An employee's direct supervisor is usually best-equipped to rate how well the employee removes organizational barriers, shields employees from politics, and improves other employee's competence.
Supervisors and managers are typically responsible for overseeing and evaluating the performance of their direct reports, including assessing their abilities to effectively address organizational barriers, navigate workplace politics, and support the competence of their team members. They are in a position to observe and provide feedback on an employee's performance in these areas based on their day-to-day interactions and observations in the workplace.
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An employee's supervisor is usually best equipped to rate how well the employee removes organizational barriers, shields employees from politics, and improves other employees' competence.
Who is responsible for shielding employees from politics and improving competence?
An employee's supervisor is usually best equipped to rate how well the employee removes organizational barriers, shields employees from politics, and improves other employees' competence. This is because supervisors have a better understanding of the employee's role and responsibilities within the organization, and can observe their performance and interactions with others on a regular basis.
Additionally, supervisors are often responsible for setting performance goals and evaluating progress towards those goals, which requires a level of competition and efficiency in the workplace. This is because the supervisor has a direct understanding of the employee's work, can assess their efficiency, and can evaluate their contribution to the overall competition within the organization.
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What gene helps prevent cancer?
Answer:
DNA
Explanation:
If the DNA can be repaired, p53 activates other genes to fix the damage. If the DNA cannot be repaired, this protein prevents the cell from dividing and signals it to undergo apoptosis. By stopping cells with mutated or damaged DNA from dividing, p53 helps prevent the development of tumors.
6. Which of the following is NOT a question you ask someone to describe his or her pain? Do you think it will go away soon? O How long has it been hurting? Has the pain become more intense? O Is it throbbing, aching, burning or stinging?
One question you don't ask someone to describe your pain is do you think it's going to go away soon?
What does pain management mean?Pain management applies to inpatients, patients in emergency care units. Continuity of pain assessment, treatment and monitoring must be maintained when the patient is transferred between units and circulates between areas of the institution.
With this information, we can conclude that one question you don't ask someone to describe your pain is do you think it's going to go away soon?
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Children who are diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder can vary in the type and range of symptoms they display but all children with an autism spectrum disorder have
A 31-year-old woman newly diagnosed with HIV and her initial CD4 count is 238 cells/mm3. The plan is to immediately start antiretroviral therapy.
Which one of the following medications requires baseline HLA-B*5701 testing to identify persons at increased risk of developing a medication-related hypersensitivity reaction?
Abacavir
Abacavir is the required medication.
What is HIV?
HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, attacks the body’s infection fighting cells, which makes a person vulnerable to diseases and infections. More specifically, HIV attacks the white blood cells called the CD4++ cells.
There is no effective cure for HIV, so once you contract the virus, it stays for life. There is an effective treatment with HIV medicine. But, if left untreated, HIV can lead to AIDS, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
AIDS is the last stage of HIV. This occurs when the immune system of the body is badly damaged.
Therefore, Abacavir is the required medication.
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the nurse is providing preoperative instructions to a client who is having a transurethral resection of the prostate. what should the nurse tell the client?
The nurse tells the client not to eat or drink anything before the surgery, ask about any allergies, need to take bath and need to inform if they face any difficult.
The nurse should provide the following preoperative instructions to a client who is having a transurethral resection of the prostate:
The client should not eat or drink anything after midnight on the night before the surgery.The client should inform the healthcare team of any allergies or medications they are taking.The client should shower or bathe before the surgery and use a special antibacterial soap provided by the hospital.The client should expect to have a catheter inserted after the surgery and should be instructed on how to care for it.The client should inform the healthcare team if they experience any fever, cough, or other signs of infection before the surgery.The nurse should also provide emotional support and answer any questions the client may have about the surgery.
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identify the ways in which HR impacts quality improvement in health
care organizations activity.
HR plays a critical role in driving quality improvement by ensuring the organization has a skilled and engaged workforce, promoting a culture of quality and patient safety, and providing the necessary support and resources for continuous improvement in healthcare delivery.
Workforce Planning: HR is responsible for strategic workforce planning, ensuring the right number and mix of skilled healthcare professionals are available to deliver high-quality care. They assess staffing needs, recruit qualified individuals, and ensure appropriate training and development programs are in place.
Recruitment and Selection: HR plays a key role in hiring competent and qualified healthcare professionals who can contribute to quality improvement efforts. They identify candidates with the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to provide safe and effective care.
Training and Development: HR designs and implements training and development programs to enhance the knowledge and skills of healthcare staff. This includes providing ongoing education on quality improvement methodologies, patient safety, and evidence-based practices to improve care delivery.
Performance Management: HR establishes performance management systems that promote accountability and continuous improvement. They set performance expectations, monitor individual and team performance, and provide feedback and coaching to support quality improvement initiatives.
Culture and Engagement: HR fosters a culture of quality and patient safety by promoting employee engagement, open communication, and collaboration. They encourage staff involvement in quality improvement activities, create opportunities for sharing ideas and best practices, and recognize and reward contributions to quality improvement efforts.
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What symptoms may appear in a newborn if its ductus arteriosus fails to close?
Answer:
Poor eating, which leads to poor growth.
Sweating with crying or eating.
Persistent fast breathing or breathlessness.
Easy tiring.
Rapid heart rate.
Explanation:
While still in the mother's womb, a baby does not need their lungs to supply oxygen because they receive oxygen from their mother. Since a baby's lungs do not provide oxygen, there is no need for the heart to pump blood to the lungs. The ductus arteriosus is a blood vessel that is present in all babies while still in the womb, and it allows blood to bypass the lungs.
When the baby is born and the umbilical cord is cut, their lungs need to supply oxygen to their body. Their lungs expand, their blood vessels relax to accept more blood flow, and the ductus arteriosus usually closes within the first hours of life. Sometimes, the ductus arteriosus does not close on its own. This is known as a patent ("open") ductus arteriosus. While this condition is seen more often in premature babies, it may also appear in full-term infants.
The symptoms of a patent ductus arteriosus depend on the size of the ductus and how much blood flow it carries. After birth, if a ductus arteriosus is present, blood will flow from the aorta (the main artery in the body) into the pulmonary artery. This extra blood flow into the lungs can overload the lungs and put more burden on the heart to pump this extra blood. Some babies may need more support from a ventilator and have symptoms of congestive heart failure.
A newborn with a patent ductus arteriosus may have:
Fast breathing
A hard time breathing
More respiratory infections
Tire more easily
Poor growth
However, if the patent ductus arteriosus is not large, it may cause no symptoms and your doctor may not find it until they do further evaluation of a heart murmur.
Even if there are no symptoms, the turbulent flow of blood through the patent ductus arteriosus puts a person at a higher risk for a serious infection, known as endocarditis
which of the following types of breast tissue can hide breast cancer?
1) fatty
2) fibroglandular
3) dense
Some modern types of graphic notation as well as other forms of notation (like waveform and MIDI styles) of the twentieth century owe their development to several modern innovations. Which of the following is NOT one of those innovations?
Answer: Mensural notation
Explanation:
What is a common symptom that people describe when they tear their acl. What will they hear?
Answer:
A loud pop or a popping sensation in the knee.
Explanation:
the nurse is preparing an educational program for her peers regarding vaccinations. what information should the nurse include? select all that apply.
The CDC provides the recommended schedule for vaccines. Parents must be given the proper Vaccine Information Statements prior to administration of the vaccine.
Why vaccines are important?Vaccines help your body create protective antibodies—proteins that help it fight off infections. By getting vaccinated, you can protect yourself and also avoid spreading preventable diseases to other people in your community.
What diseases don t have a vaccine?But there is still — despite 30 years of effort — no AIDS vaccine. There is no universal flu vaccine. There are no vaccines with long-lasting protection against malaria or tuberculosis. None for parasites like Chagas, elephantiasis, hookworm or liver flukes.
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You note dat the tonsils of a patient are enlarged and touch each other. dis is documented a?
The tonsils should be graded as 4+ by the nurse because they are so large that they are touching one another.
Tonsils in grade 1 are only just discernible.Between both the tonsillar pillars and the uvula are the grade 2 tonsils. Grade 3+ is assigned to tonsils that touch the uvula.What are tonsillar pillars?On the other hand, muscles close to the tonsils make up tonsillar pillars or palatine arches. The palatoglossus muscle and the palate pharyngeal muscle, which make up the anterior and posterior pillars of these structures, respectively, are further divided into these structures.
Tonsils signify:In the top of the throat and at the back of the mouth are the tonsils, which are lymph nodes. They support the body's defense against infection by removing bacteria and other germs. Tonsillitis may be brought on by a bacterial or viral infection. A commonly cited reason is strep throat. Other areas of the throat may also exhibit signs of the infection.
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I understand that the question you are looking for is:
A nurse examines a client with complaints of a sore throat and finds that the tonsils are enlarged and touching one another. Using a grading scale of 1+ to 4+, how should the nurse appropriately document the tonsils?
Which of the following is NOT a long-term effect of marijuana use?
A.
Lower learning capabilities
B.
Weaker communication skills
C.
Increased memory
D.
Shorter attention span
Answer:
I think it's increased memory
Answer:
its c. increases memory
Extrapyramidal symptoms:
Answer:
Restlessness, drooling of the mouth, uncontrolled movements, and stiff posture.
Explanation:
Common symptoms of Extrapyramidal:
three types of threat in the nursing facility and a appropriate example for eeach
Answer:
Harassment
Explanation:
This can be associated in tge issue of gender roles. You can never tell if your employer or a patient is a sexist/misogynist/homophobic this ideology could trigger abuse and maltreatment in a workplace.
Diagnosis code for elbow pain
Answer:
2021 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Code M25. 52: Pain in elbow.
Explanation:
If this is what you mean't
Hope I helped too!
strike through bookmark user note feedback acute medically supervised withdrawal (for 5 or more days) in the treatment of opioid use disorders:
Acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) in the management of opioid use disorders is not likely to lead to sustained abstinence.
Quitting drugs is painful, and adjusting to new situations can be frustrating. This means that while withdrawing from nearly any substance, anxiety, impatience, and frustration are frequent.
Drug dependence is accompanied by challenging withdrawal symptoms that can be both physical and psychological in character, and occasionally even life-threatening. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists like clonidine and lofexidine, as well as opioid agonists like methadone and buprenorphine (partial agonist), are medications used to alleviate withdrawal symptoms.
In order to manage opioid use disorders, acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) is not likely to result in prolonged abstinence.
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A registered nurse (RN) is supervising the work of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. Which statement by the LPN would be corrected by the RN?
Answer: B. The law says you must write a new living will each time you re admitted to the hospital.
Explanation:
The law does not require that you make a new will whenever you are admitted to the hospital. Any existing will that has fulfilled the provisions of the law are biding unless the person decides to change the will of their own volition.
There is therefore no need to make a new will every time if there is already one in existence and the person is satisfied with it. The Registered Nurse should therefore correct this statement by the Licensed Practical Nurse.
which of the following compounds would be required to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet (BSC)
A. Pantoprazole IV
B. Ranitidine IV
C. Methotrexate IV
D. Insulin IV
Given what we know, of the options listed, Methotrexate IV is the compound that requires the most care when handling and should prompt the use of a biological safety cabinet.
What is Methotrexate IV? This is a medicine used often for cancer treatment. It can be used to treat cancers such as leukemia.Great care must be taken during its handling.This includes the use of a BSC and proper protective equipment.Therefore, given the nature of the Methotrexate IV compound and its risk for those handling the substance, it is the option listed that most appropriately prompts the use of a hazard or biosafety cabinet.
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Antibiotic for blood infections. Enterococci are bacteria that cause blood infections in hospitalized patients. One antibiotic used to battle enterococci is vancomycin. A study by a large nationwide health system revealed that 6% of all enterococci in its hospitals were resistant to vancomycin. Consider a random sample of four patients with blood infections caused by the enterococci bacterium. Suppose that all four patients are treated with the antibiotic vancomycin. Note: Give your answers in decimal form with at least four decimal places. a) What is the probability that all four patients are treated successfully? Answer: b) What is the probability that the bacteria resist the antbiotic in at least one patient? Answer: Note: A study by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention on this subject was published in the New York Times, Sept. 12.1995.
a) Probability that a patient is treated successfully = (100 - 6)% = 94% Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 94% x 94% x 94% x 94% = 80.7436% ≈ 0.8074
b) The required probabilities are:
0.8074 and 0.1926.
Given that vancomycin is an antibiotic used to battle enterococci and 6% of all enterococci in the hospitals were resistant to vancomycin.
We have to find the probability of the following events:
Probability that a patient is treated successfully = (100 - 6)% = 94% Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 94% x 94% x 94% x 94% = 80.7436% ≈ 0.8074
Probability that a patient resists the antibiotic = 6%Probability that all four patients are treated successfully = 1 - probability that no patient resists the antibiotic P(at least one patient resists) = 1 - P(all 4 patients treated successfully) = 1 - 0.8074 = 0.1926 ≈ 0.1926
Hence, the required probabilities are:
0.8074 and 0.1926.
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You are called to the scene of a 47 year old man with a current chief complain of chest pain. The patient informs you he has never been sick a day in his life prior to this which of the following will provide you the greatest information
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Select one:
a. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency b. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability
c. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability
d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Appropriate developments for the core training program to optimize function is intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, and movement efficiency.
Ans: D
Core stability is the ability of the trunk to support the arms and legs, so the muscles and joints can perform in the safest, strongest, and most effective positions.
Our spine, which allows us to maintain an upright posture, is stabilized by certain muscles attached to the spine. These are called core stability muscles. Core stability to optimize function is intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, and movement efficiency.
Intervertebral stability to make humans able to stand upright and make humans move.Lumbopelvic stability refers to the ability of the back and pelvic muscles to keep the spine and pelvis in an optimal position during movement and sports activities. If these structures are maintained or kept in optimal alignment, then the muscles and joints in the lower support can function efficiently.Movement efficiency is an exercise in moving muscles or bones that can stabilize the function of the organs of movement.Learn more about core stability at https://brainly.com/question/1393763
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Which of the following statements is true of cones?
The statement that is true about cones is:
These cells are responsible for color vision.What are cones?The photosensitive cells found in the retina of vertebrate animals are called cones.
Characteristics of conesThey are structurally similar to rods, but require much higher light intensity to become active.They operate in daylight conditions and are responsible for photopic vision, where the color perception occurs.Therefore, we can conclude that the receptors of the colors are the cones (photosensitive cells that are located in the retina, responsible for us perceiving colors in one way or another).
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Blood vessels (capillaries) that selectively let certain substances enter brain tissue and keep others out.
-
Type of glial (neuroglial) cell that transports water and salts from capillaries.
-
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord.
A.
Neurotransmitter chemical released at the ends of nerve cells.
-
Microscopic fiber that carries the nervous impulse along a nerve cell.
-
Carries messages toward the brain and spinal cord from receptors.
-
Lower portion of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord.
-
Part of a nerve cell that contains the nucleus.
-
Middle layer of the meninges.
-
Contains nerves that control involuntary body functions or muscles, glands, and internal organs.
A. Acetylcholine
B. afferent nerve
C. arachnoid membrane
D. astrocyte
E. autonomic nervous system
F. axon
G. blood-brain barrier
H. brainstem
I. cauda equina
J. cell body
The blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
What is the blood brain barrier?This is a specialized system of blood vessels that helps to protect the brain by selectively allowing certain substances, such as oxygen and nutrients, to enter while keeping others, such as toxins and pathogens, out, and the blood-brain barrier is made up of tightly packed cells and specialized transport proteins that control what can pass from the bloodstream into the brain tissue.
Hence, blood vessels control entry into the brain is blood-brain barrier (G), the type of glial cell is the astrocyte (D), the collection of spinal nerves is the cauda equina (I), Neurotransmitter is Acetylcholine (A), Microscopic fiber is an axon (F), carries messages on an afferent nerve (B), connects the cerebrum and brainstem (H), is part of a nerve cell body (J), middle layer is the arachnoid membrane (C), and controls the involuntary body is the autonomic nervous system (E).
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a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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When possible, what is the preferred method of CPR?
1. Compression-only
2. Single-person
3. Two-person
4. Rescue-breath-only
Is to rescue breath only
After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. To treat this patient, you will follow: a. off-line medical control b. online medical control c. protocols d. all of the above
Answer:
All of the answers that has been put
Condition that damages the lungs’ smallest airways; leads to coughing and shortness of breath.
Answer:
Emphysema
Explanation:
Emphysema is a condition in which the alveoli at the end of the smallest air passages (bronchioles) of the lungs are destroyed as a result of damaging exposure to cigarette smoke and other irritating gases and particulate matter. Although COPD is a progressive disease that gets worse over time, COPD is treatable.
Source: mayoclinic
Brainliest, Please!In which part of the world is undernourishment most concentrated?
Answer:
I think it's Africa because on quizlet when that was asked it seemed that Africa was the right answer to that question but I'm unsure and if not then I don't know.
You are driving down a street when you notice a house is on fire. A person who you
assume is the owner is sitting on the front lawn, although you cannot immediately tell if
the person is injured or just upset. Emergency medical services (EMS) personnel are not
on the scene-in fact, it appears that no one is even aware of the situation. You decide to
stop and help. What are the first basic steps you should take?
The first step you should take in the given situation is to call 911, so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed.
There are some basic steps in providing first aid and they include the following;
Assess the situationPlan for intervention Implement first aidEvaluate the situationFor the given scenario, after assessing the situation, you will definitely notice that the situation is a critical one. The first step to take as untrained professional is to get help before approaching the scene.
You can help by calling 911 so that emergency medical services (EMS) personnel will be informed, after which you keep the person safe before the emergency team arrives.
Thus, we can conclude that the first step in the given situation is to call 911.
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Answer:
911
Explanation: