivery. She is now admitted to the postpartum unit. 1. What is important to note in the initial assessment
Answers
Answer and Explanation:
It is important to assess body temperature and the existence of abnormal swellings. It is also necessary to assess urinary production and bowel function, existence of clots or bleeding, breast tenderness, uterus contraction and the patient's emotional state.
These factors are important to be evaluated to determine the level and recovery of the patient the normal functioning of the body, then go through the procedures presented. These procedures determine if the patient will need to be submitted to other procedures that guarantee both his physical and emotional well-being.
A client with chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg by mouth daily, and furosemide (Lasix), 20 mg by mouth twice daily. The nurse instructs the client to notify the physician if nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or abdominal cramps occur because these signs and symptoms may signal digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may also cause:
visual disturbances.
taste and smell alterations.
dry mouth and urine retention.
nocturia and sleep disturbances.
Answers
In addition to the symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, or abdominal cramps, digoxin toxicity may also cause visual disturbances.
Thus, the correct answer is visual disturbances (A).
Digoxin toxicity mаy cаuse visuаl disturbаnces (such аs, flickering flаshes of light, colored or hаlo vision, photophobiа, blurring, diplopiа, аnd scotomаtа), centrаl nervous system аbnormаlities (such аs heаdаche, fаtigue, lethаrgy, depression, irritаbility аnd, if profound, seizures, delusions, hаllucinаtions, аnd memory loss), аnd cаrdiovаsculаr аbnormаlities (аbnormаl heаrt rаte аnd аrrhythmiаs).
Digoxin toxicity doesn't cаuse tаste аnd smell аlterаtions. Dry mouth аnd urine retention typicаlly occur with аnticholinergic аgents, not inotropic аgents such аs digoxin. Nocturiа аnd sleep disturbаnces аre аdverse effects of furosemide, especiаlly if the client tаkes the second dаily dose in the evening, which mаy cаuse diuresis аt night.
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There are many complaints that nutrition education is focused on what not to eat instead of what to eat. How does this confuse consumers?
Answers
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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and
Two types of monocular depth cues are
A. motion parallax. .. pictorial depth cues
B. convergence...retinal disparity
C. motion parallax...retinal disparity
D. convergence... pictorial depth cues
Answers
Answer:
A. Motion parallax and pictorial depth cues
Explanation:
100% on edge2020
DAWAR Corporation has Annual sales = $45,000, Annual cost of goods sold = $31,500, Inventory = $4,000, Accounts receivable = $2,000, Accounts payable = $2,400. Assuming a 365-day year, what is the firm's cash conversion cycle?
Answers
Answer:
34.76 days
Explanation:
From the above question, we have the following information:
DAWAR Corporation
Annual sales = $45,000
Annual cost of goods sold = $31,500 Inventory = $4,000
Accounts receivable = $2,000
Accounts payable = $2,400.
We are assuming 365 days.
Step 1
Find Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO)
Formula :
(Inventory ÷ Cost of goods sold) × Number of days
(4,000 ÷ 31,500) × 365
= 46.349206349 days
Approximately ≈ 46.35 days
Step 2
Find Days Sales Outstanding (DSO)
Formula = (Accounts receivable ÷ Revenue) × Number of days
Revenue = Annual sales
= (2,000 ÷ 45,000) × 365 days
= 16.222222222 days
Approximately ≈ 16.22 days
Step 3
Find Days Payable Outstanding (DPO)
Formula = (Accounts payable ÷ Cost of goods sold) × Number of days
= (2,400 ÷ 31,500) × 365 days
= 27.80952381 days.
Approximately ≈ 27.81 days
Step 4
Formula for Cash Conversion Cycle
= Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO) + Days Sales Outstanding (DSO - Days Payable Outstanding (DPO)
= 46.35 days + 16.22 days - 27.81 days.
= 62.57 days - 27.81 days
= 34.76 days
The Cash Conversion Cycle approximately to the nearest whole number = 34.76 days
When patients use , they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent reabsorption of potassium.
Answers
When patients use thiazide drugs, they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent the reabsorption of potassium.
What are thiazide drugs?Thiazide drugs are a kind of medication that enhances urine flow. They work directly on the kidneys, promoting urine flow or diuresis by blocking the chloride/sodium cotransporter found in the kidney functional unit. Thiazides reduce sodium reabsorption, which promotes urine fluid loss. Thiazides also decrease potassium while maintaining calcium. Patients who are using thiazide drugs may need to consume potassium supplements since the drugs prevent potassium reabsorption. Chlorothiazide, chlorthalidone, and hydrochlorothiazide are examples of thiazide diuretics that are used orally.
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Answer:
2nd one
Explanation:
What is the difference between exudative and transudative effusions?
Answers
A combination of higher hydrostatic pressure and lower plasma oncotic pressure results in transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability leads to exudative effusions.
What is a transudative vs an exudative effusion?The essentials Increased hydrostatic pressure or a drop in plasma oncotic pressure are two factors that contribute to transudative effusions. Increased capillary permeability, which results in protein, cell, and other serum component leaks, causes exudative effusions.
The Transudate's root cause is what?Transudates are typically brought on by heightened systemic , pulmonary capillary pressure or lowered osmotic pressure, which causes pleural fluid to be filtered more thoroughly and absorbed less. Congestive heart failure, protein-losing enteropathy, cirrhosis, and nephrotic syndrome are the main causes.
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Which of the following is a way to reduce being a victim of a violent crime? A. Set limits and communicate them clearly B. Do not park your car or jog in a remote area C. Do not get into an elevator alone with a stranger D. All of the above
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Everywhere is a danger zone. Set limits ang a proper and calm communication can at least reduce violent act
Ms. Hougland is scheduled for an outpatient procedure. You have obtained a precertification number for the
procedure. What purpose does a precertification number serve?
Allows the doctor to perform the procedure.
Allows the doctor to bill for the procedure.
Guarantees reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure.
Requires the patient to pay for the service.
Answers
Answer:
allows the doctor to pay the bill for the procedure.
Explanation:
he makes sure that the patient had the insurance before the procedure
The purpose that the precertification number serve is to guarantee reimbursement to the doctor for the cost of the procedure
The main function of the precertification number is that there are some scenarios whereby the providers will have to contact the insurer of the patient and they'll then get a precertification number which will be enable the hospital or the doctor to be reimbursed by the insurance company later.Without the precertification number, the provider won't be reimbursed.In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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Which action should the nurse take first when a client's gravity flow IV rate is too slow?
a. Reposition the client's arm.
b. Adjust the flow clamp to deliver the correct rate.
c. Evaluate the appearance of the catheter insertion site.
d. Determine the amount of fluid that should have been absorbed.
Answers
When a client's gravity flow IV rate is too slow, the nurse should first evaluate the appearance of the catheter insertion site. This is because a slow IV rate could be caused by infiltration or blockage of the catheter, which would affect the flow of fluid into the vein.
Evaluating the catheter insertion site, the nurse can assess for signs of inflammation, swelling, or leakage, which could indicate a problem with the catheter. If there is evidence of a problem with the catheter insertion site, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider and take appropriate action, such as stopping the IV infusion or restarting the IV at a different site. Repositioning the client's arm or adjusting the flow clamp to deliver the correct rate may not be effective if the problem is related to catheter function. Determining the amount of fluid that should have been absorbed is not the most appropriate action as it does not address the issue at hand.
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In which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) will an individual do whatever he or she can to cope with the situation?
a) Resistance
b) Denial
c) Exhaustion
d) Alarm
e) Affective
Answers
In exhaustion stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) will an individual do whatever he or she can to cope with the situation
What is general adaptation syndrome?
The physiological alterations that your body experiences in response to stress are referred to as general adaption syndrome (GAS). There are three phases to these changes: an alarm response (also known as the "fight-or-flight" response), a resistance phase (during which your body heals), and an exhaustion phase.
The body is affected both physically and mentally by prolonged stress. And the likelihood of long-lasting unfavorable impacts increases as your body moves through the stages of general adaptability.
The three stages of GAS were clarified:
Alarm responseResistance ExhaustionHence, Exhaustion is the correct answer
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What is the condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus
Answers
The condition in which tissue from the uterus moves out of the uterus and into other areas of the body is called endometriosis.
What is the condition?Endometriosis condition can cause pain and discomfort, especially during menstrual periods.
Endometriosis can also lead to infertility in some cases. Treatment for endometriosis can include medication, surgery, or a combination of both, depending on the severity of the condition and the individual's symptoms.
Hence, this is the condition that is under study here.
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Un niño que ha enfermado de paperas o varicela, no desarrollará estas enfermedades en una segunda oportunidad, porque: I.- la piel, mucosas y lágrimas impiden el ingreso de los microbios. II.- en el primer contacto adquirió anticuerpos. III.- interviene la inmunidad Adaptativa, la cual presenta "memoria" IV.- su sistema defensivo está preparado frente a una segunda exposición
Answers
Answer:
Las respuestas II, III y IV son correctas
Explanation:
La papera, también conocida como parotiditis, es una enfermedad vírica altamente contagiosa causada por un virus de la familia Paramyxoviridae, la cual se desarrolla principalmente en las glándulas parótidas situadas a ambos lados de la mandíbula. La inmunidad a esta enfermedad puede ser lograda a partir de la aplicación de la vacuna triple viral, cuyo nombre se debe a que esta vacuna también permite adquirir inmunidad contra los virus del sarampión y la rubéola. Por otra parte, la varicela es también una enfermedad muy contagiosa que se presenta generalmente en niños, la cual es causada por el herpesvirus de varicela-zoster. Esta enfermedad se caracteriza por la presencia de erupciones rojas en la piel que causan picazón, lo cual a su vez genera lesiones cutáneas. Tanto la varicela como la papera sólo se producen una vez ya que una vez contagiado el organismo adquiere inmunidad frente a estos virus a través de un mecanismo adaptativo en el cual linajes específicos de linfocitos B capaces de secretar anticuerpos específicos contra ambos virus proliferan rápidamente a través de un proceso conocido como expansión monoclonal, con lo cual el sistema inmune adquiere memoria inmunológica.
the nurse provides care for an older adult client with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection who has become diso
Answers
Appropriate nursing intervention: Orienting the client to their surroundings and providing a calm and structured environment.
The correct nursing intervention for an older adult client with a urinary tract infection who has become disoriented is to orient the client to their surroundings and provide a calm and structured environment.
Administering a sedative medication to promote relaxation: This option is incorrect because administering sedatives may further contribute to the client's disorientation and confusion. Sedatives can affect cognition and potentially worsen the symptoms.
Encouraging increased fluid intake to flush out the urinary tract: While it is important to maintain hydration, solely increasing fluid intake may not directly address the disorientation caused by the urinary tract infection. Disorientation in older adults with urinary tract infections is often related to the infection itself rather than dehydration.
Restraining the client to prevent wandering and ensure safety: Restraining the client is inappropriate and should be avoided. Physical restraints can lead to further distress, anxiety, and potential physical harm. The focus should be on providing a safe environment through other means.
The appropriate intervention is to orient the client to their surroundings by providing clear and simple explanations, using familiar objects or pictures, maintaining a consistent routine, and ensuring a calm and structured environment. This approach helps the client feel secure, reduce confusion, and enhance their overall well-being while receiving treatment for the urinary tract infection.
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The complete question is:
Which nursing intervention would be appropriate for an older adult client with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection who has become disoriented?
Administering a sedative medication to promote relaxation.Encouraging increased fluid intake to flush out the urinary tract.Restraining the client to prevent wandering and ensure safety.Orienting the client to their surroundings and providing a calm and structured environment.You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:______.
A. contact the patient's parents to obtain consent.
B. explain the consequences of refusal of care.
C. have the patient sign a Refusal for Care form.
D. advise the patient that she cannot refuse care.
Answers
If the person who is in medical care does not want to go to hospital, then as a responsible person, one should explain the consequences of refusal of care, which means that option B should be the right answer.
Refusal of care is a voluntary condition or action taken by the patient or their family on the behalf of the concerned which states that every person has the right to take well informed decisions about their healthcare and their medical experts must not impose their own beliefs or decisions upon their patients to influence them forcefully. It can be detrimental on the profession if something goes wrong from what was thought of and can be blamed upon. It is important for the doctors to get legal consent form signed by the family member before any big treatment or surgery in which the life of the patient is at stake.
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the nurse is teaching a client taking isoniazid. the client also suffers from occasional acid reflux. what should the nurse teach this client about?
Answers
Isoniazid, also known as isonicotinic acid hydrazide, is an antibiotic used to treat or prevent tuberculosis (TB) infection (reactivation).
What should the nurse be keeping an eye on in a patient receiving isoniazid treatment?Patients should be watched for changed mental status, seizures, and peripheral neuropathy since isoniazid can have neurological consequences. Patients should also be watched for fever, unusual bleeding, and infection symptoms (such as sore throat or unusual fatigue).
What conditions does isoniazid not treat?Patients who experience significant hypersensitivity reactions, such as drug-induced hepatitis, past hepatic damage linked to isoniazid, severe isoniazid-related adverse events including drug fever, chills, or arthritis, or acute liver illness of any etiology, should not take isoniazid.
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will give brainliest!!!!! And 30 points
Which of these is a POSSIBLE effect of a heavy landslide?
a. The formation of a new island
b. The formation of a new volcano
c. A change in the course of a river
d. A change in the climate of a region
Answers
hope this helped clarify
how DNP-prepared APNs will assist with transformative healthcare and help solve complex health problems
Answers
DNP-prepared nurses typically focus on a scholarship of practice, or translating evidence to practice, often using quality improvement methodologies, with an aim to improve and transform healthcare delivery and patient outcomes.
Role of the DNP Employers described the role of the DNP prepared nurse as primarily providing direct patient care, usually as an Advanced Practice Nurse (APN). These APN roles included: nurse practitioner, nurse anesthetist, nurse midwife, and psychiatric nurse practitioner.
DNP essential underscores the importance of using science-based concepts to evaluate and enhance health care delivery and improve patient outcomes.
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Jaffer is having trouble sleeping and visits the doctor for an assessment. In the process of testing Jaffer, the doctor finds something that leads her to look more closely at the gland that secretes melatonin and helps control sleep cycles. Which gland is the doctor likely testing?
Answers
The doctor is likely testing the pineal gland, which is responsible for the secretion of melatonin, a hormone that regulates the sleep-wake cycle.
DOES ANYONE KNOW THE AWNSER PLEASE HELP
Answers
Answer:
It's B
Explanation:
Hope this helps
May I get Braineist Pls?
You have just been hired in a dental practice where the restorative material of choice is amalgam. The
hiring dentist has commented on how he and the other dentists struggle when placing amalgams because each of the dentists in the practice has his or her own sequence and instrument choice and the dental
assistants can't keep each of their preferences straight. You have been assigned the task of preparing amalgam tray setups that will be placed in each of the operatories. These setups will be used by different dentists and dental assistants. It is important to have all of the trays set up in the same manner for convenience and efficiency. What specialized instruments are used to place an amalgam restoration? WhaT variations of each of the instruments are available? What accessory items should be included to complete an amalgam restoration tray setup?
Answers
The specialized instruments are used to place an amalgam restoration is Amalgam Carrier.
The variations are double ended, single ended with 15, 45 degrees.
The accessory items that should be included to complete an amalgam restoration tray setup are;
Spoon excavatorGingival margin trimmer. cavity preparation.What is Amalgam carriers?Amalgam carriers serves as instruments used to fill dental cavities with amalgam.
According to this question, we are asked about the restorative materials of choice to use such Amalgam as a dental expert.
As a result of this we can see that this Amalgam comes with different variations and some accessories such as Spoon excavator and Gingival margin trimmer can be used during the process.
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a client is admitted to a medical-surgical unit with acidosis. during treatment, the client develops confusion, irritability, slow respiration rate, and vomiting. what does the nurse attribute these symptoms to?
Answers
A patient admitted to the medical-surgical unit with acidosis. The nurse relates the symptoms during treatment that the patient experiences confusion, irritability, slow breathing rate, and vomiting used for Overtreatment of acidosis.
What is acidosis?
Acidosis is a condition that occurs when the levels of acid in the body are very high. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as shortness of breath, confusion, headaches, and decreased consciousness. Acidosis is a condition that can be fatal if not treated immediately.
Acidosis is caused by a disturbance in the acid-base balance in the body. As a result, acid levels in the body become very high.
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According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the following is required:
Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs
Individuals must meet lower-level needs before they can achieve higher-level needs
A self-actualized person has met basic needs but not fully reached his or her potential
Social needs are the most basic and essential needs
Hello
Answers
who is a first aider with detailed meaning
Answers
Answer: Someone in an organization who has been trained to give immediate medical help in an emergency.
Explanation:
Question 20 of 69
Time Remaining
40:32
A patient presents after an intentional overdose of propranolol approximately 2 hours ago. The patient has severe hypotension and bradycardia. IV
fluids and vasopressors are initiated. What nursing assessment findings indicate the treatment has been effective?
Answers
An intentional overdose of propranolol can cause severe damage to the patient such as severe hypotension and bradycardia, so that after the procedures we can make a nursing assessment indicating that the treatment was effective, we need to know that.....
Overdose of Propranolol
Symptoms of overdose may include
BradycardiaHypotensionAcute heart failure and bronchospasm.Bronchospasm can normally be reversed by bronchodilators such as salbutamol. Larger doses may be required and should be titrated to clinical response.
General treatment should include:
Careful monitoringTreatment in an intensive care unitUse of gastric lavageActivated charcoalA laxative to prevent absorption of any drug still present in the gastrointestinal tract,Use of plasma or plasma substitutes to treat hypotension and shock.BradycardiaBradycardia is irregular or slow heart rhythm, usually less than 60 beats per minute. At this rate, the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to your body during activity or exercise.
With this information, we can say that it is necessary for the nurse to see if the heart rate is higher. If damage to the heart's electrical system is causing the heart to beat slowly, the patient may need an implantable cardiac device called a pacemaker.
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According to one of our articles for this week, you may be more likely to overeat foods that are: (Choose all that apply)
a.
calorie dense
b.
fatty
c.
sweet
d.
tart
Answers
According to the article, foods that are calorie-dense, fatty, and sweet may increase the likelihood of overeating.
The article suggests that certain characteristics of food can contribute to overeating. One factor is the calorie density of the food, which refers to the number of calories per unit of food volume or weight. Foods that are calorie-dense, meaning they have a high number of calories in a small portion, can be more likely to lead to overeating because they provide a higher energy content.
Another factor is the fat content of the food. Fatty foods tend to be more palatable and satisfying, which can make them more appealing and potentially lead to overeating. Fat is a concentrated source of calories and can contribute to the rewarding and pleasurable aspects of food consumption.
Similarly, sweet foods can also be more enticing and trigger cravings, making them more likely to be overeaten. The taste of sweetness can activate reward centers in the brain, promoting a desire for more.
The article does not mention the tartness of foods as a factor contributing to overeating.
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Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole?
(a) The AV valves are closed
(b) The SL valves are open
(c) Ventricular ejection
(d) The ventricles are passively filling
(e) The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting.
Answers
During ventricular diastole, the correct option is (e) The ventricles are passively filling and the atria are contracting.
During ventricular diastole, the ventricles are relaxed and undergo relaxation and filling. At this time, the atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. This is known as atrial systole or atrial contraction. The AV valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) are open to allow blood flow from the atria into the ventricles. The SL valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed during ventricular diastole since the ventricles are not actively contracting.
Therefore, the correct answer is (e) The ventricles are passively filling, and the atria are contracting.
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