To determine the required pipe size for the pipeline between the two tanks, we need to calculate the pressure drop along the pipeline.
The pressure drop is given by the formula P = ρgh + f (L/D) (V^2/2), where P is the pressure drop, ρ is the density of water, g is the acceleration due to gravity, h is the difference in surface elevation between the two tanks, f is the friction factor, L is the length of the pipeline, D is the diameter of the pipeline, and V is the velocity of the water.
Since the pipeline is smooth, we can assume a friction factor of 0.008. Plugging in the given values, we get:
P = (1000 kg/m3) (9.81 m/s2) (9 m) + 0.008 (90 m) (D) (0.25 m/s)2 / 2
P = 88.29 + 0.0005625 D2
To minimize the pressure drop, we need to minimize the value of D. Setting the derivative of the pressure drop with respect to D to zero, we get:
0.001125 D = 0
D = 0
This means that the pressure drop is minimized when the diameter of the pipeline is zero, which is obviously not possible. Therefore, we need to select a practical pipe size that will give an acceptable pressure drop. Assuming a maximum pressure drop of 5% of the initial pressure, we can solve for the required diameter:
88.29 + 0.0005625 D2 = (0.05) (1000 kg/m3) (9.81 m/s2) (9 m)
D = 0.2 m or 200 mm
Therefore, a pipeline with a diameter of 200 mm is required to carry water at 20 oC at a rate of 0.25 m3/s between two tanks with a difference in surface elevation of 9 m, assuming negligible local losses.
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there are 17 toinspect in a commercial building. Each inspection takes 40 min. How many will the full inspection take
Answer:
680
Explanation:
Because if each inspection takes 40 in there are 17 you just need to divide 17 x 40 = 680
The gas turbine power generation efficiency of the IGCC thermal power plant is 30%, and the steam turbine power generation efficiency is 30%.
1) What is the power generation efficiency of the IGCC plant?
2) What is the ratio of gas and steam power generation?
3) What percentage of coal energy is thrown out of the plant heat exchanger?
91% of coal energy is thrown out of the plant heat exchanger.
1) The power generation efficiency of the IGCC plant can be calculated by multiplying the gas turbine power generation efficiency with the steam turbine power generation efficiency as they are in series. Therefore, the power generation efficiency of the IGCC plant will be 0.3 x 0.3 = 0.09 or 9%.2) The ratio of gas and steam power generation can be calculated by dividing the power generated by the gas turbine by the total power generated. This is given by:Gas power generation = 0.3 x Total power generationSteam power generation = 0.3 x Total power generationRatio of gas power generation to steam power generation = Gas power generation / Steam power generation= 0.3 x Total power generation / 0.3 x Total power generation= 1:13) The percentage of coal energy that is thrown out of the plant heat exchanger can be calculated using the following formula:Percentage of coal energy thrown out = 100 - (Power generation efficiency x 100)This is because the heat exchanger will reject the remaining energy of the fuel not used in power generation.Using the power generation efficiency of the IGCC plant from part 1),Percentage of coal energy thrown out = 100 - (0.09 x 100)Percentage of coal energy thrown out = 100 - 9Percentage of coal energy thrown out = 91%
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to produce cooling the refrigerant must
Answer:
The compressor
Explanation:
to compress the low-pressure dry gas refrigerant from the evaporator and raise its pressure and temperature to that of the condenser, to produce flow around the system.
If the content of T4: 0.ACC is copied into N7: 0 through N7:4 memory locations, this process is considered a ____. A. word-to-word transfer B. file-to-file transfer C. word-to-file transfer D. file-to-word transfer
If the content of T4: 0.ACC is copied into N7: 0 through N7:4 memory locations, this process is considered a "word-to-word transfer" (Option A)
What is T4:0?
In programming, T4:0 is a time base. Whenever it is set to 1.0, it converts to the timer that counts in seconds.
It is key to note that when enumerated as T4:0 ACC, it is ascribed as an Accumulator address.
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Which of the following best describes empathy?
the understanding of the feelings and beliefs of others
the lack of pride or boastfulness
the courage to speak up with one’s ideas
the possession of honesty and high morals
Answer:
the first one is the correct answer
Answer:
the first one would be correct
Explanation:
R = 4MN and C= 0.75μF.
v(0)
v¡(t) = −t²V for 0s ≤ t ≤ 5s. What is the value of v
at time t = 5s, if v (0)
5s, if = 0? You can assume the
operational amplifier behaves as an ideal op amp with
power supplies of +15V and −15V. Give your answer
in volts, and omit the units from your answer.
Answer:
45.9m
Explanation:
Given parameters:
Final velocity = 30m/s
Initial velocity = 0m/s
Unknown:
Height of fall = ?
Solution:
The motion equation to solve this problem is given below;
V² = U² + 2gH
V² = 0 + (2 x 9.8 x H)
Discuss the major requirements of an EMS under ISO 14001.
the major requirements of an EMS under ISO 14001: Environmental Policy, Planning, Implementation and Operation, etc.
ISO 14001 is an internationally recognized standard for environmental management systems (EMS). It sets out the criteria for an organization to establish, implement, maintain, and continually improve an EMS. The major requirements of an EMS under ISO 14001 include:
1. Environmental Policy: The organization must establish and communicate a clear environmental policy that outlines its commitment to environmental performance and compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
2. Planning: The organization needs to identify and assess its environmental aspects and impacts, set environmental objectives and targets, and develop action plans to achieve them. This includes considering legal and other requirements, as well as emergency preparedness and response.
3. Implementation and Operation: The organization must establish and document the processes and procedures necessary to achieve its environmental objectives. This includes defining roles and responsibilities, providing appropriate resources, and establishing communication and training programs.
4. Checking and Corrective Action: Regular monitoring and measurement of environmental performance are required to ensure compliance and identify opportunities for improvement. Non-conformities, incidents, and corrective actions need to be documented and addressed in a timely manner.
5. Management Review: Top management must review the EMS at planned intervals to ensure its continuing suitability, adequacy, and effectiveness. This involves reviewing the organization's environmental policy, objectives, targets, and progress towards achieving them.
6. Continual Improvement: The organization should continually strive to improve its environmental performance. This includes setting objectives for improvement, implementing initiatives to reduce environmental impacts, and promoting pollution prevention and sustainable practices.
It is important to note that the specific requirements of ISO 14001 may vary depending on the nature of the organization, its size, and its environmental context. Organizations are encouraged to tailor their EMS to their unique circumstances while meeting the overall requirements of the ISO 14001 standard.
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gasoline has a comparatively high btu per galloon rating around?
Answer:
116,090 Btus
Explanation:
In the mesh created, you should have 1000 elements and 1111 nodes. How many values will Fluent have to determine directly by solving a system of algebraic equations? Please input answers as an integer (eg. 1, or 80, or 150, etc.).
Whenever 1000 elements and 1111 nodes are created, the Fluent will have a total of 20 values.
What are algebraic equations?An algebraic equation, also known as a polynomial equation, is a mathematical equation of the form P=0, where P is a polynomial with coefficients in some field, most commonly the field of rational numbers.
The number of elements along the x direction is m, and the number of elements along the y direction is n.
So,
m × n = 1000 ( Elements)
m × n + m + n + 1 = 1111 (Nodes)
m + n = 1000
If m = 100 then n = 10. These values satisfy both the equations.
Each element will now have one velocity, pressure, or temperature component. So, for each case, there will be 1000 algebraic simultaneous equations.
Thus, 20 values will be the answer.
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you should select the aws filter plate number based on the welding process. group of answer choices true false
This is a true statement: you should choose the AWS filter plate number based on the welding process.
What does the AWS do welding?The AWS Certified Welder Program makes it possible to transfer welder qualifications from one company to another without having to retest. The standard specifies how employers should implement the program as well as the minimum requirements for welder participation.
The American Welding Society's codes, specifications, recommended practices, methods, classifications, and guides are all voluntary consensus standards that were created in accordance with the American National Standards Institute's guidelines. The provisions of AWS standards carry the full legal authority of the statute when they are incorporated into or made a part of documents that are included in federal, state, or other governmental bodies' regulations. Before they can be incorporated into those laws and regulations, any modifications to those AWS standards must first be approved by the governmental body with statutory jurisdiction.
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Which statement best describes how power and work are related?
O A. Power is the ability to do more work with less force.
O B. Power is a measure of how quickly work is done.
O C. Power and work have the same unit of measurement
O D. Power is the amount of work needed to overcome friction.
Pls answer quick
B
a jsdnjwevhfgruewbkuwygru
Problem 18.119 The slender bars each weigh 4 lb and are 10 in. long. The homogenous plate weighs 10 11. If the system is released from rest in the position shown, what is the angular acceleration of the bars at that instant? 450 . 8 in 40 in
To solve this problem, we need to apply the principles of rotational dynamics. The bars and plate will rotate about the pivot point at the top of the system. The moment of inertia of the system can be calculated as the sum of the moments of inertia of the bars and the plate. Using the parallel axis theorem, we find that the moment of inertia of each bar is 1/3(4 lb)(10 in)^2 + (4 lb)(8 in)^2 = 160/3 lb-in^2. The moment of inertia of the plate is 1/12(10 lb)(40 in)^2 = 1333.33 lb-in^2. Therefore, the total moment of inertia of the system is 160/3 lb-in^2 + 160/3 lb-in^2 + 1333.33 lb-in^2 = 1813.33 lb-in^2.
To find the angular acceleration of the bars, we can use the equation torque = moment of inertia * angular acceleration. The only torque acting on the system is due to the weight of the bars and plate. The weight of each bar is 4 lb, so the total weight of the bars is 8 lb. The weight of the plate is 10 lb. The total weight of the system is 18 lb. The weight acts at a distance of 8 in from the pivot point for each bar and 20 in for the plate. Therefore, the total torque is (8 lb)(8 in) + (10 lb)(20 in) = 216 lb-in.
Substituting these values into the equation torque = moment of inertia * angular acceleration, we have 216 lb-in = (1813.33 lb-in^2) * angular acceleration. Solving for the angular acceleration, we get angular acceleration = 0.119 rad/s^2. Therefore, the angular acceleration of the bars at that instant is 0.119 rad/s^2.
To find the angular acceleration of the slender bars, which weigh 4 lb each and are 10 inches long, when the system is released from rest, we need to apply Newton's second law for rotation. The homogenous plate weighs 10 lb, and the dimensions given are 8 inches and 40 inches. Assuming a moment of inertia for slender bars and the homogenous plate, calculate the net torque on the system. Then, divide the net torque by the total moment of inertia to obtain the angular acceleration. However, due to missing details in the problem statement, such as the angular relationship between the bars and the plate, it is impossible to provide an exact numerical answer.
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4. 7 Problems in this exercise assume that the logic blocks used to implement a processor's datapath have the following latencies: Mom/ Register D. Mom File 250ps 150 ps ALU Adder 25ps 200 ps 150ps Single Register Register gate Read Setup 5ps 30ps 20ps Sign extend Control 50ps 50ps "Register read" is the time needed after the rising clock edge for the new register value to appear on the output. This value applies to the PC only. "Register setup" is the amount of time a register's data input must be stable before the rising edge of the clock. This value applies to both the PC and Register File. 4. 7. 1 (5) <$4. 4> What is the latency of an R-type instruction (1. E. , how long must the clock period be to ensure that this instruction works correctly)? 4. 7. 2 [10] <$4. 4> What is the latency of ld? (Check your answer carefully. Many students place extra muxes on the critical path. ) 4. 7. 3 [10] <$4. 4> What is the latency of sd? (Check your answer carefully. Many students place extra muxes on the critical path. ) 4. 7. 4 (5) <84. 4> What is the latency of beq? 4. 7. 5 (5) <$4. 4> What is the latency of an I-type instruction? 4. 7. 6 (5) <$4. 4> What is the minimum clock period for this CPU?
The minimum clock period for this CPU should be at least 345 ps.
To determine the latencies and clock period requirements for different instructions in the given exercise, we will consider the provided values for the logic block latencies.
4.7.1:
The latency of an R-type instruction refers to the time required for the instruction to complete its execution. In this case, the R-type instruction consists of register read, ALU operation, and register write. From the given values, we can determine the total latency by summing the latencies of the logic blocks involved:
Latency = Register Read + ALU Adder + Register Write
Latency = 150 ps + 25 ps + 150 ps
Latency = 325 ps
Therefore, the clock period should be at least 325 ps to ensure the correct execution of an R-type instruction.
4.7.2:
The latency of ld (load) instruction represents the time required to complete the load operation, which involves register read, sign extension, ALU operation, and register write. Adding up the latencies of the involved logic blocks:
Latency = Register Read + Sign Extend + ALU Adder + Register Write
Latency = 150 ps + 20 ps + 25 ps + 150 ps
Latency = 345 ps
Thus, the clock period should be at least 345 ps for the correct execution of the ld instruction.
4.7.3:
Similar to the ld instruction, the sd (store) instruction involves register read, sign extension, ALU operation, and register write. Adding up the latencies:
Latency = Register Read + Sign Extend + ALU Adder + Register Write
Latency = 150 ps + 20 ps + 25 ps + 150 ps
Latency = 345 ps
The clock period should be at least 345 ps for the correct execution of the sd instruction.
4.7.4:
The latency of beq (branch equal) instruction involves register read, ALU operation, and control logic. Summing up the latencies:
Latency = Register Read + ALU Adder + Control
Latency = 150 ps + 25 ps + 50 ps
Latency = 225 ps
A clock period of at least 225 ps is required for the correct execution of the beq instruction.
4.7.5:
The I-type instruction refers to the load and store instructions (ld and sd). Since we have already determined their latencies in previous questions:
I-type Instruction Latency = Latency of ld or sd = 345 ps
4.7.6:
The minimum clock period for this CPU would be equal to the highest latency among all the instructions. From the previous calculations, the highest latency is 345 ps.
Therefore, the minimum clock period for this CPU should be at least 345 ps.
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draw the flowchart or write the pseudocode for an application that allows a bowler to enter scores for three bowling games and then displays the average.
The pseudocode for an application that allows a bowler to enter scores for three bowling games and then displays the average is stated below;.
What does pseudocode mean?
Pseudocode is a made-up, unofficial computer language that aids in the creation of algorithms by programmers. Pseudocode, as used in computer science, is a straightforward explanation of an algorithm's or another system's stages.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int score1, score2, score3, averageScore;
cout << "Enter the bowler's score for the 1st game: ";
cin >> score1;
cout << "Enter the bowler's score for the 2nd game: ";
cin >> score2;
cout << "Enter the bowler's score for the 3rd game: ";
cin >> score3;
The averageScore = (score1 + score2 + score3) / 3;
cout << "The bowler's average score is :";
cout << averageScore << endl;
return 0;
}
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Design a circuit that can convert a 50Hz triangular wave with 1V peak into a TTL-compatible pulse wave with fundamental frequency of 50Hz. Draw the input-output waveforms vs. time.
The given triangular waveform with 50 Hz frequency and 1 V peak is to be converted into a TTL-compatible pulse waveform with fundamental frequency 50 Hz. TTL-compatible pulse waveform has high and low voltage levels of 5 V and 0 V respectively.
The basic idea of conversion is to compare the input triangular waveform with a reference voltage level of 2.5 V (halfway between 5 V and 0 V) and create a pulse waveform such that output is high (5 V) when the input waveform is above 2.5 V and low (0 V) when the input waveform is below 2.5 V.
Here, we can use a simple NAND gate.The logic gate will produce a high output (5 V) only when both its inputs are low (0 V). Therefore, we can connect the comparator output to one input of the NAND gate and a 5 V source to the other input of the NAND gate. This will give a high output when the input waveform is below 2.5 V and low output when the input waveform is above 2.5 V. Thus, we will get a TTL-compatible pulse waveform.The circuit diagram is as shown below:And the input-output waveforms are shown below:
Therefore, we have successfully designed a circuit that can convert a 50 Hz triangular wave with 1V peak into a TTL-compatible pulse wave with a fundamental frequency of 50Hz.
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Creating a full page of the same label would be most helpful for which task?
printing a different address directly on several envelopes
sending mail to several people using the same return address
printing the same return address directly on several envelopes
sending mail to several people without including a return address
Creating a full page of the same label would be most helpful for this task: B. sending mail to several people using the same return address.
What is an e-mail?In Computer technology, an e-mail is an abbreviation for electronic mail and it can be defined as a software application or program that is designed and developed to enable users exchange (send and receive) both text-based and multimedia messages (electronic messages) over the Internet.
Generally speaking, a full page that has the same label should be adopted or employed when an end user wishes to send an electronic message (e-mail) to several people while utilizing the same return address.
In this context, we can reasonably infer and logically deduce that a technique which requires the creation of a full page with the same label is a situation where an electronic message (e-mail) is sent to several people while using the same return address.
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I will rate 5 stars/brainliest if you help me!!! A company produces A, B, and C and can sell these products in unlimited quantities at the following unit prices: A, $10; B, $56; C, $100. Producing a unit of A requires 1 hour of labor; a unit of B, 2 hours of labor plus 2 units of A; and a unit of C, 3 hours of labor plus 1 unit of B. Any A that is used to produce B cannot be sold. Similarly, any B that is used to produce C cannot be sold. A total of 40 hours of labor are available. Formulate an LP to maximize the company’s revenues. (Please solve the LP with Lindo or Excel).
Answer: 0
Explanation: i need to add it up to get what u want
In each of the scenarios, two spheres of the same size and shape hang from a common attachment point. Each sphere is electrically charged and is either perfectly conductive or perfectly insulating (gray is conductive, orange is insulating). The magnitude of charge Q is greater than the magnitude of charge q.
Each pair of spheres is allowed to swing freely and comes to rest in some equilibrium position. In each scenario, determine whether the spheres come to rest in contact, or separated by some distance. Assume that the weight of the spheres is small enough that electrostatic forces are significant.
Spheres come to rest in contact:
- both gray, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges +Q and -q
- gray, charge -Q, orange, chargef +q
Spheres come to rest separated
- both gray, +Q and +q
- both gray, -Q and +q
- both orange, -q and -Q
Spheres come to rest in contact:
- both gray, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges +Q and -q
- gray, charge -Q, orange, chargef +q
Spheres come to rest separated
- both gray, +Q and +q
- both gray, -Q and +q
- both orange, -q and -Q
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The weight of the spheres is small enough that electrostatic forces are significant. Spheres come to rest in contact:
- both gray, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges -q and +q
- both orange, charges +Q and -q
- gray, charge -Q, orange, charge f +q
Spheres come to rest separated
- both gray, +Q and +q
- both gray, -Q and +q
- both orange, -q and -Q
Where can electrostatic force be found?The distance between two charges creates an electrostatic force. The distance between two charges and their respective magnitudes determine the magnitude of the electrostatic force. When two charges, either positive or negative, are brought together, they repel one another.
What is electrostatics?The phenomena and properties of electric charges that are either stationary or moving slowly are the focus of the physics branch known as electrostatics. Coulomb's law describes electrostatic phenomena, which are caused by the forces that electric charges exert on one another.
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What refrigeration control device is used to make sure that the bearings in a compressor are receiving proper lubrication
A Thermostat refrigeration control device is used to make sure that the bearings in a compressor are receiving proper lubrication.
What are refrigerant manipulate devices?A tool for controlling the waft of refrigerant to the circuits of a multi-circuit evaporator in a refrigeration system, comprising an orifice plate having a refrigerant enlargement orifice and a distributor plate having passages into which interchangeable metering jets are inserted.
The thermostat controls the cooling system by tracking the temperature after which switching the compressor on and off. When the sensor senses that it is bloodless sufficient internal a refrigerator, it turns off the compressor. If it senses an excessive amount of heat, it switches the compressor on and starts off evolving the cooling system again.
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What can make a fan that is propeller is not running again
The following scores represent the final examination grade for an elementary statistics course:-
23 60 79 32 57 74 52 70 82 36 80 77 81 95 41 65 92 85 55 76 52 10 64 75 78 25 80 63 98 74 80
81 67 41 71 83 54 64 72 88 62 74 43 60 78 89 76 84 48 84 90 15 79 34 67 17 82 69 80 85 61 62
i.Find its Mean, Median, and Mode (Use first 10 observations)
ii.Make a grouped frequency distribution of this data and again calculate Mean, Median, and Mode.
The answer of the following statistics course will be:
i. Mean: 64.7
Median: 67
Mode: 70
ii. Mean: 69.4
Median: 72
Mode: 76
What is statistics?
Statistics is the study of data gathering, organisation, analysis, interpretation, and presentation. It is customary to begin with a statistical population or a statistical model to be researched when applying statistics to a scientific, industrial, or social problem. Populations can refer to many groupings of people or objects, such as "all people in a country" or "every atom in a crystal." Statistics is concerned with all aspects of data, including data collection planning in the form of survey and experiment design.
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The steel shaft has a diameter of 40 mm and is fixed at its ends A and B . If it is subjected to the couple determine the maximum shear stress in regions AC and CB of the shaft. G st = 75 GPa.
Q6/
Answer:
See explanation.
Explanation:
Since no figure was given I solved a problem that was similar to the one you described that I worked in my mechanics of materials class. The method should be very similar for your figure. See attached image for my work.
If it is subjected to the couple determine the maximum shear stress in regions AC and CB of the shaft. G st = 75 GPa. Than the answer will be 52Mpa.
What we need to perform?We need to perform a two step process to obtain the maximum shear stress on the shaft. For the solid shaft,
P=2×pi×N×T/60 or T=60×p/2×pi×N
Where P=power transmitted by the shaft=50×10³W
N=rotation speed of the shaft in rpm=730rpm
Pi=3.142
T is the twisting moment
By substituting the values for pi, N and P, we get
T=654Nm or 654×10³Nmm
Also, T=pi×rho×d³/16 or rho=16×T/pi×d³
Where rho=maximum shear stress
T = twisting moment=654×10³Nmm
d= diameter of shaft= 40mm
By substituting T, pi and d
Rho=52Mpa
b. For a hollow shaft, the value for rho is unknown
T=pi×rho(do⁴-di⁴/do)/16
Rho=T×16×do/pi×(do⁴-di⁴)
Where
T= twisting moment=654×10³Nmm gotten above
do=outside shaft diawter=40mm
di= inside shaft diameter =30mm
Pi=3.142
Substituting values for pi, do, di and T.
Rho=76Mpa
Therefore, If it is subjected to the couple determine the maximum shear stress in regions AC and CB of the shaft. G st = 75 GPa. Than the answer will be 52Mpa.
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A sandy soil has a natural water content of 12% and bulk unit weight of 18.8 kN/m3 . The void ratios corresponding to the densest state (emin) and loosest state (emax) of this soil are 0.48 and 0.88, respectively. Find the relative density and degree of saturation for this soil.
Answer:
The value of relative density is 75 % while that of degree of saturation is 54.82%.
Explanation:
Given Data:
Bulk density of Sandy Soil=\(\gamma_b=18.8\ kN/m^3\)
Void Ratio in Densest state=\(e_{max}=0.88\)
Void Ratio in Loosest state=\(e_{min}=0.48\)
Water content=\(w=12\%\)
To Find:
Relative Density=\(D_R=\dfrac{e_{max}-e}{e_{max}-e_{min}} \times 100 \%\)
Degree of Saturation=\(S=\dfrac{w\times G_s}{e}\)
Now all the other values are given except e. e is calculated as follows
e is termed as In situ void ratio and is given as
\(e=\dfrac{\gamma_w \times G_s-\gamma_d}{\gamma_d}\)
Here
γ_w is the density of water whose value is 1
G_s is the constant whose value is 2.65
γ_d is the dry density of the sandy soil which is calculated as follows:
\(\gamma_d=\dfrac{\gamma_b}{1+\dfrac{w}{100}}\)
Putting values
\(\gamma_d=\dfrac{18.8}{1+\dfrac{12}{100}}\\\gamma_d=16.78\ kN/m^3=1.678 g/cc \\\)
Putting this value in the equation of e gives
\(e=\dfrac{1 \times 2.65-1.678}{1.678}\\e=0.579=0.58\)
So the value of Relative density is given as
\(D_R=\dfrac{e_{max}-e}{e_{max}-e_{min}} \times 100 \%\\D_R=\dfrac{0.88-0.58}{0.88-0.48} \times 100 \%\\D_R=75 \%\)
So the value of relative density is 75 %
Now the value of degree of saturation is given as
\(S=\dfrac{w\times G_s}{e}\\S=\dfrac{12\times 2.65}{0.58}\\S=54.82 \%\)
The value of degree of saturation is 54.82%.
Answer:
The relative density = 0.83 which is equivalent to 83%
The degree of saturation, S = 0.58 which gives 58% saturation
Explanation:
The parameters given are;
Water content W% = 12%
Bulk unit weight, γ = 18.8 kN/m³
Void ratio of \(e_{min}\) = 0.48
Void ratio of \(e_{max}\) = 0.88
\(G_S\) = Constant (As learnt from an answer to the question on the current page) = 2.65 for Sandy soil
\(\gamma =\dfrac{W}{V} = \dfrac{W_{w}+W_{s}}{V}\)
Where, V = 1 m³
W = 18.8 KN
Bulk unit weight, γ = \(\gamma_d\) × (1 + W)
∴ 18.8 = \(\gamma_d\) × (1 + 0.12)
\(\gamma_d\) = 18.8/ (1.12) = 16.79 kN/m³
\(\gamma_d =\dfrac{W_s}{V} = \dfrac{W_{s}}{1} = 16.79 \, kN/m^3\)
\(W_s\) = 16.79 kN
∴ \(W_w\) = 18.8 kN - 16.79 kN = 2.01 kN
\(m_w = 2.01/9.81 = 0.205 \, kg\)
Volume of water = 0.205 m³
\(\gamma = \dfrac{GS \times \gamma _{w}\times \left (1+w \right )}{1 + e} = \dfrac{GS \times 9.81\times \left (1+0.12 \right )}{1 + e} =18.8\)
e + 1 = 0.58×GS = 0.58×2.65 =
e = 1.54 - 1 = 0.55
The relative density is given by the relation;
\(Relative \ density, Dr=\dfrac{e_{max} - e}{e_{max} - e_{min}}\)
\(Relative \ density, Dr=\dfrac{0.88 - e}{0.88 - 0.48} = \dfrac{0.88 - 0.55}{0.4} = 0.83\)
The relative density = 0.83
The relative density in percentage = 0.83×100 = 83%
S·e = GS×w = 0.12·2.65
S×0.55 = 0.318
The degree of saturation, S = 0.58
The degree of saturation, S in percentage = 58%.
a continuous-time system has the input/output relationshipwhere x(t) is the input and y(t) is the output. determine the impulse response h(t) of the system. [make sure your answer includes both t<0 and t>
The correct answer is Without any information about the input/output relationship, it is impossible to determine the impulse response of the system.
However, given an input signal x(t) and its corresponding output signal y(t), the impulse response h(t) can be found using the convolution integral:h(t) = 1/|x(τ)| ∫ x(τ) y(t-τ) dτ where |x(τ)| is the magnitude of the input signal at time τ.Alternatively, if the transfer function of the system is known, the impulse response can be found by taking the inverse Laplace transform of the transfer function.In any case, the impulse response h(t) will be a function of time for both t<0 and t>0, since it represents the system's response to a brief impulse input at any point in time.
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Participating in extracurricular activities in high school helps:
Answer:
Develop social skills
Explanation:
Answer:
strengthen your college applications
Explanation:
The electron concentration in silicon at T = 300 K is given by
n(x) = 10^16exp(-x/18) cm^-3
where x is measured in μm and is limited to 0 ≤ x ≤ 25 μm. The electron diffusion coefficient is Dn = 25 cm2/s and the electron mobility is μn = 960 cm2/V-s. The total electron current density through the semiconductor is constant and equal to Jn = -40 A/cm2. The electron current has both diffusion and drift current components. Determine the electric field as a function of x which must exist in the semiconductor.
Answer:
\(E=1.44*10^-7-2.6exp(\frac{-x}{18} )v/m\)
Explanation:
From the question we are told that:
Temperature of silicon \(T=300k\)
Electron concentration \(n(x)=10^{16}\exp (\frac{-x}{18})\)
\(\frac{dn}{dx}=(10^{16} *(\frac{-1}{16})\exp\frac{-x}{16})\)
Electron diffusion coefficient is \(Dn = 25cm^2/s \approx 2.5*10^{-3}\)
Electron mobility is \(\mu n = 960 cm^2/V-s \approx0.096m/V\)
Electron current density \(Jn = -40 A/cm^2 \approx -40*10^{4}A/m^2\)
Generally the equation for the semiconductor is mathematically given by
\(Jn=qb_n\frac{dn}{dx}+nq \mu E\)
Therefore
\(-40*10^{4}=1.6*10^{-19} *(2.5*10^{-3})*(10^{16} *(\frac{-1}{16})\exp\frac{-x}{16})+(10^{16}\exp (\frac{-x}{18}))*1.6*10^{-19}*0.096* E\)
\(E=\frac{-2.5*10^-^7 exp(\frac{-x}{18})+40*10^{4}}{1.536*10^-4exp(\frac{-x}{18} )}\)
\(E=1.44*10^-7-2.6exp(\frac{-x}{18} )v/m\)
True or False? A constricting nozzle is used
to create, concentrate, and direct the high-
velocity plasma.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Principles of plasma arc cutting, Uses a constricting nozzle to create, concentrate, and direct the high-velocity plasma. Plasma gas is always used
in plasma arc cutting When shielding gas is also used, the process is called dual flow plasma arc cutting. I hope this helps.
Explain three functional elements of measurement
Answer:
i) Primary sensing element.
ii) Variable conversion element.
iii) Variable manipulation element.
Explanation:
Answer:
The main functional elements of a measurement system are:
i) Primary sensing element.
ii) Variable conversion element.
iii) Variable manipulation element.
v) Data transmission element.
A 1.2 newton block is dropped A 1.2 Newton block is dropped downward from a tall cliff. What is the magnitude and direction
of the force of air friction on the block when it reaches its terminal velocity?
1.2 newtons upward
1.2 newtons downward
0.12 newtons upward
0.12 newtons downward
Answer:
1.2 Newtons upwards
Explanation:
because the friction is opposite of the magnitude.
Which option justifies the choice made in the following scenario?
Eli is an environmental engineer. He has recently designed a printer. Instead of plastic, a nonrecyclable material, he has chosen to design the printer using types of metal. It is more costly, but he plans to set up a recycling program where parts from the printer can be reused in the production of future printers.
✔️The material he chose is renewable but will increase costs with his recycling program.
✔️The material he chose is nonrenewable but can be used in future products to reduce costs.
✔️The material he chose is nonrenewable and will increase costs with his recycling program.
✔️The material he chose is renewable and is much better for the environment.
The fact that Eli plans to set up a recycling program made him choose D. The material he chose is renewable and is much better for the environment.
What is recycling?It should be noted that recycling simply means the process of collecting and processing materials that can be turned into another product.
Therefore, the material he chose is renewable and is much better for the environment and thus influenced his decision.
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