Answers
Instructions that must be given by the nurse before the client starts taking medication at home for the treatment of glaucoma are Perform hand hygiene immediately before administering the medication. because hand hygiene is the main thing when giving eye medication because there is a high probability of entry of microorganisms into the eye and it is forbidden to touch the eye. (A)
What is Glaucoma?Glaucoma is damage to the optic nerve due to high pressure inside the eyeball. This condition is characterized by pain in the eyes, red eyes, blurred vision, and nausea and vomiting. Glaucoma needs to be treated immediately to prevent blindness.
Glaucoma consists of several types, but there are two of them that are common, namely:
Open-angle glaucoma, namely glaucoma that occurs due to partially blocked aqueous humor dispensing ductsClosed angle glaucoma, which is glaucoma that occurs because the aqueous humor drain channel is completely closedGlaucoma Symptoms and Causes
A common symptom in people with open-angle glaucoma is blurred vision. While the symptoms that often occur in closed-angle glaucoma are severe headaches, pain in the eyes, and red eyes.
The cause of glaucoma is damage to the optic nerve. This damage is generally associated with increased pressure in the eye due to the buildup of aqueous humor that flows to all parts of the eye.
Glaucoma Treatment and Prevention
Routine eye examination and treatment can avoid the risk of blindness in glaucoma sufferers.
Glaucoma cannot always be prevented, but there are efforts that can be made to maintain eye health, including:
Eat foods rich in antioxidants, vitamin A and vitamin CLimit consumption of caffeinated drinksPositioning the pillow slightly higher while sleepingExercise regularlyComplete Answer Options:
A) Perform hand hygiene immediately before administering the medication.
B) Gently touch the dropper to the medial portion of the sclera while administering.
C) Rub the eyes gently, with clean hands, after administration.
D) Perform a saline eye flush if an extra drop is accidentally instilled.
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Related Questions
During a physical assessment, a client was diagnosed with increased temperature due to an increased basal metabolic rate (BMR). Which hormonal imbalances would the client have
Answers
An increased basal metabolic rate (BMR) can be caused by a number of factors, including hormonal imbalances LIKE Hyperthyroidism; Adrenal gland disorders; Pituitary gland disorders.
Here are some hormonal imbalances that may be associated with an increased BMR:
Hyperthyroidism: This condition is caused by an overactive thyroid gland that produces too much thyroid hormone. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism can include weight loss, increased appetite, increased heart rate, and increased body temperature.
Adrenal gland disorders: The adrenal glands produce hormones that are important for regulating metabolism and responding to stress. Disorders such as Cushing's syndrome (excessive cortisol production) and pheochromocytoma (excessive adrenaline production) can cause an increased BMR.
Pituitary gland disorders: The pituitary gland produces hormones that regulate many bodily functions, including metabolism. Disorders such as acromegaly (excessive growth hormone production) and hyperprolactinemia (excessive prolactin production) can cause an increased BMR.
It's important to note that an increased BMR can also be caused by factors other than hormonal imbalances, such as fever, certain medications, and physical activity. If a client is diagnosed with an increased temperature due to an increased BMR, further testing and evaluation may be needed to determine the underlying cause.
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Which of the following is not a symptom of depression
Answers
Answer:
There are no answer choices or pictures...how am I supposed to answer this question?
Explanation:
difference between action potential of sa node and contractile myocytes
Answers
Different groups of cells depolarize at different rates. The rate of depolarization of SA node cells is faster than the rate of depolarization of AV node cells. ... If both the SA node and AV node fail, the Purkinje fibers have a modest level of automaticity (20 beats/minute) that may still reach threshold
Vitamin-_______ derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling cell growth and DNA synthesis.
A.) C
b.) K
c.) B
d.) D
Answers
Answer: c. B
Explanation:
Vitamin B derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling DNA synthesis.
Answer:
C)B
Explanation:
Vitamin-___B____ derivatives are primarily involved in reactions controlling cell growth and DNA synthesis.
Which medications have the potential to increase a patient's susceptibility to infection?
Select one or more:
a.
Immunosuppresants
b.
Antihypertensives
c.
corticosteroids
d.
Insulin
Answers
If you break it down immuno is the immune system and suppressant is bringing it down or decreasing. When you decrease your immune system you have a higher chance of getting sick
A person who eats a granola bar from a vending machine is most likely making a food choice based on: ____.
a) Habit
b) Cultural Values
c) Availability
d) Environmental concerns
e) Body image
Answers
A person who eats a granola bar from a vending machine is most likely making a food choice based on Availability.
Option (c) is correct.
When a person chooses to eat a granola bar from a vending machine, their food choice is most likely based on the availability of the product. Vending machines are commonly found in various settings, providing quick and convenient access to snacks. In this scenario, the person may have limited options and chooses the granola bar because it is readily available in the vending machine.
While other factors such as habit, cultural values, environmental concerns, and body image can influence food choices, in this specific case, the primary factor is the immediate availability of the granola bar from the vending machine.
Therefore, the correct option is (c).
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Is it possible to make emulsion with water, ethanol, and an emulsifier?
Answers
a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter s would be termed a(n)
Answers
Answer:
indirect antagonist
Explanation:
In pharmacology, an indirect agonist or indirect-acting agonist is a substance that enhances the release or action of an endogenous neurotransmitter but has no specific agonist activity at the neurotransmitter receptor itself.
A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter would be termed an antagonist.
Antagonists work by blocking the action of the neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic receptor. This can be accomplished either by directly blocking the binding site on the receptor, or by interfering with the ion channels associated with the receptor.
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Which disease or disorder occurs when the pancreas stops producing insulin?
gestational diabetes
type 1 diabetes
hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism
Answers
Answer:
type 1 diabetes.......
in the latter half of the 19th century, forensic chemists began using spectroscopy to analyze substances found at crime scenes. t/f
Answers
In the latter half of the 19th century, forensic chemists began using spectroscopy to analyze substances found at crime scenes. This statement is false (f).
Rather than in the 19th century, forensic chemists started using spectroscopy in the 20th century to examine materials discovered at crime scenes. The development of a spectrometer in the 1930s allowed for the measurement of the infrared (IR) light signal. The introduction of "organic mass spectrometry" in the 1950s, which provided additional direction for equipment users, was made possible by John H. Beynon and Fred W. McLafferty.
Then, beginning in 1959, Klaus Biemann and Carl Djerassi's research groups contributed to expanding the capabilities of mass spectrometers so they could be used to analyze natural compounds and plant extracts such as cannabis, alkaloids, and cocaine.
In 1977, the Environmental Protection Agency, or EPA, allowed the use of spectrometry data as evidence in a case involving the discovery of a pesticide in animal tissues. In a criminal homicide case the next year, a court decided to accept the results of a mass spectrometry test as evidence.
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Which respiratory treatment uses medication suspended within a mist through a mask or nebulizer?.
Answers
Answer:
Budesonide
Explanation:
Budesonide comes as a powder to inhale by mouth using an inhaler and as a suspension to inhale by mouth using a special jet nebulizer (a machine that turns medication into a mist that can be inhaled). Budesonide powder for oral inhalation is usually inhaled twice a day.
hat are the priority nursing actions you would anticipate implementing when caring for Mr. Jones and why?
Answers
Repositioning Mr. Jones in a high Fowler's position, maintaining a close watch on his O2sat levels, and vital signs, assessing for chest pain, and recommending deep breathing exercises are the top nursing interventions for Mr. Jones.
What are priority nursing actions?The various nursing interventions that I would use as a priority to care for Mr. Jones are listed below.
However, the initial step is to. Give oxygen as directed to aid in gathering vital signs. Other crucial nursing actions include: Recognizing that Mr. Jones could be dying and checking to see how strong his airways are.
Obtain Mr. Jones' critical symptoms so that you can contact him and his family if necessary. To ensure Mr. is well nourished and hydrated, start an IV line for fluid replenishment.
Therefore, administer oxygen as ordered to help in obtaining vital signs.
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When patients use ?, they sometimes need to take potassium supplements because these drugs prevent reabsorption of potassium. If patients are unable to produce their own ?, they probably have high blood sugar levels. ? can reduce the muscle contractions that cause some of the symptoms in patients with chronic gastrointestinal problems. A ? can be used to treat the high levels of stomach acid that can lead to chronic heartburn.
Answers
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg 2021
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Thiazide Drugs
2) Insulin
3) Antispasmodic Drugs
4) proton pump inhibitor
Right on Edg
Explanation:
Being consistent with toddlers
A. Reduces stress and anxiety
B. Repeats a routine or expectation so the toddler knows what to expect
C. Minimizes problems such as going to bed
D. All of the above
Answers
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Answers
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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a 58-year-old female presents to the clinic with concern for chest pain over the past three months. she describes the pain as sharp and stabbing, in the mid-sternal region, lasting for one to two minutes, occurring a few times a day. the pain can come on at rest or with exertion and resolves on its own. it has not become worse since it began. there is no associated diaphoresis, shortness of breath, nausea, jaw pain, or pain with movement, eating, or laying supine. she has a 10-year history of obesity and hypertension for which she takes chlorthalidone and lisinopril. she was recently diagnosed with diabetes that has been controlled by diet. physical examination shows her pulse is 86 beats/minute, respiration rate is 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmhg. her lungs are clear, heart sounds are normal, and there is no chest wall tenderness to palpation or abdominal tenderness. there is no peripheral edema. how would you best characterize her chest pain?
Answers
Answer:
Anxiety
Explanation:
Since there aren't any odd or unnatural events in the heart, and her diabetes and sicknesses are under control, the best guess would have to be anxiety. Also, another indicator is that this sharp pain comes on during any activity and goes away by themselves, I would believe this is anxiety.
after a complete description of the surgery, your patient indicates that he is ready to sign consent forms. how would you respond?
Answers
I would verify the patient's understanding and address any concerns before proceeding with the consent process.
How to find the appropriate response when a patient indicates readiness to sign consent forms after a complete description of the surgery?As a healthcare professional, it is essential to ensure that the patient fully comprehends the informed consent provided regarding the surgery before proceeding with the consent process.
In response to the patient's readiness to sign consent forms, I would take the following steps:
Firstly, I would engage in a conversation with the patient to verify their understanding of the surgery and address any questions or concerns they may have.
This involves actively listening to the patient, providing clarifications if needed, and encouraging them to express any reservations or uncertainties.
Secondly, I would review the consent forms with the patient, explaining the purpose, risks, benefits, alternatives, and any other relevant information related to the surgery.
This step helps to reinforce the patient's understanding and allows them to make an informed decision regarding their healthcare.
Lastly, I would provide an opportunity for the patient to ask further questions or seek additional information before signing the consent forms.
It is crucial to create an environment where the patient feels comfortable and empowered to make a well-informed decision about their treatment.
By ensuring that the patient fully understands the surgery, addressing their concerns, and allowing them to actively participate in the consent process, healthcare providers promote patient autonomy and foster a collaborative approach to their care.
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What are the three components of the helping interview?
Answers
Answer:
(1) the orientation of the professional and the client to each other, (2) theidentification of the client's problem, and (3) the resolution of the client's Problem.
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(K12) Question 1 (1 point)
How does a fungus get food?
Question 1 options:
A. both autotroph and heterotroph
B. autotroph
C. Neither. It doesn't need food!
D. heterotroph
Answers
Answer:
D. Heterotroph
Explanation:
Fungi can't make their own food/energy like plants, they must extract energy from other living or dead things.
The bacterium, E. coli, can cause food poisoning. To the chain of infection you drew, add notes to show how E. coli can spread from a reservoir (such as contaminated beef) to a susceptible host. Is this type of transmission direct or indirect?
Answers
Lifeguard Acronyms Study
Guide
Answers
A lifeguard acronyms study guide is a reference tool that lists and explains various acronyms and abbreviations used in the field of lifeguarding. It is intended to help lifeguards understand and remember important terms and phrases used in their work.
This guide contains common acronyms that are used in pool, beach, and water park lifeguarding. It includes acronyms related to pool operations, first aid, rescue techniques, and emergency response procedures. Some examples of acronyms that may be included in a lifeguard acronym study guide are BLS (basic life support), CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation), AED (automated external defibrillator), and many more. It is a useful resource for both new and experienced lifeguards to quickly and easily reference important information.
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How would you look up information about a disease and its cure if you had a disease
Answers
Answer:
You can ask from an experienced doctor or someone good in that field or you can search the internet for it
The nurse wants to demonstrate presence with a patient newly diagnosed with heart disease. which actions will the nurse perform when caring for this patient? (select all that apply.)
Answers
The correct answers are options A, B, and E.
The nurse should actively listen to the patient, focus on what the patient says and use her senses to diagnose the heart disease. Other activities such as suggesting to the patient not to worry and referring to a to-do list must be avoided.
Heart disease is characterized by initial symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and numbness in the distant regions of the body (fingertip, toe tip) due to lack of oxygen supply. The patient may also exhibit other symptoms such as dizziness, nausea, and stomach pain.
Careful observation and critical diagnosis are very essential to save the life of heart patients. Timely diagnosis and intervention can reduce the risk of mortality of the patients.
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The nurse wants to demonstrate presence with a patient newly diagnosed with heart disease. Which actions will the nurse perform when caring for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
A)Use the senses
B)Actively listen
C)Refer to a to-do list
D)Suggest that the patient should not worry
E)Focus on what the patient says
A 45-year-old male patient is receiving interferon alfa-2a therapy for hepatitis c. the nurse should teach the patient that he may experience which adverse effect?
Answers
Answer:Flu-like symptoms
Explanation:
the procedural term meaning visual examination within a hollow organ is:
Answers
Endoscopy is a medical examination process used to examine and treat various conditions affecting the digestive tract.
The procedural term meaning visual examination within a hollow organ is endoscopy. Endoscopy is a medical examination process that involves a thin, flexible tube with a tiny video camera and light attached to it. The endoscope is inserted into the patient's body through the mouth or anus, allowing doctors to see inside the body.
Endoscopy is a minimally invasive medical procedure that is used for both diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. It enables doctors to examine and treat various conditions affecting the digestive tract, such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), ulcers, and cancers.
The endoscope is carefully maneuvered through the organ and the camera displays images of the organ on a screen, enabling doctors to make an accurate diagnosis. If a problem is found, the endoscope can also be used to take samples of tissue (biopsy) for further testing.There are various types of endoscopy procedures, including upper endoscopy (EGD), colonoscopy, bronchoscopy, and cystoscopy. They are performed by specially trained doctors called endoscopists.
Endoscopy is a safe and effective medical procedure that is widely used to diagnose and treat many different conditions. The procedure takes about 30-60 minutes to complete and patients can usually return to normal activities after a short recovery period.
In conclusion, endoscopy is a medical examination process used to examine and treat various conditions affecting the digestive tract.
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Someone who is ________________ has a combination of what we think of as "male" and "female" reproductive systems or a combination of DNA other than XX or XY.
Answers
Answer:
aneuploid
Explanation:
The typical number of chromosomes in each human cell is 46. These include 22 pairs of “autosomes” (which refers to all chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes) and a pair of sex chromosomes, either an X and a Y (which makes for a male) or two Xs (female). That means the genetic signature for a person with 46 chromosomes is either 46-XY (males), or 46-XX (females).
Any variation from these typical numbers is referred to scientifically as an “aneuploidy.”
Here is a great link that explains more behind the typical XX or XY: https://genetic.org/variations/
define the threshold of stimulation? why does the threshold stimulus not generate a constant response every time it is applied?
Answers
The threshold of stimulation is the minimum amount of stimulation required to produce a response in a cell or tissue. This can vary depending on the type of cell or tissue being stimulated. For example, nerve cells have a higher threshold of stimulation than muscle cells.
The reason why the threshold stimulus does not generate a constant response every time it is applied is due to the concept of excitability. Excitability is the ability of a cell to respond to a stimulus by producing an electrical signal. However, the amount of response generated by a cell depends on several factors, including the strength and duration of the stimulus, the state of the cell at the time of stimulation, and the presence of any inhibitory or facilitatory factors.
For instance, if a cell has recently been stimulated, it may be in a refractory state where it is unable to respond to additional stimuli for a certain period of time. Additionally, if there are inhibitory factors present, such as neurotransmitters that prevent the cell from responding to stimuli, the threshold stimulus may not be sufficient to generate a response. In summary, the threshold of stimulation is the minimum amount of stimulation required to produce a response, but the response generated by a cell is influenced by various factors that can lead to variability in the response.
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A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine in her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly
A. check the patellar reflex, if it becomes more and more hyperactive, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest
B. check the patellar reflex, if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression and cardiac arrest
C. check the patellar reflex, if it stays the same, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest
D. check for seizure activity; if no seizures occur, her infusion rate is correct
Answers
To determine in her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly B.) Check the patellar reflex, if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Hence, option B) is the correct answer.
Eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy and is characterized by seizures and high blood pressure. Intravenous magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures in patients with eclampsia. However, if the infusion rate is too high, it can cause respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
To determine if the infusion rate is too high, healthcare professionals should regularly check the patellar reflex, which is a test of the patient's deep tendon reflexes. If the reflex becomes weak or absent, it indicates that the infusion rate is too high, and the patient is at risk for respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
It is important to monitor patients with eclampsia closely to prevent complications and ensure that they receive the appropriate treatment. In summary, checking the patellar reflex regularly is essential to prevent adverse effects of intravenous magnesium sulfate in patients with eclampsia.
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vitmain b12 is essential for the development and maintenance of
Answers
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development and maintenance of several bodily functions, particularly those related to the nervous system and red blood cell production.
It plays a crucial role in the synthesis of DNA, the genetic material in cells, and is necessary for the normal functioning of nerve cells. Vitamin B12 is also involved in the production of red blood cells, which carry oxygen throughout the body.
Without adequate levels of vitamin B12, individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, tingling or numbness in the extremities, difficulty in maintaining balance, and impaired cognitive function.
Therefore, vitamin B12 is vital for overall neurological health and blood cell production.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the adrenal glands and are both _____________ when used in the nervous system and _________ when used in the endocrine system.
Answers
The adrenal glands secrete adrenaline and norepinephrine, which are both hormones when employed in the endocrine and neurotransmitters when used in the neurological system.
Who or what secretes norepinephrine and epinephrine?The interior of a adrenal glands, commonly known as the adrenal medulla, is where norepinephrine is made. Adrenaline, commonly known as epinephrine, is produced by the adrenal medulla. The catecholamine family includes norepinephrine, adrenaline, and dopamine.
When should you utilise epinephrine and norepinephrine?In medicine, epinephrine is utilized in the urgent treatment of allergy reactions, to treat blood pressure all through septic shock, or in laser surgery to maintain pupil dilation. Norepinephrine is utilized to increase and control high blood pressure during urgent medical situations that result in low blood pressure.
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