A physician orders 50 ml of fluids to be infused 45 minutes with a drop factor of 20 get/ml.what is the drip rate this infusion

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Answer 1

Answer:

22 gtt/minutes


Related Questions

If he is going into anaphylactic shock, what medication needs to be given immediately?

Answers

Epinephrine [Adrenaline]

Anaphylaxis is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that may cause death of a person.

This is a disease which starts with mild symptoms like rashes and low pulse rate but the severity of this disease can cause shocks.

If a patients is going through this disease he should be introduced with Adrenaline which will stimulate bronchial beta adrenergic receptors.

This will alleviate prurtius and angioedema associated with anaphylaxis.

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what is the first thing you do when you add a needle

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Answer:

If you pierce or puncture your skin with a used needle, follow this first aid advice immediately: encourage the wound to bleed, ideally by holding it under running water. wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap. do not scrub the wound while you're washing it.Explanation:

a client with fever, weight loss, and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. while assessing the client, a nurse inspects the client's abdomen and notices that it is slightly concave. additional assessment should proceed in which order?

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Based on the client's symptoms of fever, weight loss, watery diarrhea, and a slightly concave abdomen, the additional assessment should proceed in the following order: Assess for signs of dehydration, Evaluate nutritional status,  Perform a thorough gastrointestinal assessment.

1. Assess for signs of dehydration: Given the watery diarrhea, it is important to assess for signs of dehydration such as dry mouth, decreased urine output, and poor skin turgor. This will help determine the client's fluid status.

2. Evaluate nutritional status: Since the client has experienced weight loss, it is important to assess their nutritional status. This can be done by evaluating dietary intake, appetite, and measuring body weight.

3. Perform a thorough gastrointestinal assessment: Given the client's symptoms, a thorough gastrointestinal assessment should be conducted. This may include asking about changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or the presence of blood in the stool. Additional tests such as stool cultures or imaging studies may be warranted.

In order to provide appropriate care for the client, it is important to follow a systematic approach to assessment. The initial focus should be on assessing for signs of dehydration, as diarrhea can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Next, evaluating the client's nutritional status will help determine if their weight loss is due to poor intake or other underlying factors. Finally, conducting a thorough gastrointestinal assessment will provide more information about the client's symptoms and help guide further diagnostic testing or interventions.


When assessing a client with symptoms of fever, weight loss, watery diarrhea, and a slightly concave abdomen, it is important to proceed with additional assessments in a systematic order. First, the nurse should assess for signs of dehydration. This may include checking for dry mouth, decreased urine output, and poor skin turgor. Dehydration can be a common complication in clients with diarrhea, so ensuring the client's fluid status is stable is crucial. Next, the nurse should evaluate the client's nutritional status. Weight loss can be indicative of malnutrition or underlying health conditions. Assessing dietary intake, appetite, and measuring body weight can provide valuable information about the client's nutritional status. Finally, a thorough gastrointestinal assessment should be conducted. This involves asking about changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or the presence of blood in the stool. Additional tests such as stool cultures or imaging studies may be ordered based on the findings of the assessment. By following this order of assessment, the nurse can gather important information to guide the client's care and ensure appropriate interventions are implemented.

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Wash cutting boards after each use to prevent the spread of A) Bacteria
B) Disease
C) Germs
D) Both A and C are correct

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D. Both A and C are correct

Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder will likely demonstrate all of the following except __________.

a) the tendency to be impulsive
b) the need for instant gratification
c) suspicion and mistrust of others
d) restraint from becoming too intimate

The correct answer is D

Answers

Answer:

ur right its D

Please mark as brainliest if answer is right

Have a great day, be safe and healthy  

Thank u  

XD  

The Individuals diagnosed with a personality disorder does not represent the option d.  restraint from becoming too intimate.

What is a personality disorder?

It is the long-term pattern that should be different in a significant manner.

At the time when the individual iagnosed with a personality disorder so there is the tendency for impulsive, instant gratification, and mistrust of others.

Hence, the option d is correct.

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You must always test blood sugar after every meal?

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The general rule is to test before meals and keep a record. If you want to know how your meals affect your blood sugar, testing about 2 hours after eating can be helpful. Test whenever you feel your blood sugar is either too high or too low.
The general rule is to test before meals and keep a record. If you want to know how your meals affect your blood sugar, testing about 2 hours after eating can be helpful. Test whenever you feel your blood sugar is either too high or too low.

In Example 4.12 in your textbook, it describes the Physician's Health Study that concluded those taking aspirin had a significantly lower chance of suffering a heart attack than those who took a placebo. What other variables could have influenced this finding? Would an in-depth study of the subject's current health status make a difference in deciding whether or not one could conclude that aspirin alone could be effective in preventing heart attacks? Or can we believe the results of this study on face value?

Please answer should be Word Count: 300 not less than this

Reference: Mind on Statistics Edition 5 book

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Variables that could have influenced the finding on the Physician's Health Study are numerous. Some of the variables that could have influenced the finding on the Physician's Health Study are the participants' age,  socioeconomic status, and smoking status. It's also possible that the participants' diets and levels of physical activity were different, which could have had an impact on their heart attack risk. There could also have been other variables, such as genetics, that could have influenced the findings.

Therefore, it is possible that the results of this study are affected by these variables.In in-depth study of the subject's current health status might have made a difference in deciding whether or not one could conclude that aspirin alone could be effective in preventing heart attacks. An in-depth study of the subject's current health status would help to control for some of the variables that could have influenced the finding, such as age, , socioeconomic status, smoking status, and diet.

Therefore, if an in-depth study of the subject's current health status found that aspirin alone was effective in preventing heart attacks, it would be more likely to be accurate than the results of the Physician's Health Study, which did not control for these variables.However, it is difficult to determine whether or not we can believe the results of this study on face value. While the study suggests that aspirin can be beneficial in reducing the risk of heart attack, it did not control for many of the variables that could have influenced the findings.

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Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription. T/F?

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The given statement, "Automated sentence building is a means of electronic transcription" is a false statement because  automated sentence building is a process of generating sentences automatically using computer algorithms, while electronic transcription is the conversion of spoken language into written text using electronic devices or software.

However, Automated sentence building is a method used for automatic summarization, which involves reducing the input text into a shortened version consisting of only the main points and ideas. It is often used in Natural Language Processing (NLP) and other related fields to create summaries of long articles or other textual content. In essence, the purpose of automated sentence building is to make it easier for humans to understand and analyze large amounts of information by breaking it down into its most important elements.

The electronic transcription method is used for the conversion of speech into written or electronic text using software applications. It is often used in a wide range of industries, including legal, medical, and entertainment, as well as for creating subtitles for videos and other multimedia content.

Therefore, the given statement is false since automated sentence building and electronic transcription are two distinct concepts used in different fields.

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Assignment: to, too, or twoin the blanks, write "to," "too," or "two," whichever is the correct form.i would like you _____ go _____the library _____ check out _____books each. i am going ____go _____, but i am going _____check out three, rather than____. next week, we can go _____the computer lab _____.

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Answer:

I would like you to go to the library to check out two books each. I am going to go too, but I am going to check out three, rather than two. Next week, we can go to the computer lab too.

Lower back pain may radiate toward the front of the pelvis for a number of reasons. Some of the most common sources of this type of pain include spinal injuries, bulging discs, nerve root irritation, and changes that occur during pregnancy.

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True. lower back pain may radiate toward the front of the pelvis for a number of reasons. Some of the most common sources of this type of pain include spinal injuries, bulging discs, nerve root irritation, and changes that occur during pregnancy.

What is spinal injuries ?

A spinal cord injury results in damage to the actual spinal cord as well as nearby organs, bones, and tissues. You might lose function or mobility in various body parts depending on the severity of the injury. Surgery, medicine, and physical therapy are all forms of treatment. A more recent strategy tries to stimulate active nerves.

The spinal cord acts as a messenger between the brain and the rest of the body. The spinal cord is encased in meninges, a layer of tissue, and a column of vertebrae, or spinal bones. An abrupt, traumatic blow to the vertebrae is the most common cause of spinal cord injuries. The spinal cord and its nerves are subsequently harmed by the fractured (broken) bones. The spinal cord can occasionally be completely severed or split by trauma.

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Complete Question:

State whether the given statement is True or False,

Lower back pain may radiate toward the front of the pelvis for a number of reasons. Some of the most common sources of this type of pain include spinal injuries, bulging discs, nerve root irritation, and changes that occur during pregnancy.

Explain the pathway of blood starting with leaving the left ventricle and ending with
entering the left ventricle including the valves.

Answers

Right Side

Blood enters the heart through two large veins, the inferior and superior vena cava, emptying oxygen-poor blood from the body into the right atrium.

Left Side

The pulmonary vein empties oxygen-rich blood, from the lungs into the left atrium.

Match each part of the brain with the correct label!

-Pons
-Thalamus
-Spinal Cord
- Hypothalamus
-Corpus Callosum
-Medulla Oblongata
-Cerebellum
-Arbor Vitae
-Pituitary Gland

Match each part of the brain with the correct label!-Pons-Thalamus-Spinal Cord- Hypothalamus-Corpus Callosum-Medulla

Answers

Answer:

yes they are level right


-Pons
-Thalamus
-Spinal Cord
- Hypothalamus
-Corpus Callosum
-Medulla Oblongata
-Cerebellum
-Arbor Vitae
-Pituitary Gland

For cool people to have fun!

Answers

Answer:

Heyyy, ig I’m cool lolllll

Explanation:

The eyes are located ______ to the nose

Answers

I wanna say..Above? But if not, what are the choices
3/4 of the way up, to the 45° angle

What action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that
helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system
strengths and deficiencies?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
Overthinking
Practicing mutual respect
Debriefing
Criticizing

Answers

Debriefing is the action can you take as a team during and after a resuscitation attempt that helps individual team members perform better and brings awareness to system strengths and deficiencies.

What is debriefing?

Debriefing is a fundamental action during critical response processes such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Debriefing refers to the actions and procedures that involve communication between the members of a medical team in a clinical case.

Debriefing can result in a fundamental issue for understanding a medical problem/issue and thus safe lives.

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idk how to do this g:(((

idk how to do this g:(((

Answers

Answer:

Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.

Explanation:

If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.

SOMEONE QUICK ONLY 1 BLOOD BAG LEFT OXYGEN IS LOW BLOOD IS LEAKING HOW DO I STOP MY PATIENT FROM BLEEDING OUT!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO BEST ANSWER PLEASE HELP

Answers

Answer:

Neither oxygen supplementation nor the blood bag is going to help your patient to stop bleeding out, or even bleed less. You need to locate the site of trauma and apply direct pressure as well as using gauze or other materials to assist in blocking the open wound depending how large it is.

Explanation: that is the explanation ^^

Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?

Answers

a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.

b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function. 

c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.

d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.

f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.

g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.

h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.

i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.

Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.

We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.

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How many mg of a medication are needed to make 1,500 mL of a 1:4000 w/v solution

Answers

Answer:

375 mg

Explanation:

conversions

Ways for a medical assistant to protect self boundaries and demonstrate respect for individual diversity including gender and appearance?

Answers

Ways for a medical assistant to protect self boundaries and demonstrate respect for individual diversity including gender and appearance include the following;

Taking time to explain terminologies.Ensuring all individuals are treated equally and fairly.

What is Diversity?

This is defined as the differences which are present in the characteristics or features of a person.

In the healthcare system, all individuals must be treated fairly and equally and time should be taken in explaining things to people so they don't feel neglected and they are referred to ways in which an individual can protect self boundaries and demonstrate respect for individual diversity.

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What is the major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia.

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The major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia is the cause and type of information that is forgotten.

What is amnesia?

This is a disease or condition in which it is difficult for patients to remember specific information.

What is dissociative amnesia?

This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember relevant information such as one's name, one's location, specific events or feelings.

This is often caused due to traumatic events or stress.

What is retrograde amnesia?

This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember information from their past. This means patients can remember the events that are happening today, but not the ones yesterday, last year, etc.

This is often caused by brain injury or diseases such as Alzheimer's disease or a cardiac arrest.

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Whether someone with a diathesis develops the disorder is determined by

Answers

Answer:

The Diathesis-Stress Model explains that psychological disorders derive from the combination of a predisposition to vulnerability or diathesis, as an innate factor, together with experiences of stress as an acquired factor. Therefore, innate factors and acquired factors are needed to develop certain disorder.

Explanation:

From the perspective of the diathesis-stress model, a disorder is the result of the interaction between a genetic predisposition or vulnerability (diathesis), with external factors or personal experiences (stress). This model is used to explain the development of mental disorders with a clear genetic basis, such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, etc. The appearance of the disorder will depend on the combination of both factors. The more genetic predisposition you are, the more likely you are to develop these low-stress diseases. And on the contrary, a low predisposition protects us from suffering a mental disorder, even if different stressors occur in our life.

Discuss the usual progression of the disease as the pathophysiology develops further. Indicate additional manifestations that will be noticeable.

Answers

Answer:

The primary pathologic hallmarks of PD are loss of neurons in an area of the brain called the substantia nigra pars compacta, and the presence of globs of a protein called alpha-synuclein found in neurons, called Lewy bodies.

The name of the specific Electronic Instument used to monitor physiological changes mostly regulated by the autonomic nervous? Please do not answer Bio-feedback. that is the result of utilizing the Electronic Instrument. Not the instument itself.

Answers

Answer:

Biofeedback is the process of gaining greater awareness of many physiological functions of one's own body, commercially by using electronic or other instruments, and with a goal of being able to manipulate the body's systems at will. Humans conduct biofeedback naturally all the time, at varied levels of consciousness and intentionality. Biofeedback and the biofeedback loop can also be thought of as self-regulation.[1][2] Some of the processes that can be controlled include brainwaves, muscle tone, skin conductance, heart rate and pain perceptions

Research projects, such as a drug trial, are a part of which type of care?
A. Secondary care
B. Private industry
C. Capitation
D. Quaternary care

Answers

Research projects, such as a drug trial, are a part of (D) Quaternary care.

Quaternary care refers to highly specialized and experimental medical care provided in research hospitals and medical centers that offer advanced treatments and procedures, such as clinical trials, gene therapy, and experimental surgeries. These types of medical care are generally only available in a few specialized institutions and are used for the most complex and rare medical conditions.

Which of the following classes of medications are considered bronchodilators? (select all that apply)
Long acting muscarinic antagonists
Short acting β 2 agonists
Long acting β 2 agonists
Short muscarinic antagonists

Answers

Answer:

The following classes of medications are considered bronchodilators: short acting β 2 agonists and long acting β 2 agonists. Long acting muscarinic antagonists are also bronchodilators, but short muscarinic antagonists are not. Therefore, the correct options are:

Short acting β 2 agonists

Long acting β 2 agonists

Note that bronchodilators are a class of drugs that relax the smooth muscle in the lungs, making it easier to breathe. Short acting bronchodilators work quickly but only last for a few hours, while long acting bronchodilators provide more sustained relief over a long period of time.

Explanation:

The classes of medications that are considered bronchodilators include short acting β 2 agonists, long acting β 2 agonists, and long acting muscarinic antagonists. Short muscarinic antagonists are not bronchodilators.


The classes of medications that are considered bronchodilators include:

1. Long acting muscarinic antagonists
2. Short acting β2 agonists
3. Long acting β2 agonists

There isn't a class specifically called "short muscarinic antagonists," so it does not apply to this list of bronchodilators.

Short acting 2 agonists, long acting 2 agonists, and long acting muscarinic antagonists are the drug classes that are regarded as bronchodilators. Bronchodilators are not present in short muscarinic antagonists.

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what chest landmarks show a rescuer where to push for proper cpr compressions on an infant

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Chest landmarks show a rescuer where to push for proper CPR compressions on an infant are the primary chest landmark for finding the correct compression location in an infant is the lower half of the sternum.

During infant CPR (Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation), there are specific chest landmarks that can guide a rescuer on where to push for proper compressions. These landmarks help ensure effective chest compressions and maximize the chances of restoring circulation.

The primary chest landmark for finding the correct compression location in an infant is the lower half of the sternum. The sternum is the long, flat bone in the center of the chest. In infants, the lower half of the sternum is often more flexible and can be identified by locating the nipples. The rescuer should place two fingers just below the nipple line, in the middle of the infant's chest.

It's crucial to note that the depth and rate of compressions in infant CPR differ from those used for adults or children. The American Heart Association recommends compressing the infant's chest to about one-third the depth of their chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm). Compressions should be performed at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute.

Remember that infant CPR should be performed by individuals trained in proper techniques. If you are in a situation requiring infant CPR, it is important to contact emergency medical services immediately for professional assistance.

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You are the office manager for a busy primary care practice.over the past week you have notice that the one of your employees has been 15 minutes late every day.should you approach this employee? If so how do you manage the situation? What are the main points you would want to stress to this employee? Are there any consequences? What follow-up if any should be done

Answers

Answer:

Whether it’s bad traffic, oversleeping or caring for a sick pet, employees offer up lots of different excuses when they show up late for work. As the manager, you may overlook it the first time. But what if it becomes a pattern?

Employee lateness is a widespread problem. A 2016 survey by CareerBuilder found that one in four employees admits to showing up late for work once a month, whereas 13 percent of employees say it’s a weekly occurrence. Managers say they hear all sorts of excuses: “A black bear entered my carport and decided to take a nap on the hood of my car.” “I was detained by Homeland Security.” “My hair caught on fire from my blow dryer.”

Employees who rarely arrive late to work should probably be given the benefit of the doubt—as there are valid reasons for being late. (Tires really do go flat!) But it’s generally in a manager’s best interest to confront employees who frequently—or always—show up late.

Late employees can reduce business productivity, especially if they aren’t making up for lost work time at the end of their shifts. Moreover, it hurts the morale and work ethic of other employees who might resent that the late arrivers aren’t getting called out or disciplined for their lateness. It might even encourage other employees to start showing up late to work if they see no consequence for the bad behavior.

But don’t despair. Businesses have many opportunities to boost the odds that employees will show up when they’re supposed to. Here are ways to discourage employees from arriving late, as well as how to deal with those who regularly do:

Explanation:

As the tension of vocal folds in the larynx increase, the voice becomes ________.

Answers

Answer:

higher in pitch

To counter the inflammation caused by a bee sting, your friend Alan takes an antihistamine. What type of blood cell’s activity is this helping to counteract?

A. neutrophils

B. lymphocytes

C. erythrocytes

D. basophils

Answers

Answer:

The activity of blood cells that can be counteracted by an antihistamine is the release of histamine by basophils (option D).

Explanation:

Histamine is an inflammatory mediator produced and released by the body in response to an allergic or hypersensitivity reaction. This substance is produced by the mast cell, a basophilic leukocyte that participates in the immune response.

When a person produces an allergic reaction, such as from a bee sting, the presence of the bee venom causes the mast cells to release the histamine they contain, producing capillary vasodilation and the signs of inflammation.

Anti-histamines are a type of medication that prevent mast cells from releasing histamine.

   The other options are not correct because cells like erythrocytes, neutrophils or lymphocytes do not contain histamine.

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