A soup can has a height of 14 cm and a top radius of 5 cm. What is the area of the label?

15. Find the area of the shaded ring below. Round your answer to one decimal place.



16. The large circle below has a diameter of 12 m. What is the area of the non-shaded region? Round your answer to one decimal place.

Image below

Answer:

m<8 = 130

m<6 = 130

m<7 = 50

m<11 = 65

m<15 = 65

m<10 = 65

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 7/30

Step-by-step explanation:

3 - (1 1/6 + 3/5) =

3 - (1 5/30 + 18/30) =

3 - 1 23/30 =

1 7/30

Hope that helps!

Answer:

\(\sf 1. \quad \dfrac{3}{8}\)

\(\sf 2. \quad \dfrac{7}{24}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Spinner 1 is divided into 6 congruent sections.

There are 3 red sections, 2 blue sections and 1 yellow section.

Therefore, the probability of spinning each of the three colors is:

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(R_1)=\dfrac{3}{6}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(B_1)=\dfrac{2}{6}=\dfrac{1}{3}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(Y_1)=\dfrac{1}{6}\)

Spinner 2 is divided into 3 sections of differing sizes.

The red section is half of the spinner. The blue and yellow sections are quarters of the spinner.

Therefore, the probability of spinning each of the three colors is:

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{2}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

    \(\bullet \quad \sf P(Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

If each spinner is spun once, then:

The probability that both spinners both show red is:

\(\sf P(R_1)\;and\;P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{2} \times \dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}\)

The probability that both spinners both show blue is:

\(\sf P(B_1)\;and\;P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{3} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{12}\)

The probability that both spinners both show yellow is:

\(\sf P(Y_1)\;and\;P(Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{6} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{24}\)

Therefore, the probability that both spinners show the same colour is:

\(\sf P(R_1\;\&\;R_2)\;or\;P(B_1\;\&\;B_2)\;or\;P(Y_1\;\&\;Y_2)=\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{12}+\dfrac{1}{24}=\dfrac{9}{24}=\dfrac{3}{8}\)

If each spinner is spun once, the probability of getting a red from spinner 1 and a blue from spinner 2 is:

\(\sf P(R_1)\;and\;P(B_2)=\dfrac{1}{2} \times \dfrac{1}{4}=\dfrac{1}{8}\)

The probability of getting a blue from spinner 1 and a red from spinner 2 is:

\(\sf P(B_1)\;and\;P(R_2)=\dfrac{1}{3} \times \dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{6}\)

Therefore, the probability of getting a red-blue combination is:

\(\sf P(R_1\;\&\;B_2)\;or\;P(B_1\;\&\;R_2)=\dfrac{1}{8}+\dfrac{1}{6}=\dfrac{7}{24}\)

According to the Pythagorean theorem, The Answer is Yes the third side is greater than 1 foot.

A right triangle is one that has an interior angle of 90 degrees. The hypotenuse, which is also the side of the right triangle that faces the right angle, is its longest side. The height and base make up the two arms of the right angle.

The Pythagorean theorem, sometimes known as Pythagoras' theorem, is a basic relationship between a right triangle's three sides in Euclidean geometry. According to this statement, the areas of the squares on the other two sides add up to the size of the square whose side is the hypotenuse.

p=1 foot

b=1 foot

\(h^{2} = p ^{2} + b ^{2}\)

\(h=\sqrt {1^{2}+1^{2}}\\=\sqrt 2\\=1.41\\\)

To learn more about right angle triangle visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2773823

#SPJ4

Answer:

17.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Compound interest calculator. Here's how to use NerdWallet's calculator to determine how much your money can grow with compound interest

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The expression that can be used to approximate the expression "logax" for all positive numbers a, b, and x, where a=1 and b=1 is:

log1x = 0

He will use 9.375 acres of the land for the park

A fraction is used to represent the portion/part of the whole thing. It represents the equal parts of the whole.

Since the land is 21.5 acres and 0.75 of the land  was used for a park. we can write:

acres used for the park = 0.75 × 12.5 = 9.375 acres

Thus, he will use 9.375 acres for the park

Learn more about fractions on:

brainly.com/question/11562149

#SPJ1

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

7.70-1.70=6

84/6=14

The sample size needed to be 99​% confident that the sample proportion will not differ from the true proportion by more than ​4% is given as follows:

n = 1037.

A confidence interval of proportions has the bounds given by the rule presented as follows:

\(\pi \pm z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

In which the variables used to calculated these bounds are listed as follows:

The margin of error is given as follows:

\(M = z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

The confidence level is of 99%, hence the critical value z is the value of Z that has a p-value of \(\frac{1+0.99}{2} = 0.995\), so the critical value is z = 2.575.

As we have no estimate, the parameter is given as follows:

\(\pi = 0.5\)

Then the sample size for M = 0.04 is obtained as follows:

\(M = z\sqrt{\frac{\pi(1-\pi)}{n}}\)

\(0.04 = 2.575\sqrt{\frac{0.5(0.5)}{n}}\)

\(0.04\sqrt{n} = 2.575 \times 0.5\)

\(\sqrt{n} = \frac{2.575 \times 0.5}{0.04}\)

\((\sqrt{n})^2 = \left(\frac{2.575 \times 0.5}{0.04}\right)^2\)

n = 1037.

More can be learned about the z-distribution at https://brainly.com/question/25890103

#SPJ1

The number of gallons is 4.1

From the information given, we have that;

1 gallon of paint is equivalent to 150 square feet

Since we have 2 doors, the area of a rectangular prism is

Area = lw

Area =20(15)

Area = 300 (2) = 600 ft²

For the window, we have;

Area = 3(5) = 15

The total area of the wall is;

Total area = 615 ft²

Then, if;

1 gallon = 150 square feet

x = 615  square feet

cross multiply

x = 4. 1 gallons

Learn more about area at: https://brainly.com/question/25292087

#SPJ1

Answer:

There would be points in the following coordinates:

(3, -6); (1, -5); (2, -8); & (-1,-7).

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I don't know how to do it...

Answer:

167

Step-by-step explanation:

you take 134 divide by seven by both sides and then you can use a counculator for the rest

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the distance between points A and B, we can use trigonometry and the given information.

Let's label the distance between A and B as "d". We know that point C is 94.4 meters away from point A. From angle A, we have the measure of 72°, and from angle C, we have the measure of 30°.

Using trigonometry, we can use the tangent function to find the value of "d".

tan(72°) = d / 94.4

To solve for "d", we can rearrange the equation:

d = tan(72°) * 94.4

Using a calculator, we can evaluate the expression:

d ≈ 4.345 * 94.4

d ≈ 408.932

Therefore, the distance between points A and B is approximately 408.932 meters.

If the commercial banking system actually lends out the maximum amount it is able to lend, the excess reserves will be reduced to zero. This is because there will be no excess reserves held by the commercial banking system after lending out $9 billion.

Given that the required reserve ratio is 30 percent and all figures are in billions, the following table shows the total reserves, excess reserves, and required reserves:

Required reserve ratio 30% Checkable deposits $140Billion Reserves required (30% of checkable deposits)$42Billion Reserves held $51Billion Excess reserves held $9Billion Loans outstanding $109Billion Total Securities $100Billion Total Property $10Billion Total Assets $260Billion Stock shares $130Billion Total liabilities $130Billion Net worth (total assets - total liabilities) $130Billion.

Therefore, the total reserves held is $51 billion, and the reserves required is 30% of $140 billion, which is $42 billion.

This implies that the excess reserves are $9 billion.The maximum amount the commercial banking system can lend out is $51 billion minus $42 billion, which is $9 billion.

This indicates that if the commercial banking system actually lends out the maximum amount it is able to lend, the excess reserves will be reduced to zero. This is because there will be no excess reserves held by the commercial banking system after lending out $9 billion.

For more such questions on commercial banking system, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/29638417

#SPJ8

The value of square root n is 6.7, means value lies between 6 and 7.

Square each side of expression to obtain the range for n.

Answer:

4 pizza's

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps :)

Answer:

GCF: 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's test

50 ( 5 + 6)

= 250 + 300

So, my answer is correct!

1.5 es la respuesta!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

503

Step-by-step explanation:

503+(-3.5(60)) equals 293

The first term of the arithmetic sequence is 503.

The sequence in which every next number is the addition of the constant quantity in the series is termed the arithmetic progression

A number series is a number-based sequence. In the number series questions, we must identify the rules that lead to the formation of a number series.

Given that the arithmetic sequence in which a61= 293 and the common difference is -3.5.

The first term will be calculated as,

a₆₁ = a₁ + d(n-1)

a₁ = a₆₁ + 3.5( 60 )

a₁ = 293 + 210  

a₁ = 503

Hence, the first term will be a₁ = 503.

To know more about arithmetic progression follow

https://brainly.com/question/6561461

#SPJ5

Answer: x = √-6 - 4

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2+8x+22=0

(x+4)^2 - 16 + 22 = 0

(x+4)^2 + 6 = 0

(x+4)^2 = -6

√(x+4)^2 = √-6

x = √-6 - 4            

√6 = 2.449

Answer:

Median = 13&14

&

1st Quartile=24

Step-by-step explanation:

Think it Helped U

Answer:

Answer 1008

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

See image below:)

Answer:

The cost of one share of the stock on Friday is $41.45

Step-by-step explanation:

The initial cost of one share of the stock on Monday is $41.45.

On Tuesday, the cost goes up by $0.58, so the cost becomes:

$41.45 + $0.58 = $42.03

On Wednesday, the cost goes down by $0.26, so the cost becomes:

$42.03 - $0.26 = $41.77

On Thursday, the cost also goes down by $0.26, so the cost becomes:

$41.77 - $0.26 = $41.51

Finally, on Friday, the cost goes down by $0.06.

So the expression to represent the cost of one share of the stock on Friday is:

$41.51 - $0.06

To evaluate this expression, we simply subtract $0.06 from $41.51:

$41.51 - $0.06 = $41.45

Therefore, the cost of one share of the stock on Friday is $41.45

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

  Statements:                                              Reasons:

1) \(\angle 2\cong\angle 3\)                                                    Given

2) \(m\angle2=m\angle 3\)                                             Definition of Congruence

3) \(\angle 1\text{ and } \angle 2\text{ form a linear pair}\)                   Given

4) \(\angle 1 \text{ and } \angle 2\text{ are supplementary}\)                  Supplement Theorem

5) \(m\angle 1+m\angle 2=180^\circ\)                                 Definition of Supplementary Angles

6) \(m\angle 1+m\angle 3=180&^\circ\)                                 Substitution

7) \(\angle 1\text{ and } \angle 3 \text{ are supplementary}\)                 Definition of Supplementary

And we're done!