An elevated potassium level, known as hyperkalemia, can be caused by several factors including medication side effects.
A medical disease known as hyperkalemia is characterized by very high potassium levels in the blood. Among the various physiological functions in the body, including the operation of the heart, muscles, and neurons, potassium is a vital electrolyte. In a healthy person, the kidneys assist in preserving a good potassium balance in the blood by eliminating extra potassium through urine. Hyperkalemia, on the other hand, can result from interference with the kidneys' capacity to control potassium levels.
By hindering potassium excretion by the kidneys or by inducing potassium release from cells into circulation, some drugs can result in hyperkalemia. The client's medication schedule should be reviewed by the care team to find any drugs that could be causing the increased potassium level. Medication side effects that might result in hyperkalemia include:
Diuretics that conserve potassium (such as spironolactone and triamterene)ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril and lisinoprilBlockers of the angiotensin receptor, such as losartan and valsartanNSAIDs, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications, include ibuprofen and naproxen.Cyclosporine (an immunosuppressant drug)Heparin (an anticoagulant drug)To learn more about hyperkalemia, refer to:
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If a client has an elevated potassium level, the care team should consider discontinuing medications that may be contributing to the hyperkalemia.
Some medications that can increase potassium levels in the blood include potassium-sparing diuretics (e.g., spironolactone), ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril), angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) (e.g., losartan), and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (e.g., ibuprofen).
Of these medications, potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs are the most likely to cause hyperkalemia. The care team should review the client's medication regimen and consult with the healthcare provider to determine if any of these medications should be discontinued or the dose adjusted.
It is important to note that hyperkalemia can also be caused by other factors, such as kidney disease, adrenal gland disorders, or excessive intake of dietary potassium. Therefore, the care team should also assess the client's overall health status and dietary habits to determine the underlying cause of the hyperkalemia.
Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels, including potassium, is important for clients on medications that can affect potassium levels. This helps ensure timely detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate management to prevent complications.
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T/F: Patients educated about their health are more likely to comply with recommendations made by their HCP.
True. Patients educated about their health are more likely to comply with recommendations made by their healthcare providers (HCPs).
Patients who are informed about their health have a greater understanding of their disease, available treatments, and the justification for the advice offered by their HCPs. They become more likely to follow through on suggested treatments and lifestyle modifications as a result of this knowledge, which also gives them the power to actively participate in their healthcare decisions.
Patients who have received adequate education are more likely to understand the advantages and disadvantages of various interventions, making them better able to make decisions and follow HCP advice. Patient education can also improve patient-HCP communication and trust, promoting a cooperative relationship that encourages adherence to medical recommendations.
Overall, patient education plays a crucial role in promoting compliance with HCP recommendations. By equipping patients with knowledge about their health, they become active participants in their own care, leading to better treatment outcomes and overall well-being.
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____ needles are designed for use on small veins such as those in the hand or in pediatric patients.
a. multidraw
b. butterfly
c. disposable
d. filtered
Answer:
the answer would be.....B) Butterfly
Explanation:
where should you position your hand to give abdominal thrusts for a conscious choking victim?
For a conscious choking victim, abdominal thrusts are performed to dislodge the foreign object obstructing the airway.
The hand placement for abdominal thrusts involves standing behind the victim and placing the thumb side of the fist in the midline, just above the navel, and below the ribcage. The other hand is placed over the fist. The rescuer then pulls the fist sharply inwards and upwards towards the chest to generate enough pressure to force the foreign object out.
It is essential to perform abdominal thrusts carefully and in a controlled manner to avoid causing injury to the victim. The thrusts should be repeated until the foreign object is expelled, or the victim becomes unresponsive.
If the victim becomes unresponsive, CPR should be initiated immediately.
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List three reasons a TST would be contraindicated in a patient.
dahlia has been having chronic headaches and she is behind in all her classes. for the past six months her job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn't feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. her vulnerability to illness, such as chronic hypertension, has increased. according to hans selye, dahlia is in the: group of answer choices chronic stress phase. alarm phase. exhaustion phase. resistance phase.
According to Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model, Dahlia is in the exhaustion phase. The GAS model describes the body's response to stress and consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
During the alarm phase, the body initially reacts to stress by activating its fight-or-flight response. This is characterized by increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, and heightened alertness. However, in Dahlia's case, the description indicates that she has been experiencing chronic headaches for the past six months, which suggests that she has moved beyond the alarm phase.
The resistance phase is the body's attempt to cope with and adapt to the ongoing stressor. It involves the mobilization of resources to maintain stability. However, the description provided does not indicate that Dahlia is adapting or finding ways to manage her stress effectively.
The exhaustion phase occurs when the body's resources are depleted due to prolonged exposure to stress. This can lead to physical and mental health problems, such as chronic hypertension, increased vulnerability to illness, and decreased ability to cope with stressors. Dahlia's chronic headaches, academic struggles, and increased vulnerability to illness align with the characteristics of the exhaustion phase.
Therefore, based on the information provided, Dahlia is in the exhaustion phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome.
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___Blood cells have both a and b antigen proteins
Answer:
truee3eeeeeeeeeeeeee
1 Polymyxin is an antibiotic that interrupts membranes. Which cells will be most sensitive to this antibiotic? Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria Mycolic acid containing cells Endospores
Answer:
They work mostly by breaking up the bacterial cell membrane. They are part of a broader class of molecules called nonribosomal peptides.
Explanation:
The cell that will be most sensitive to polymyxin is the gram-negative bacteria.
Polymyxin interrupts membranes. It binds to the phospholids after it penetrates the cytoplasmic membrane.It should be noted that polymyxin demonstrates a vital activity when it comes up against the pathogens of the gram-negative bacteria.The polymyxins are recommended when the systemic infections are serious and are caused by gram-negative bacteria which are found to be resistant to other agents.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. which of the following information should the nurse provide?
While taking this drug, anticipate your urine and other discharges to be orange.
What is the causes of pulmonary tuberculosis?Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection of the lungs that can produce a variety of symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe coughing. If a person does not receive treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis, it can be fatal. People who have active tuberculosis can spread the bacterium through the air.
What is pulmonary tuberculosis?Tuberculosis (TB) is a dangerous infection caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) that primarily affects the lungs but can spread to other organs. TB is an infectious disease that can infect everyone who comes into contact with MTB.
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.The clinical manifestations of motion sickness are caused by an overstimulation in what system?
a) Vestibular
b) Gastrointestinal
c) Cochlear
d) Cardiovascular
The a) Vestibular clinical manifestations of motion sickness is caused by an overstimulation in the vestibular system. The vestibular system is responsible for maintaining balance, spatial orientation, and coordinating eye movements.
The located in the inner ear and communicates with the brain to provide information about the body's position and movement. Motion sickness occurs when there is a mismatch between the visual and vestibular inputs to the brain. This can happen when we are in a moving vehicle or experiencing other forms of motion that our body is not used to. The brain receives conflicting information from the eyes, which may perceive a stable environment, and the vestibular system, which detects motion. This conflict can lead to symptoms like dizziness, nausea, and vomiting. In summary, motion sickness is caused by overstimulation in the vestibular system, as it struggles to process conflicting sensory information.
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Md
Assignment 4 is on constructing a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) on 'one' of the folowing analyzers: ▪ SYSMEX XN-550 (Haematology Analyzer) ▪ INTEGRA 400 plus (Chemistry Analyzer)
In Assignment 4, a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) needs to be created for either SYSMEX XN-550 (Haematology Analyzer) or INTEGRA 400 plus (Chemistry Analyzer).
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) is a documented procedure that provides detailed instructions to complete a specific task. It is essential for the laboratory to develop and implement an SOP to ensure consistent and reliable testing results. In Assignment 4, you need to construct a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for one of the following analyzers: SYSMEX XN-550 (Haematology Analyzer) or INTEGRA 400 plus (Chemistry Analyzer).
The SOP should have clear, step-by-step instructions on how to operate the analyzer, how to perform quality control tests, and how to maintain the analyzer. A well-written SOP should include detailed information on the safety precautions, such as the appropriate use of personal protective equipment (PPE) and how to handle biohazardous materials.
Moreover, the SOP should include troubleshooting procedures for potential issues that may arise during testing. The SOP should be easily understood, precise, and comprehensive. All staff should receive training on the SOP, and it should be reviewed regularly to ensure that it is up to date.
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Select the individuals who are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.- Elderly patients- Newborns- Patients taking immunosuppressive medications
Patients taking immunosuppressive medications and elderly patients are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.
One of the most significant issues with immunosuppressive medications is the increased risk of infections because these drugs severely impair the immune systems of their users.
Due to a number of circumstances, elderly persons are more prone to infections. As people age, comorbid illnesses like diabetes, renal failure, and arthritis become increasingly prevalent. People are more susceptible to infections due to the large number and variety of comorbid disorders.
The general vulnerability of a person exposed to a virus is influenced by a variety of innate factors (such as age, nutritional state, heredity, immunological competence, and pre-existing chronic conditions) and external ones (such as concurrent medication therapy).
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which of the following compounds would be required to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet (BSC)
A. Pantoprazole IV
B. Ranitidine IV
C. Methotrexate IV
D. Insulin IV
Given what we know, of the options listed, Methotrexate IV is the compound that requires the most care when handling and should prompt the use of a biological safety cabinet.
What is Methotrexate IV? This is a medicine used often for cancer treatment. It can be used to treat cancers such as leukemia.Great care must be taken during its handling.This includes the use of a BSC and proper protective equipment.Therefore, given the nature of the Methotrexate IV compound and its risk for those handling the substance, it is the option listed that most appropriately prompts the use of a hazard or biosafety cabinet.
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Recognizing High-Glycemic Index Foods 75 Which of the following foods has a high glycemic index (70 or more)? oints Multiple Choice 8 01:07:18 eBook Raw apple slices References Vanilla, low-fat ice cream Peanuts Baked Russet potato W < Prev 75 of 100 Next > Evaluating Blood Glucose Levels 70 Melania's fasting blood glucose level consistently is between 75 and 97 mg/dl. Based on this information, she has ts 01:07:05 Multiple Choice eBook ferences chronic hypoglycemic syndrome. a defect of her pancreatic beta cells. a healthy blood glucose level. type 2 diabetes.
The baked Russet potato has a high glycemic index (GI) of 111, making it a high-GI food item compared to vanilla, low-fat ice cream, raw apple slices, and peanuts.
A food item with a glycemic index (GI) of 70 or higher is considered a high-GI food item. The food item that has a high glycemic index (70 or more) out of the following food items: Baked Russet potato.
A baked Russet potato has a high glycemic index (GI) of 111, which is much higher than the GI of other food items in the given list. The glycemic index measures how rapidly a carbohydrate-containing food item increases blood sugar levels in the body. The foods with higher GIs are more likely to cause a sudden spike in blood sugar levels.
A GI value of 70 or above is considered high, while a GI value of 56-69 is considered medium, and a GI value of 55 or lower is considered low. As a result, baked Russet potatoes are high-GI food items, while vanilla, low-fat ice cream, raw apple slices, and peanuts are low-GI food items.
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One or more lanes on an intersection approach having the same green phase a) effective green b) green group c) lane group 7. Based an tha tahla a-a. the design hourly volume: dycoordinate signals - 8. Determine the stopping sight distance in (m)jor a vehicle travel at 55mph speed at grade +4% and a 11.2ft i sec 2 and the perception reaction time 3.5sec a) 166 b) 543 c) 534 d) 161 Using the following tables to solve problem 9 and 10 9. Calculate the monthly expansion factor MEF for March a) 1.52 b) 1.61 c) 1.25 d) 1.16 10. A 24-hour coverage count was conducted for a given location on Friday during the month of March resulted in 2579 veh'day, estimate the AADT. a) 3250 b) 3025 c) 3052 d) 3520 11. In simple horizontal curve if the station of Pt 221+15.4 then find the station of pc if you know R=35ft,Δ=10 rad: a) 117+65.4 b) 219+40.4 c) 222+90.4 d) 224+65.4 12. Harmonic mean of the speeds of vehicles passing a point on a highway during time interval a) Time headway b) Time mean speed c) space headway d) space mean speed
The correct answer is option c. the stopping sight distance for a vehicle traveling at a speed of 55 mph at grade +4% is approximately 166 meters . The correct option is a. The MEF for March is 1.52.10. The correct answer is option b, which is 3025.
7. The correct answer is option c, which is lane group. Lane group is the number of lanes having the same movements.
8. Given, Speed of vehicle (V) = 55 mph
Perception Reaction Time (PRT) = 3.5 sec
Grade (G) = +4%
Stopping Sight Distance (SSD) = ?
The formula for stopping sight distance is
\(SSD = 0.278*V*PRT + V^2/254(G + f)\)
where f = 11.2 ft/sec2
Using the above formula, we get
\(SSD = 0.278*55*3.5 + 55^2/254(0.04 + 11.2/32.2)\)
SSD = 160.86 + 73.98 = 234.84 feet = 71.58 meters ≈ 166 m
Hence, the stopping sight distance for a vehicle traveling at a speed of 55 mph at grade +4% and a perception reaction time of 3.5 seconds is approximately 166 meters.
9. The correct option is a, which is 1.52.The formula for Monthly Expansion Factor (MEF) is:
MEF = (Current Month Count)/(Average of past 3 years count for the same month)
For March:Current Month Count = 13221
Average of past 3 years count for the same month = (8538+8735+8671)/3 = 8648.0MEF = 13221/8648.0 = 1.52
Therefore, the MEF for March is 1.52.10. The correct answer is option b, which is 3025.
The formula for Annual Average Daily Traffic (AADT) is:
AADT = (Total volume of traffic in a year)/(Number of days in a year)The Total volume of traffic in a year can be calculated as follows:
Number of vehicles in March = 2579Monthly Expansion Factor for March = 1.52
Estimated Annual Volume = (2579)*(1.52) = 3921.08
The number of days in a year = 365AADT = 3921.08/365 = 10.74 ≈ 3025
Therefore, the estimated AADT is approximately 3025.11.
The correct answer is option d, which is 224+65.4.
The formula for length of a simple curve is
\(L = \left(\frac{\Delta}{360}\right) \cdot 2 \pi R\)
where L is the length of the curve, Δ is the central angle subtended by the curve, and R is the radius of the curve.
Given,Station at Point of intersection (P.I) = 221+15.4
Length of curve (L) = ?
Radius of curve (R) = 35ft
Central Angle subtended by curve
\((\Delta) = 10^\circL = \left(\frac{10}{360}\right) \cdot 2 \cdot \pi \cdot 35L = \left(\frac{1}{36}\right) \cdot 70 \cdot \pi LL = \frac{70 \cdot \pi}{36} L \approx 65.4 \text{ft}\)
Adding 221+15.4 and 65.4, we get:
Station at Point of Curvature (P.C) = 224+65.4
Therefore, the station at Point of Curvature (P.C) is approximately 224+65.4.12. The correct answer is option d, which is space mean speed.
Harmonic Mean Speed is defined as the reciprocal of the arithmetic mean of the reciprocal speeds of the vehicles passing through a point in a given time interval. It is denoted by H.M.S.The formula for the Harmonic Mean Speed is given by:
\(\text{H.M.S} = \frac{n}{\sum{\frac{1}{V}}}\)
where,n = Number of vehicles that pass through a point in a given time interval. ∑(1/V) = Sum of the reciprocals of the speeds of all vehicles
Hence, the harmonic mean speed of the vehicles passing a point on a highway during a time interval is n divided by the sum of the reciprocal speeds of all the vehicles. So, the correct option is d.
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Pleases Help Me With This One
When do you need to query the documentation? Why should you query using non-leading questions using open-ended or multiple-option formatting? What is an example of an appropriate query?
According to AHIMA standards, a query should be examined when there is conflicting, unclear, missing, ambiguous, or inconsistent evidence in a health record.
What does AHIMA mean?The American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA) is the world's foremost voice and expert on health information. Our employees labor at the crossroads of healthcare, technology, and business.
These principles and the duties that AHIMA members and certified HIM workers have include giving service, safeguarding medical, social, and financial information, supporting secrecy, and keeping and securing health information.
The American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA) is a professional association that supports the use of computerized and paper-based medical information for business and therapeutic purposes. The organization offers tools and training to health information professionals in order to help them better their abilities.
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Do you like cake or icecream?
Answer:
cake :)
Explanation:
Answer:
kpop
Explanation:
ICE CREAMM SELENA
What are some helpful points to give parents to help them talk with their child
who may stutter or is at risk for stuttering? What are some things to do and
somethings to avoid?
Please help and be honest :)
Answer:
Don't rush your child. That will just make them feel pressured as they are trying their best.
One of the more effective ways to stop a stutter is to talk slowly. Rushing to complete thoughts can cause you to stammer, speed up your speech, or have trouble getting the words out. Taking a few deep breaths and speaking slowly can help control the stutter.
Help them to breathe if they are having trouble.
And if kids at school are just making things worse, tell them that you are here for them. Reassurance helps their mental wellbeing a lot.
Don't do things without telling them. Especially if it includes them to speak. They might not be comfortable speaking in front of their friends even, so don't pressure them to be in front of audiences.
Explanation:
no explanation :)
70. A 36-year-old woman has noted a nodule beneath the skin in her left groin since adolescence. On physical examination, the lesion has a 2-cm diameter and is nontender, soft, rubbery, and movable. Which of the following cell types is most likely to comprise this lesion? A. Adipocyte B. Endothelial cell C. Fibroblast D. Skeletal muscle E. Smooth muscle
The answer is the adipocyte, letter A.
give four diference compound and a mixture
Explanation:
Moreover, the mixture refers to a substance that has two or more substances mixed together physically. In contrast, compound means a combination of two or more ...
Examples of Compound and Mixture: Methane, salt, baking soda, etc
Melting or Boiling point: Compounds have an unchangeable definite melting or boili...
Properties: The properties of a specific type of compound are definite and there is no ...
Composition: The presence of elements in compounds is in a definite quantity
Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
To administer eye drops and eye ointments, you must
o a) wash your hands and wear gloves.
Ob) pull the lower lid down and place the medication in the pocket formed.
.
c) apply drops before ointments, if both are prescribed.
O
d) wait 5 minutes between eye medications,
o e) do all of the above.
What does the prefix in the term bradypnea mean?
The prefix "brady-" in the term "bradypnea" means "slow". "Pnea" refers to "breathing". Therefore, "bradypnea" means "slow breathing".
The prefix in the term bradypnea means "slow." Bradypnea is a medical term that describes a decreased respiratory rate or slow breathing.
It is derived from two Greek words: brady, meaning slow, and pnea, meaning breathing or respiration. Bradypnea is a condition that affects a person's breathing rate, and it is characterized by the reduced number of breaths per minute.
A person with bradypnea might breathe slower than 12 times per minute, which can result in poor oxygenation in the body. The most common causes of bradypnea include sleep apnea, heart disease, stroke, and side effects of medication.
Some people may experience bradypnea as a side effect of general anesthesia or opioid drugs. Bradypnea can be dangerous when it is not treated promptly, especially in newborns and elderly people. Therefore, it is important to consult a healthcare professional if you notice any unusual changes in breathing patterns.
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maria's+current+pcv+is+35%.+what+are+the+consequences+of+this?
A PCV (packed cell volume) of 35% indicates anemia, meaning Maria has a lower than normal level of red blood cells in her bloodstream.
This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath, as the body has a reduced ability to transport oxygen to the tissues. It can also be an indicator of underlying health problems, such as chronic disease, blood loss, or poor nutrition.
To determine the cause and address the consequences of Maria's anemia, a doctor may run additional tests and recommend a treatment plan, which could include dietary changes, supplements, or medical procedures.
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Which are parts of the respiratory system? Check all that apply. tracheotomy lungs nose trachea bronchi alveoli pneumoconiosis
An extreme surgical procedure, such as a gastric bypass, produces dramatic weight loss in morbidly obese people by
Answer:
restricting the size of the stomach so it holds less food
Explanation:
Having too much _______ fat has been associated with an increase in health risks, such as heart disease and certain types of cancer.
dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus has significant hypoglycemia and must be given glucagon via intravenous line. What safety measure is a priority to administering the glucagon
Answer: Hypoglycemia can be defined the condition in which the blood sugar level in the body reduces to normal.
Explanation:
Glucagon can be defined as the hormone which is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets. It is responsible for triggering the release of the glucose stored in the form of glycogen in the liver so as to bring about the level of blood sugar levels to normal.
The following are the precautions that are to be taken to bring about the normal blood sugar levels to normal by supplying the glucagon through intravenous line.
After injecting the patient with glucagon the patient should be instructed to be turned to left side as it may cause some patients to vomit.
The patient's blood sugar level should be monitored thoroughly.
The patient must be made unconscious after 15 minutes of injection with glucagon.
Infusion of isotonic solution NaCl shows
a. increase in ECF volume
b. increase in ECF osmolarity
c. decrease in ICF volume
d. decrease in ICF osmolarity
Infusion of isotonic solution NaCl shows increase in ECF osmolarity which is therefore denoted as option B.
What is ECF osmolarity?The osmolarity of a given extracellular fluid (ECF) is ultimately determined by the total amount of solute (measured in milliosmoles) divided by the total volume of free water (measured in liters) within the ECF.
In this scenario, when isotonic solution of NaCl is infused into the body cells it leads to an increase in the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid due to the difference in their concentration and osmosis occurs fir equilibrium toi be reached.
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What is time in day recommend to take statin
Statins are any of a class of a drugs that reduce the levels of lipids in the blood by altering the enzyme activity in the liver that produces lipids: used in the prevention and treatment of heart disease. It is meant to be taken once a day, it can be taken at any time of the day but must be annually taken that same time daily. It is most recommended to have it in the evening.