Aliskiren is a medication used to treat hypertension by inhibiting the activity of renin, an enzyme that plays a key role in regulating blood pressure. As with any medication, aliskiren can cause adverse effects. The nurse should monitor the client for the following adverse effects:
Hyperkalemia: Aliskiren can cause an increase in potassium levels in the blood, particularly in patients with renal impairment or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics. The nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels regularly.
Throat swelling: While throat swelling is not a common adverse effect of aliskiren, it is possible in rare cases. The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of allergic reaction, such as swelling of the throat or difficulty breathing, and take appropriate action if necessary.
Cough: Aliskiren can cause a dry, persistent cough in some patients. The nurse should ask the client about cough symptoms and notify the prescriber if cough is present, as the medication may need to be changed.
Overall, the nurse should be aware of potential adverse effects of aliskiren, such as hyperkalemia, throat swelling, and cough, and take appropriate measures to monitor and manage them in the client.
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In particular, the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia and cough.
As a nurse, it is important to be familiar with the potential adverse effects of the medications that our patients are taking. Aliskiren is a medication used to treat hypertension, but it can also cause some adverse effects.
Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be a serious condition that can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and even cardiac arrest. Aliskiren can cause hyperkalemia, so the nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels closely, especially if the client has other risk factors for hyperkalemia such as renal impairment.
Cough is another potential adverse effect of aliskiren. While this is not a serious condition, it can be bothersome for the client. If the client experiences a cough, the nurse should assess the severity and duration of the cough and notify the healthcare provider if necessary.
Throat swelling, on the other hand, is not a common adverse effect of aliskiren. However, if the client experiences any signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as throat swelling, the nurse should act promptly and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
In summary, the nurse should monitor the client taking aliskiren for hyperkalemia and cough. These adverse effects can be managed with appropriate interventions, such as medication adjustments or lifestyle modifications. As always, it is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client's response to the medication and report any adverse effects promptly to the healthcare provider.
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the nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. on review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is most likely at risk for a fluid volume deficit?
On review of the clients' medical records, nurse determines the client that is most likely at risk for a fluid volume deficit is the client taking diuretics, client with an ileostomy and client who needs gastrointestinal suctioning.
Who are at risk of fluid volume deficit?Cardiac and older patients are often prone to fluid volume deficit and dehydration due to minor changes in fluid volume. They also are at risk of developing of pulmonary edema.
Fluid volume deficit is a result of excessive fluid losses and insufficient fluid intake.
Common causes for fluid volume deficit are: vomiting, diarrhea, excessive sweating, fever, frequent urination, lack of oral fluid intake and medications.
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nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client about preventing osteoporosis. what statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
The client is aware of the significance of calcium and vitamin D for bone health, the benefits of weight-bearing exercise for building bone density.
What is osteoporosis?Low bone density and bone tissue degradation are symptoms of osteoporosis, a medical disorder that causes brittle, weak bones that are more likely to break. When the body generates too little bone, loses too much bone, or both, this disease develops.
A client's awareness of osteoporosis prevention is indicated if they say one of the following things:
"In order to create and maintain healthy bones, I will make sure to get adequate calcium and vitamin D in my diet and through supplements. I'll also regularly do weight-bearing workouts like jogging, lifting weights, or walking as they can help build bone density and lower the risk of osteoporosis. While smoking and excessive drinking might raise the chance of acquiring osteoporosis, I will also give up these vices."
This declaration demonstrates that the client is aware of the significance of calcium and vitamin D for bone health, the benefits of weight-bearing exercise for building bone density, and the detrimental effects of smoking and excessive alcohol intake on bone health.
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Neurotransmitter can have a ______ or _______ effect
Answer:
positive or negative effect
Explanation:
hope this helps :D
Healthcare Information Technology Mind Map
which of the following is an anesthetic that would be commonly stockpiled and used during a disaster
Explanation:
A cellular phone network uses towers to
transmit calls. If the equation of the circular area
transmits by the tower is represented by (x-5)2 +
ly-1)2 = 22. Can you identify if you are inside or
outside of the circular area, if your coordinate
location is (6,0)? How about if your location is
(8,2)?
11. Shearing is best described as:
1. Causing a bruise or discoloration
2. Pertaining to an infection
3. Cutting the lawn
4. Tearing of the skin
Cutting the lawn is one of the options provided that best describes shearing.
Option 3 is correct
What is shearing?
shearing is described as a cutting process that's defined by the use of one or more straight blades which is typically used to cut sheet metal.
Shearing in most cases requires the use of a tool that consists of a punch and one or more straight.
Metal Shearing is described as a metal fabrication process that's used to trim and remove unwanted material from sheet metal and usually involves the use of a machine or tool, such as a bench shear, to slice through sheet metal with extreme precision.
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PLEASE GIVE examples of things that you are willing to sacrifice for the sake of your significant others happiness?
Answer:
time to your partner
money helping others (overdue the help)
energy helping others (overdue the help)
your health helping others (overdue the help)
Explanation:
hope it helps ;p
A nursing student is recalling the hierarchy of evidence available for conducting research. In which order should the nurse give priority to the findings of a study
A nurse should follow a hierarchy of evidence when ranking the importance of study findings.
Systematic reviews and meta-analyses, which provide an in-depth study of multiple studies, are at the top of the hierarchy. RCTs, which are regarded as the gold standard for experimental evidence, come to the fore. The following are case-control studies, cross-sectional studies, and cohort studies, each with its own advantages and disadvantages.
Case studies and expert opinion are at the bottom of the hierarchy and provide insightful data but cannot be generalized. Nurses can ensure that their decision making and practice is based on the best available evidence by following this hierarchy, which allows them to prioritize the more reliable and rigorous evidence.
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1. Identify champions and advocates for workplace health promotion. 2. Describe a workplace climate and culture to promote employee'health. 3. Explain the importance of health-promoting policies and procedures. 4. Summarize legal issues in health policies and procedures.
1. Identify champions and advocates for workplace health promotion Champions and advocates are necessary for workplace health promotion to be successful.
These individuals should be able to communicate the importance of workplace health and lead by example. Examples of champions and advocates include managers, supervisors, union leaders, and employees who are passionate about health promotion.
These individuals can create policies, programs, and activities that promote employee well-being.2. Describe a workplace climate and culture to promote employee health To promote employee health, a workplace culture should prioritize health and wellness.
A positive workplace climate can include policies that support healthy behaviors, a safe and healthy work environment, and opportunities for physical activity and healthy food choices. Management should encourage employees to take time for exercise, healthy eating, and self-care.
The culture should also foster employee engagement in wellness programs.3. Explain the importance of health-promoting policies and procedures. Health-promoting policies and procedures are important for several reasons.
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fill in the blank. _____ is care for which there was no payment received from a patient nor a payer
uncompensated care
Uncompensated care is care practiced in healthcare services for which there was no payment received from a patient or a payer.
Uncompensated care refers to health care services that are provided without payment or reimbursement from either the patient or a third-party payer. This can occur in a variety of circumstances, such as when patients are uninsured or underinsured, when insurance companies deny coverage, or when patients cannot afford to pay for their care.
Uncompensated care can place a significant financial burden on healthcare providers, as they may not be able to recover the costs of providing care. Some healthcare providers, particularly safety-net hospitals and clinics, receive funding from government programs to help offset the costs of uncompensated care.
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a patient is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. which symptoms would be most likely experienced?
Acute onset of severe flank pain radiating to the groin, gross or microscopic hematuria, nausea, and vomiting that is not accompanied by an acute abdomen are symptoms of renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction.
A blockage (obstruction) anywhere along the urinary tract—from the kidneys, where urine is generated, to the urethra, where pee exits the body—can raise pressure and delay urine flow. An blockage can develop suddenly or gradually over days, weeks, or even months. An obstruction can totally or partially clog the urinary tract. Although just one kidney is sometimes impacted, blockage can affect both kidneys.
Depending on the reason, the prevalence of urinary tract blockage ranges from five in 10,000 to five in 1,000. Obstruction in children is caused mostly by congenital abnormalities affecting the urinary system.
The reason of urinary blockage determines the treatment. A catheter inserted into the bladder may be all that is required to remove the blockage. (a catheter is a soft tube that is inserted into the urethra). Medication can occasionally assist if the blockage is caused by an infection or an enlarged prostate.
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I agree that when your product makes it through the approval process, Physicians and patients will have more than one medicine to use for their ailment.
The more treatment options you come up with, the more costly it is to produce biosimilar products. Moreover, it becomes more complicated to assimilate them into the reference drug. How are you willing to advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options?
To manage the expenses associated with developing treatment options, it is essential to carefully evaluate the potential benefits, align with reliable partners, and stay updated with the regulatory landscape.
To advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options, it is important to consider several factors. Firstly, conducting thorough research and development to identify potential treatment options can be costly. It is crucial to assess the market demand, potential patient benefits, and regulatory requirements for each option before proceeding.
Additionally, the manufacturing process of biosimilar products can be complex and expensive. Ensuring quality and consistency in production requires significant investment in technology, equipment, and expertise. Collaborating with experienced manufacturers and investing in robust quality control systems can help mitigate these challenges.
Moreover, integrating biosimilar products into the reference drug landscape can be a complex task. It involves navigating regulatory pathways, addressing intellectual property considerations, and establishing effective marketing strategies. Engaging with regulatory bodies, collaborating with legal experts, and conducting comprehensive market analysis can facilitate this process.
Additionally, optimizing internal processes and investing in research and development can help drive cost-efficiency while ensuring the availability of multiple treatment options for physicians and patients.
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You are called to the scene of a 47 year old man with a current chief complain of chest pain. The patient informs you he has never been sick a day in his life prior to this which of the following will provide you the greatest information
How would a separate procedure be explained if a coder was explaining the meaning of it?
(If that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure.)
Explanation:If a code description includes the term “separate procedure”, if that procedure is in the same anatomic area as a more comprehensive procedure (for example, lyse of adhesions followed by a colectomy) only the more comprehensive procedure, the colectomy, is reported.
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Josif is a pharmacy technician who is having a professional conversation with another staff member of the hospital.
Who might Josif be interacting with? Select all that apply.
a. a nurse
b. a pharmacist
c. a doctor
d. a patient
e. a patient's family member
f. a nursing assistant
Answer:
A. A nurse
B. A pharmacist
C. A doctor
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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_____ therapies treat anxieties by subjecting people to the things they fear and avoid.
Please type the correct answer in the following input field, and then select the submit answer button or press the enter key when finished.
Answer:
Exposure
Explanation:
Exposure therapy is a psychological treatment that was developed to help people confront their fears. When people are fearful of something, they tend to avoid the feared objects, activities or situations.
What does holistic wound assessment involve and how does it contribute to the management of wounds? In your answer you will need to identify what factors are included in a holistic assessment
Holistic wound assessment involves a comprehensive evaluation of a wound by considering multiple factors that can influence the wound healing process.
It goes beyond just examining the physical aspects of the wound and takes into account the individual's overall health, lifestyle, and psychosocial well-being. By considering these factors, holistic wound assessment aims to provide a complete picture of the wound and its impact on the individual's overall health and quality of life.
A holistic wound assessment typically includes the following factors:
1. Physical assessment: This involves examining the wound's location, size, depth, and characteristics such as color, odor, and exudate. It also includes assessing the surrounding skin for signs of infection or inflammation.
2. Patient history: Gathering information about the individual's medical history, including any underlying health conditions, previous wounds, surgeries, or medications, helps identify potential factors that may affect wound healing.
3. Nutritional assessment: Evaluating the individual's nutritional status is crucial as adequate nutrition is essential for wound healing. Factors such as malnutrition or specific nutrient deficiencies can impair the healing process.
4. Psychosocial assessment: Understanding the individual's emotional well-being, mental health, and social support system is important as these factors can impact wound healing. Stress, depression, anxiety, or social isolation can hinder the healing process.
5. Functional assessment: Assessing the individual's mobility, activities of daily living, and overall functional status helps determine how the wound may affect their ability to perform daily activities and maintain independence.
6. Pain assessment: Evaluating the individual's pain level and pain management needs is vital for providing appropriate interventions and ensuring their comfort during the healing process.
Holistic wound assessment contributes to the management of wounds by providing a comprehensive understanding of the individual's unique needs and circumstances. It helps healthcare professionals develop a personalized care plan that addresses the underlying factors affecting wound healing, promotes optimal healing conditions, and considers the individual's overall well-being. By taking a holistic approach, healthcare professionals can provide not only physical wound care but also address nutritional deficiencies, psychological support, pain management, and functional limitations, leading to improved wound healing outcomes and overall patient satisfaction.
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Shirley is a 75-year-old woman who is seeing her doctor for her annual checkup. She explains that she has been having some shortness of breath. As part of her visit, the doctor recommends that Shirley get an ECG so that they can assess the condition of her heart. Shirley is very anxious about the test and does not feel that it is necessary.
How can the medical assistant assist Shirley?
What pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another? Give an example and explain.
The pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another is liver disease.
Spironolactone is the class one diuretic recommended for a patient with cirrhosis and edema.
What are diuretics ?A diuretic is described as any substance that promotes diuresis, the increased production of urine and this might includes forced diuresis.
There are three known types of diuretics and they include:
Thiazide. Loop. Potassium sparing.The use of some diuretics is also prominent in cases of overdose or poisoning as they help to increase the excretion of certain substances from the patient's body.
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You have finally persuaded the 8 yr old patient to have impressions taken. When seating the maxillary tray she starts to gag. describe some technique you could use to make the procedure a positive experience to the patient
Answer: Hope this helps you!
Explanation: I would tell them that first, it's going to be okay, then I would explain what's going to happen, kids like it a little better whenever you explain things and then it happens, plus you could always offer a toy of some sort or even candy.
which major glands are influenced by performance enhancing drugs?
Performance enhancing drugs can influence several major glands, including the pituitary gland, the adrenal gland, and the testes (in males) or ovaries (in females).
The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, is responsible for producing and regulating hormones that control growth, metabolism, and reproductive functions. Performance enhancing drugs, such as human growth hormone (HGH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), can stimulate the pituitary gland to produce more of these hormones, resulting in increased muscle mass, strength, and endurance.
The adrenal gland, located above the kidneys, produces hormones that help regulate the body's response to stress, including adrenaline and cortisol. Performance enhancing drugs, such as cortisol-like steroids, can mimic the effects of cortisol and increase the body's ability to cope with stress and physical exertion.
In males, the testes produce testosterone, the primary male sex hormone that plays a key role in muscle growth and development. Performance enhancing drugs, such as testosterone, can increase testosterone levels, leading to improved athletic performance. In females, the ovaries produce estrogen, which is important for reproductive health and bone density. Performance enhancing drugs can disrupt normal hormonal balance, leading to serious health consequences and side effects.
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The physician has written an order for a Heparin bolus of 60 units/kg IV. Your patient's weight is 80 kg. What would be the appropriate dose for this patient?
Answer:
4800 units
Explanation:
60 units/kg x 80 kg = 4800 units
To find the appropriate dose of Heparin bolus for this patient, follow these steps:
1. Note the physician's order: 60 units/kg IV Heparin bolus.
2. Obtain the patient's weight: 80 kg.
3. Multiply the physician's order by the patient's weight to calculate the appropriate dose.
Calculation: 60 units/kg x 80 kg = 4800 units
The appropriate dose for this patient would be 4800 units of Heparin bolus IV as per the physician's order.
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After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
a. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
b. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
c. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
d. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
The initial, first examination and evaluation of a patient by a medical professional after stabilization is known as a primary assessment. The examination that includes taking a thorough patient history and making a diagnosis is known as a secondary assessment.
The initial assessment is the first step in evaluating a patient. The secondary assessment is the last stage of a patient's examination.
In emergency situations, the initial evaluation is a crucial step in the triage process. After triage, the secondary evaluation takes place.
The phases of the first examination include checking the airway, breathing, circulation, impairment, and exposure. The phases of the secondary examination include checking for allergies, medications, past history, the most recent meal, and incidents.
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While academia may be the major source of training in the field, all of the additional sources below except for one may be used as well to provide professionally recognized training. Which source is that?
Fewer and fewer customers have been coming into the restaurant, so Bill, the manager, decides to change the entire menu. After he does this, he finds out
that people loved the food, but the service has been driving people away. This represents what kind of problem in the decision-making process?
A. Failure to act on a decision
B. Failure to develop enough options
C. Failure to correctly define the problem
D. Failure to evaluate the decision
Answer:
C
Explanation:
When people visit restaurant, they don't want little bit of options, they want to try a variety of foods when they go to the restaurant. The menu has to be interesting and has to look good to peoples eyes in order to try a new food. Maybe he hasn't made variety of different kinds of food, and just stuck to one kind of food. (EX: Meat, chicken, etc.) Maybe if he adds different kinds of foods to the menu, maybe people will start to go there again. Because not all people like to order the same type of food and spend money on it.
This represents what kind of problem in the decision-making process is failure to develop enough options. Thus, option B is correct.
What happens when people visit restraunt?When people visit restaurant, they don't want little bit of options, they want to try a variety of foods when they go to the restaurant. The menu has to be interesting and has to look good to peoples eyes in order to try a new food.
Maybe he hasn't made variety of different kinds of food, and just stuck to one kind of food. (EX: Meat, chicken, etc.) Maybe if he adds different kinds of foods to the menu, maybe people will start to go there again. Because not all people like to order the same type of food and spend money on it.
Fewer and fewer customers have been coming into the restaurant, so Bill, the manager, decides to change the entire menu. After he does this, he finds out that people loved the food, but the service has been driving people away.
Therefore, This represents what kind of problem in the decision-making process is failure to develop enough options. Thus, option B is correct.
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Which diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition?
a kidney biopsy and a cystectomy
O a cystogram and a gout diet
O urinary catheterization and diabetes
O a sonogram and lithotripsy
Answer:
A sonogram and lithotripsy
Explanation:
Egd.
A sonogram and lithotripsy are the diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition
What is a diagnostic procedure?The term diagnostic procedure refers to the pattern in which a doctor tries to know what is wrong with a patient. Usually, when ailments are similar, they can be diagnosed by similar methods.
Thus, a sonogram and lithotripsy are the diagnostic procedure and treatment would most likely be used for the same condition.
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a professional has evidence that a patient has intentionally faked her illness. to determine whether the patient is malingering or experiencing a factitious disorder, what must be examined?
To determine whether a patient is malingering or experiencing a factitious disorder, the symptoms and motivations behind their behavior must be examined.
When a patient intentionally fakes an illness to achieve some external gain, such as avoiding work or receiving disability benefits, they are said to be malingering. On the other hand, when a patient intentionally produces symptoms in order to assume a sick role or receive medical attention, they may have a factitious disorder.
To differentiate between the two, healthcare professionals must examine the patient's symptoms carefully to determine if they match up with known medical conditions. Additionally, motivations for producing those symptoms must be explored, which could include attention-seeking behavior, underlying emotional issues, or other psychological factors. By examining these two key areas, healthcare professionals can arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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Mycobacteria secrete a waxy coating that makes this disease difficult to treat using antibiotics:.
Mycobacteria secretes a waxy coating which makes the disease, Tuberculosis difficult to treat using antibiotics. The cellular envelope of Mycobacteria is thick, waxy and hydrophobic in nature thus, making it antibiotic resistant. The presence of mycolic acid (MA) in abundance within the mycobacterial cell envelope mainly provides the hydrophobic barrier to antibiotic entry.
What is Mycobacteria?Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a non-motile, aerobic, waxy, lipid-rich bacillus with a high concentration of mycolic acid in its outer wall (a type of fatty acid).
What is the cell wall structure of Mycobacteria?Mycobacteria is partially gram negative and partially gram positive in nature. The cellular envelope of mycobacteria is composed of dual membrane structure. The structure comprises of a mycobacterial outer membrane (MOM) with inner layer of mycolic acids along with outer leaflet composed of free lipids. The mycolic acid layer is covalently bonded to the polysaccharide cell wall, but the free lipids are not bound and can be removed from the envelope, a characteristic not present in Gram-negative bacteria.
What is mycolic acid?Mycolic acids are abundantly present in the mycobacterial cell envelope contributing to 30% of the dry weight. Mycolic acids not only provide the hydrophobic barrier but also contributes to the pathogenicity of Mycobacteria. MA is composed of long-chain α-alkyl-β-hydroxy fatty acids.
What is the role of mycolic acid in antibiotic resistance?The MA profile is specific to specific species of Mycobacteria. The MA chains are densely arranged into parallel arrays that are parallel to the cell envelope's surface, and these arrays may be stabilized by hydrogen bonds formed between the -OH groups. The cis-double bonds and cyclopropane rings, which cause kinks in the long chains, influence how the MAs fold into energetically advantageous conformations within these arrays. Stabilizing hydrophilic contacts are also formed through the oxygen functions. As a result, the keto-MAs might adopt a conformation known as the "W-form," in which four chains are arranged parallel to one another. Although the 'W' shape can also be formed by the methoxy-MAs and '-MAs, they are more malleable at higher temperatures, especially the '-MAs, which take on more open forms. The MA monolayer gains the necessary rigidity from this tight packing, creating a hydrophobic permeability barrier that may be controlled by the MAs adopting different conformations depending on their structure and the surrounding temperature.
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