A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide is showing which type of cell-to-cell signaling? A. autocrine
B. paracrine C. endocrine D. neuroendocrine
Answers
A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide is showing paracrine type of cell-to-cell signaling.
Paracrine signalling :it is a type of the cell signaling.
it ptomotes cellular communication in which a cell produce a signal to induce change in the nearby cells.also altering the behavior of these cells.
Example neurotransmitters.
What is cell signaling?It is type of signaling process through which one cell can communicate with another cell.
It can be intercellular or intracellular.
Cell signalling molecules are of 5 types: they are
Intracrine signaling, Autocrine signaling, Juxtacrine signaling, Paracrine signaling ,Endocrine signaling
it involves both mechanical and biochemical pathway for signaling.
cell signaling strats at the binding of signal molecules to the receptors, then signal transduction where chemical signal activates the enzyme and final step is the collection of response.
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Related Questions
In some genes, mutations are more likely to occur in regions called hot spots, where sequences are repetitive. It is as if the molecules that guide and carry out replication become "con- fused" by short repeated sequences, much as an editor scan- ning a manuscript might miss the spelling errors in the words "hipppopotamus" and "bananana"The increased incidence of mutations in repeats has a physical basis. Within a gene, when DNA strands locally unwind to replicate in symmetrical or repeated sequences, bases located on the same strand may pair. A stretch of ATATAT might pair with TATATA elsewhere on the same strand, creating a loop that interferes with replication and repair enzymes. Errors may result.Small additions and deletions of DNA bases are more likely to occur near sequences called palindromes. These sequences read the same, in a 5′ to 3′ direction, on complementary strands. Palindromes probably increase the spontaneous mutation rate by disturbing replication.The blood disorder alpha thalassemia illustrates the confusing effect of direct repeats of an entire gene. A person who doesnt have the disorder has 4 genes that specify alpha globin chains, two next to each other on each chromosome 16. Homologs with repeated genes can misalign during meiosis when the first sequence on one chromosome lies opposite the second sequence on the homolog. Crossing over can result in a sperm or oocyte that has one or three alpha globin genes instead of the normal 2. Fertilization with a normal gamete then results in a zygote with one extra or one missing alpha globin gene. At least three dozen conditions result from this unequal crossing over, including colorblindness)
Answers
Mutations in genes can be more likely to occur in regions called hot spots, which are areas that contain repetitive sequences. These sequences can confuse the molecules responsible for replication, causing errors to occur. This is similar to an editor who might miss spelling errors in words with repeated letters.
Repetitive sequences can cause bases on the same strand to pair, creating a loop that interferes with replication and repair enzymes, resulting in errors. Palindromes, which read the same on complementary strands in a 5′ to 3′ direction, can also cause mutations by disturbing replication.
The blood disorder alpha thalassemia is an example of the misalignments that can occur when genes contain repeated sequences. During meiosis, homologs with repeated genes can misalign when the first sequence on one chromosome lies opposite the second sequence on the homolog. This can result in a sperm or oocyte with one or three alpha globin genes instead of the normal two, leading to at least three dozen conditions, including colorblindness.
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autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except
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Autoantibodies play a significant role in various autoimmune diseases by mistakenly targeting and attacking the body's own tissues.
However, there are autoimmune diseases where tissue injury is not primarily caused by autoantibodies. One such example is Type 1 diabetes mellitus, where the immune system targets and destroys insulin-producing cells in the pancreas.
This destruction occurs primarily through cell-mediated immunity involving T cells, rather than autoantibodies. Other diseases, such as multiple sclerosis and rheumatoid arthritis, involve a complex interplay of both autoantibodies and cell-mediated immune responses in causing tissue injury.
Understanding the specific mechanisms underlying each autoimmune disease is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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When do changes and
Interactions occur In The
Great Oxygenation event?
Answers
Answer:
Stage 1 (3.85–2.45 Ga): Practically no O2 in the atmosphere. ... Stage 2 (2.45–1.85 Ga): O2 produced, rising to values of 0.02 and 0.04 atm, but absorbed in oceans and seabed rock. Stage 3 (1.85–0.85 Ga): O2 starts to gas out of the oceans, but is absorbed by land surfaces. No significant change in oxygen level.
Explanation:
Sorry if it is confusing, but that is how my Biology teacher described it to me, if you don't understand, welp, neither do I, LOL.
Which organism is able to cause an infection?
Answers
Answer:
Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens, which include bacteria, fungi, protozoa, worms, viruses, and even infectious proteins called prions.
which of the following foods is likely to contain clostridium botulinum? a. raw or undercooked eggs b. cream-filled pastries c. pasteurized milk d. canned foods e. hot dogs
Answers
Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces the botulinum toxin, which can cause a severe form of food poisoning called botulism. Option D is the correct answer.
This bacterium thrives in low-oxygen environments, such as improperly canned or preserved foods. Canned foods, especially those that are not properly processed or stored, can provide an ideal environment for the growth of Clostridium botulinum and the production of its toxin. Consuming contaminated canned foods can lead to botulism if the bacteria and toxin are present. Therefore, canned foods are more likely to contain Clostridium botulinum compared to other food items listed in the options.
Option D is the correct answer.
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how is a ocean wave formed?
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Answer:
Waves are most commonly caused by wind. Wind-driven waves, or surface waves, are created by the friction between wind and surface water. As wind blows across the surface of the ocean or a lake, the continual disturbance creates a wave crest.
what was used to dispute continental drift
Answers
Answer:
In the past, there were various pieces of evidence that were used to dispute the idea of continental drift, which is the theory that suggests that continents have moved over time. These pieces of evidence were put forward by scientists who did not believe in the concept of continental drift.
Explanation:
Here are a few examples:
Lack of Mechanism: One argument against continental drift was the lack of a known mechanism that could cause the continents to move. Scientists questioned how continents, which are large land masses, could shift and change their positions without any clear explanation.
Fixed Continents: Another argument was that continents seemed to be fixed in their positions. Scientists believed that the continents were immovable and had always been in their current locations. They argued that the shapes of the continents fit together like puzzle pieces simply because they happened to look that way, not because they were once connected.
Gravitational Forces: Some scientists proposed that gravitational forces were responsible for the arrangement of continents. They suggested that the distribution of land masses on Earth was due to variations in gravity, rather than the movement of the continents themselves.
Geological Stability: The stability of the Earth's crust was also used as evidence against continental drift. Scientists believed that the Earth's crust was rigid and could not undergo significant movements or changes in shape.
However, over time, new evidence emerged, such as the discovery of mid-ocean ridges and magnetic anomalies, which supported the theory of continental drift. This led to the development of the theory of plate tectonics, which explains how the Earth's lithosphere (crust and upper mantle) is divided into several large plates that move and interact with each other, causing continental drift and other geological phenomena.
Bleach was added to the sponge specimen before observing it through the microscope. Why was this done?.
Answers
The sponge specimen was treated with bleach before being examined under a microscope since bleach dissolves spongin, making it simpler to see the spicules. The term "bleach" alludes specifically to a diluted sodium hypochlorite solution, sometimes known as "liquid bleach."
When chlorine isn't available, oxidizing bleaching agents like hydrogen peroxide, sodium percarbonate, and sodium perborate are frequently used instead. These bleaches are also referred to as "colour-safe bleach," "oxygen bleach," and "non-chlorine bleach." Sulphur dioxide, which can be used to bleach wool as a gas or in solutions containing sodium dithionite, and sodium borohydride are two examples of reducing bleaches with specialized applications.
In order to produce colourless ones, bleaches react with a variety of colourful organic compounds, such as natural pigments. Some bleaches are reducing agents whereas others are oxidizing agents (chemicals that can take electrons from other molecules) (that donate electrons).
Sponge skeletons are supported by spicules, which are structures. They could be calcareous or siliceous in composition. They might be tetraxon (containing four rays), triaxon (having three rays), or monaxon (having one ray). They occasionally create specialized amphidiscs. Specialized scleroblast cells secrete them. Minerals are accumulated around a core biological axis in each of them.
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another possibility for low endurance is that there could be some sort of metabolic disorder that impairs atp production. for example, the patient may have a genetic mutation for one of the enzymes in the electron transport chain limiting atp production during oxidative phosphorylation. if the problem causing poor endurance and energy is related to poorly functioning mitochondria, what should blood parameters related to oxygen (arterial po2, arterial hemoglobin % saturation) be?
Answers
If the problem causing poor endurance and energy is related to poorly functioning mitochondria, blood parameters related to oxygen such as arterial pO2 and arterial hemoglobin % saturation would remain normal, but oxygen extraction might be affected in such a scenario.
Oxidative phosphorylation is the process by which cells generate ATP, the primary energy source for metabolic activities, in mitochondria. The electron transport chain (ETC) or respiratory chain, as well as chemiosmosis, are both involved in the production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, which is linked to aerobic respiration. When oxygen is available, oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria's inner mitochondrial membrane, where the ETC is located.
If there is a problem with oxidative phosphorylation, it can be caused by mitochondrial diseases or disorders of the electron transport chain (ETC). It may be due to reduced oxygen or substrate delivery, decreased mitochondrial number or function, or the development of metabolic changes that impair oxidative phosphorylation. If the issue causing poor endurance and energy is linked to poorly functioning mitochondria, blood parameters related to oxygen such as arterial pO2 and arterial hemoglobin % saturation would remain normal, but oxygen extraction might be affected in such a scenario.
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Which of the following is a cellular structure responsible for protein production
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during the fight-or-flight reaction to stress the nervous system reacts by
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The nervous system's reaction during the fight-or-flight reaction to stress involves the release of hormones and neurotransmitters that activate various physiological changes in the body, preparing it to respond to perceived threats or stressors.
In terms of the nervous system's reaction, the sympathetic nervous system releases these hormones and neurotransmitters, which in turn activate various physiological changes in the body. These changes include increased heart rate and blood pressure, rapid breathing, and increased blood flow to the muscles, brain, and other organs that are involved in the fight-or-flight response.
The fight-or-flight response is an important survival mechanism that allows us to respond quickly and effectively to perceived threats or stressors. However, prolonged or chronic activation of the fight-or-flight response can have negative health consequences, including increased risk of heart disease, hypertension, and other health problems.
Overall, the nervous system's reaction during the fight-or-flight response involves the release of hormones and neurotransmitters that activate various physiological changes in the body, preparing it to respond to perceived threats or stressors.
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Which of the following increases transpiration?
A air around the leaf with high humidity.
B air molecules around the leaf with kess kinetic energy.
C an obsence of light falling on the leaf.
D water molecules in the leaf with more kinetic energy.
Answers
glycolysis occurs in the ______ of all living cells.
Answers
Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of all living cells.
The cytoplasm of all living cells undergoes glycolysis, which is an important metabolic process. The conversion of glucose to pyruvate occurs during this first step of cellular respiration. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells engage in this activity, which provides an important method for generating energy.
A sequence of biochemical events involving glucose is known as glycolysis, and the products are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide). The fundamental energy unit of the cell is ATP, while NADH acts as a carrier of highly energetic electrons.
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Fossil evidence and observations have enabled scientists to recognize several trends in hominid evolution. Which of the following correctly states the order of development of hominid characteristics and traits?
Answers
The correct order of development of hominid characteristics and traits, based on fossil evidence and observations, is as follows:
1. Bipedalism: The earliest recognizable trait in hominid evolution is the development of bipedalism, or the ability to walk on two legs. This transition from a quadrupedal posture to an upright stance is considered a key feature distinguishing early hominids from their primate ancestors.
2. Increase in Brain Size: Over time, hominids show a trend of increasing brain size. Fossil evidence indicates a gradual enlargement of the brain, reflecting the development of higher cognitive abilities.
3. Tool Use and Culture: Hominids started utilizing tools, demonstrating their ability to modify the environment and engage in cultural practices. The use and sophistication of tools increased over time, marking an important step in human evolution.
4. Speech and Language: The development of speech and language is believed to have occurred later in hominid evolution. This trait enabled enhanced communication and social interaction among early humans.
It is important to note that this order represents a general trend and may vary within different hominid species or individual fossils.
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Which organelle acts as a temporary storage center, containing water, waste, and other products?
Answers
Answer: Vacuole
Explanation:
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antiphospholipid antibodies promote the release of neutrophil extracellular traps: a new mechanism of thrombosis in the antiphospholipid syndrome
Answers
Antiphospholipid antibodies, present in the antiphospholipid syndrome (APS), have been identified as promoters of neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) release, unveiling a novel mechanism for thrombosis in APS.
APS is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies targeting phospholipids in cell membranes, including those in blood vessels. This immune response heightens the risk of thrombosis. Recent research has unveiled that antiphospholipid antibodies can induce the release of NETs by neutrophils. NETs, composed of DNA, histones, and antimicrobial proteins, are typically deployed by neutrophils to ensnare and neutralize pathogens. However, in APS, excessive NET release can contribute to the formation of blood clots. This newfound understanding sheds light on the pathogenesis of thrombosis in APS and could potentially guide the development of targeted therapies for managing thrombotic complications in APS patients.
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In a diploid plant species, an F1 plant with the genotype Gg LI Tt is test-crossed to a pure- breeding recessive plant with the genotype gg litt. The offspring genotypes are as follows: Genotype Gg LI Tt GLItt Gg Il Tt Gg litt gg LI Tt gg Litt Eg II Tt og II tt Number 621 3 64 109 103 67 7 626 1600 a. What are the genotypes of the parental offspring? b. What is the order of these three linked genes? (Which gene is in the middler) c. Calculate the recombination frequencies for each pair of genes and draw a map of the chromosome, showing the order & distances between the three genes. d. What is the interference value for this data set? What does this number mean?
Answers
a. The genotypes of the parental offspring:
Genotype Gg LI Tt: 621 offspring
Genotype gg litt: 1600 offspring
b. The order of the three linked genes: G-L-T (GLI is in the middle).
c. Recombination frequencies:
Recombination frequency between genes G and L: 12.7%
Recombination frequency between genes L and T: 1.3%
Chromosome map:
G-L-T (12.7 map units)
L-T (1.3 map units)
d. The interference value for this data set: 91.1%
This value indicates a high degree of interference, where the occurrence of one crossover reduces the likelihood of another crossover nearby.
a. The genotypes of the parental offspring are given as:
Genotype Gg LI Tt: 621 offspring
Genotype gg litt: 1600 offspring
b. The order of the three linked genes can be determined by analyzing the genotypes of the offspring. In this case, the genotype GLItt is present, indicating that the gene L is in between the genes G and T. Therefore, the order of the linked genes is G-L-T, with gene L being in the middle.
c. To calculate the recombination frequencies between the genes, we consider the number of offspring with recombinant genotypes compared to the total number of offspring. The recombination frequencies for each pair of genes are as follows:
Recombination frequency between genes G and L: (109 + 67) / (621 + 3 + 64 + 109 + 103 + 67 + 7 + 626 + 1600) = 0.127 or 12.7%
Recombination frequency between genes L and T: (3 + 7) / (621 + 3 + 64 + 109 + 103 + 67 + 7 + 626 + 1600) = 0.013 or 1.3%
Based on these recombination frequencies, we can draw a map of the chromosome showing the order and distances between the three genes:
G--(12.7 cM)--L--(1.3 cM)--T
d. The interference value for this data set is calculated using the formula:
Interference = 1 - (observed double crossovers / expected double crossovers)
The observed double crossovers are calculated by summing the numbers of double crossover genotypes:
Observed double crossovers = (3 + 7) + (64 + 67) = 141
The expected double crossovers can be calculated by multiplying the recombination frequencies between the two pairs of genes:
Expected double crossovers = (recombination frequency between G and L) * (recombination frequency between L and T) * (total number of offspring)
Expected double crossovers = 0.127 * 0.013 * (621 + 3 + 64 + 109 + 103 + 67 + 7 + 626 + 1600) = 15.88
Plugging these values into the interference formula:
Interference = 1 - (141 / 15.88) = 0.911 or 91.1%
The interference value of 91.1% indicates a high degree of interference, meaning that the occurrence of one crossover significantly reduces the likelihood of another crossover in close proximity. It suggests the presence of factors or mechanisms that inhibit the occurrence of multiple crossovers in the region.
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can someone please help me
Answers
Why is it important for gametes to be haploid? (1 point)
o When gametes are made, the diploid cell splits twice, creating four haploid organisms.
o They fuse to form a diploid organism so that there is the expected number of chromosomes.
O It is impossible for them to be diploid because reproduction does not result in diploidy.
O Neither parent has the full set of genetic information so each must contribute their half.
Answers
Gametes are regarded as an organisms reproductive sex cells. There are two forms: the male gametes (sperm cell) and female gamete (egg cell).
It is important for gametes to be haploid as they fuse to form a diploid organism so that there is the expected number of chromosomes (option B).
Before fertilization, the sex cell has to be haploid. This is because when fertilization occurs the male and female gametes come together to give rise to a zygote which must be diploid. This is the norm for all body cells. If one of the cells is not haploid lead to a genetic condition which might be detrimental to the organism and also lead to death.Learn more about gametes: https://brainly.com/question/490273
Answer:
They fuse to form a diploid organism so that there is the expected number of chromosomes.
Explanation:
I think this is right
how is the genetic code used to build proteins?
Answers
Answer:
The type of RNA that contains the information for making a protein is called messenger RNA (mRNA) because it carries the information, or message, from the DNA out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm.Through the processes of transcription and translation, information from genes is used to make proteins.
The information to make proteins is stored in an organism’s DNA. Each protein is coded for by a specific section of DNA called a gene. A gene is the section of DNA required to produce one protein. Genes are typically hundreds or thousands of base pairs in length because they code for proteins made of hundreds or thousands of amino acids.
Most genes contain the information needed to make functional molecules called proteins. A few genes produce other molecules that help the cell assemble proteins. The journey from gene to protein is complex and tightly controlled within each cell. It consists of two major steps: transcription and translation. Together, transcription and translation are known as gene expression.
During the process of transcription, the information stored in a gene’s DNA is transferred to a similar molecule called RNA (ribonucleic acid) in the cell nucleus. Both RNA and DNA are made up of a chain of nucleotide bases, but they have slightly different chemical properties. The type of RNA that contains the information for making a protein is called messenger RNA (mRNA) because it carries the information, or message, from the DNA out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm.
Translation, the second step in getting from a gene to a protein, takes place in the cytoplasm. The mRNA interacts with a specialized complex called a ribosome, which “reads” the sequence of mRNA bases. Each sequence of three bases, called a codon, usually codes for one particular amino acid. Remember that amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. A type of RNA called transfer RNA (tRNA) assembles the protein, one amino acid at a time. Protein assembly continues until the ribosome encounters a “stop” codon (a sequence of three bases that does not code for an amino acid).
According to the research, the genetic code determines the way in which the genetic information is translated by RNA to build proteins.
What is the genetic code?It is the set of rules from which said sequence is translated by RNA into a sequence of amino acids, to compose a protein that will fulfill certain functions in the organism.
The genetic code sequence comprises combinations of three nucleotides, each called a codon and responsible for synthesizing a specific amino acid (polypeptide) and synthesizing specific proteins.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the genetic code determines the way in which the genetic information is translated by RNA to build proteins.
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what is the process of breaking down food to its smallest units in order for the nutrients to be absorbed? group of answer choices consumption ingestion absorption excretion digestion
Answers
Answer: absorption
Explanation: it says in the question “in order for the nutrients to. Be absorbed”. So it would most likely be absorption :)
Answer:
The correct answer is Digestion
Explanation:
Digestion is the process of mechanically and enzymatically breaking down food into substances for absorption into the bloodstream.
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When water is used to break bonds what is it called
Answers
Answer:
Hydrolysis
Hydrolysis from Ancient Greek hydro- 'water', and lysis 'to unbind') is any chemical reaction in which a molecule of water ruptures one or more chemical bonds. The term is used broadly for substitution, elimination, and solvation reactions in which water is the nucleophile.
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8. Which is the most likely function of a group of cells that contains a high number of mitochondria?
Glucose production through photosynthesis
b. ATP production through cellular respiration
c. Protein production through protein synthesis
d. mRNA production through transcription
Answers
Answer:
b. ATP production through cellular respiration
Explanation:
The presence of a high number of mitochondria in a group of cells suggests that the cells are actively engaged in cellular respiration. This is because mitochondria are the cellular organelles responsible for producing ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through the process of cellular respiration. During cellular respiration, glucose and oxygen are metabolized to produce energy in the form of ATP, which is used by the cell to perform its various functions.
explain how the genetic information that is stored in DNA becomes a protein that can be used by the cell?
Answers
Answer:
First, enzymes read the information in a DNA molecule and transcribe it into an intermediary molecule called messenger ribonucleic acid, or mRNA. Next, the information contained in the mRNA molecule is translated into the "language" of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins.
In transcription, the information in the DNA of every cell is converted into small, portable RNA messages. During translation, these messages travel from where the DNA is in the cell nucleus to the ribosomes where they are 'read' to make specific proteins.
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Answer:
Explanation:
The process of converting genetic information stored in DNA into functional proteins that can be used by cells is known as gene expression. This process is composed of several steps:
Transcription: The first step in gene expression is the transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA. This is accomplished through the process of transcription, where an enzyme called RNA polymerase reads the DNA code and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule. This RNA molecule is called messenger RNA (mRNA).
Splicing: Before the mRNA molecule is transported out of the nucleus, it may undergo a process called splicing. This process involves the removal of non-coding sequences of the mRNA molecule, leaving only the coding sequence, called exons.
Translation: After the mRNA molecule has been processed and is in the cytoplasm, it is translated into a protein by ribosomes. The ribosome reads the sequence of codons (groups of three nucleotides) in the mRNA molecule and uses this information to assemble a chain of amino acids. The amino acids are linked together through peptide bonds to form a functional protein.
Post-translational modification: Once the protein is produced, it may undergo further modification, such as folding into its final 3D shape or modification by the addition of chemical groups. These modifications are important for the proper functioning of the protein.
In summary, gene expression is the process by which the genetic information stored in DNA is transcribed into mRNA, processed, and then translated into functional proteins in the cytoplasm. These proteins carry out the functions that are essential for the survival and functioning of cells.
FUNCTIONS OF THE LIVER OTHER
THAN PRODUCTION OF BILE
Answers
Explanation:
production production of certain proteins for blood plasma this is best function of bile
Can someone help me with question 8 and 9
Answers
Answer:
8. A
Explanation:
they are moved by strong, steady winds called unidirectional winds, which move from the south west to the north east
Explanation:
8. The same direction as the wind blows
9.Their source was glacial deposits
the asthenosphere and lithosphere are parts of earths
Answers
Answer:
part of the upper mantle
Explanation:
How is a LENS different than a mirror?
Answers
Answer:
The mirror is glass with one side silvery backing produces an image by reflection on only one surface. The lens is a transparent substance that produces images by refraction in any surface of the two surfaces. It can be plane or curved.
Explanation:
Answer: The mirror is a device based on the principle of reflection whereas the lens is based on the principle of refraction.
I need help with putting the appropriate symbols for these chromosome rearrangements. The questions are:
A. A deletion in region 2, band 5 in the long arm of chromosome 4
B. Paracentric inversion(with two breaks in the same arm) in the long arm of chromosome 6, region 1, with break points in bands 2 and 6
C. Translocation of the long arm of chromosome 14 with the retention of the chromosome 14 centromere. Assume a break in the short arm of chromosome 14 at region 1 band 1 and the loss of the entire short arm of 21
The chromosome resulting from this translocation is properly referred to as a _____ chromosome?
D. A pericentric inversion in chromosome 2 with break points in region 1, band 4 of the short arm and region 2, band 3 of the long arm
I tried A and my answer for that is del(4)(q25). I don't know where to start for B,C, and D.
Answers
A. A deletion in region 2, band 5 in the long arm of chromosome 4For this given scenario, the proper notation will be del(4)(q25). The del in the notation stands for the deletion of the chromosome.
B. Paracentric inversion(with two breaks in the same arm) in the long arm of chromosome 6, region 1, with break points in bands 2 and 6The proper notation for the given scenario will be Inv(6)(q12q26). Inversion is represented by Inv in the notation.
C. Translocation of the long arm of chromosome 14 with the retention of the chromosome 14 centromere. Assume a break in the short arm of chromosome 14 at region 1 band 1 and the loss of the entire short arm of 21
The proper notation for the given scenario will be t(14;21)(q11;q22).
Translocation is represented by t in the notation. The chromosome resulting from this translocation is properly referred to as a translocated chromosome.
D. A pericentric inversion in chromosome 2 with break points in region 1, band 4 of the short arm and region 2, band 3 of the long armThe proper notation for the given scenario will be Inv(2)(p14q23).
Inversion is represented by Inv in the notation.
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How many grams are in 2 pounds? 1 pound = 0.45kg
Answers
Reasoning: multiply the mass value, 2 pounds, by 453.592
Answer:
900 grams
Explanation:
So first change pounds to kilograms so multiply 2 by 0.45 which is 0.9 kg.
0.9 kg to grams multiply by 1000 which is 900g.
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