A cannabis preparation made by boiling in alcohol or solvent is commonly known as a cannabis tincture. A tincture is a concentrated liquid extract that is typically made by soaking plant material, such as cannabis, in a high-proof alcohol or other solvent.
To make a cannabis tincture, cannabis plant material is first decarboxylated, or heated, to activate the cannabinoids. The activated plant material is then soaked in alcohol or another solvent, such as glycerin or vinegar, for a period of time, typically several weeks. The liquid is then strained to remove any remaining plant material, resulting in a concentrated tincture. Cannabis tinctures can be used in a variety of ways, including sublingually (under the tongue), added to food or drink, or applied topically. They are often preferred by individuals who do not want to smoke or inhale cannabis, and who prefer a more discreet or precise method of consumption. Tinctures can also be made with different strains of cannabis, allowing for a more customized experience based on individual preferences. However, it's important to note that tinctures can be very potent, and it's important to start with a low dose and gradually increase as needed to avoid overconsumption or negative side effects.
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Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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Which of the following professional topical fluorides has the potential to dissolve the filler particles of composite resin restorations?
Select one:
a. Monofluorophosphate
b. Sodium fluoride gel
c. Stannous fluoride
d. Acidulated phosphate fluoride
The professional topical fluoride that has the potential to dissolve the filler particles of composite resin restorations is acidulated phosphate fluoride, the correct option is (d).
Fluoride contains hydrofluoric acid, which can etch the surface of the composite resin and dissolve its filler particles, leading to roughening and reduced strength of the restoration. Alternative fluoride options such as neutral sodium fluoride gel or stannous fluoride may be more appropriate for these patients to prevent damage to their restorations.
Clinicians need to have a thorough understanding of the potential effects of different topical fluoride products on dental restorations to make informed decisions about treatment options and prevent potential harm to their patient's dental health, the correct option is (d).
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If Pt present with thigh furuncle infection of hair follicles and then has some deep tenderness to palpation of RLQ on abd exam, what do you think?
The patient's symptoms suggest a possible complication of the thigh furuncle infection.
The deep tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) on abdominal examination is concerning for an abscess formation, which can occur due to the spread of infection through the bloodstream or lymphatic system. The RLQ is also the location of the appendix, so it is important to rule out the possibility of acute appendicitis, which can present similarly.
Therefore, further evaluation is necessary, which may include imaging studies such as an ultrasound or CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. Appropriate treatment, such as antibiotics and/or surgical drainage of the abscess, should be initiated promptly to prevent potential complications
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a nurse observes that a newborn has a pink trunk and head, bluish hands and feet, and flexed extremities 5 min after delivery. he has a weak and slow cry, a heart rate of 130/min, and cries in response to suctioning. the nurse should document what apgar score for this infant?
Answer:8
Explanation:
2 for each rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability.Acrocyanosis 1
The nurse should document an Apgar score of 8 for this infant. The Apgar score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate the overall condition of a newborn immediately after birth.
It consists of five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Each component is assigned a score of 0, 1, or 2, with a total possible score of 10.
Heart rate: The heart rate of 130 beats per minute falls within the normal range for a newborn, so it receives a score of 2.
Respiratory effort: Although the infant has a weak and slow cry, the fact that they cry in response to suctioning indicates some respiratory effort. Therefore, a score of 1 is given.
Muscle tone: The observation of flexed extremities suggests good muscle tone, which warrants a score of 2.
Reflex irritability: The infant cries in response to suctioning, indicating intact reflex irritability, earning a score of 2.
Color: The baby has a pink trunk and head, which are desirable signs. However, the bluish hands and feet suggest some degree of cyanosis. Cyanosis is caused by low oxygen levels in the blood and is reflected in the color score. In this case, we would assign a score of 1.
Adding up the scores: 2 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 8.
Therefore, the nurse should document an Apgar score of 8 for this infant. It's important to note that the Apgar score is just one assessment, and further evaluation of the baby's overall condition and health should be done to ensure their well-being.
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Cyales son las principales caracteristucas del evangelio de san Lucas
Sumaya is ordered ceftazidime PO 9mg/kg per day. Her weight is 10kg. Calculate Sumaya's dosage for the day
Answer:
Sumaya's dosage for the day is 90mg
Explanation:
Given
\(PO=9mg/kg\) --- daily
\(Weight = 10kg\)
Required
The daily dosage
To do this, we simply multiply Sumaya's weight and the dose of PO
So, we have:
\(Dosage = PO * Weight\)
\(Dosage = 9mg/kg * 10kg\)
\(Dosage = 90mg\)
Name which vitamin is monumental in helping to prevent megaloblastic anemia which makes people tired weak
Explanation:
Folic acid is also called folate. It is another B vitamin. Either a lack of vitamin B-12 or a lack of folate causes a type of anemia called megaloblastic anemia (pernicious anemia). With these types of anemia, the red blood cells don’t develop normally. They are very large. And they are shaped like an oval. Healthy red blood cells are round. This causes the bone marrow to make fewer red blood cells. In some cases, the red blood cells die sooner than normal.
What causes vitamin
Calculate how many tablets for one (1) dose for each of the prescriptions below:
Order: Abilify 10 mg po qd
Give:
The prescription is for Abilify 10 mg po qd.
The abbreviation "po" stands for "by mouth," and "qd" stands for "once daily."
This means that the patient is supposed to take 10 mg of Abilify orally once a day.
The number of tablets needed for one dose will depend on the strength of the tablets that are available.
If the tablets available are 10 mg each, then the patient would take one tablet per dose.
If the tablets available are a different strength, then the number of tablets needed for one dose will need to be adjusted accordingly.
a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching
Answer:
you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing
Explanation:
A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.
Maria is undergoing a lot of stress. She just lost her job of 5 years, and she is attempting to learn how to do her own taxes since she doesn't currently have the financial means of paying someone to do it. On top of this, she needs to find an affordable babysitter to watch her 3-year-old while she searches for a new job and goes on interviews.
What type of stressor is the loss of Maria's job?
Catastrophe
Daily Hassle
Major life change
Pressure
The type of stressor that the loss of Maria's job represents is a Major life change. Major life changes refer to events or circumstances that require a significant adjustment in a person's life, such as getting married, having a baby, or losing a job.
What hormonal changes can stress cause in a woman's body?Stress can cause a range of hormonal changes in a woman's body, including:
Cortisol: Stress triggers the release of the hormone cortisol from the adrenal glands. Cortisol is known as the "stress hormone" because it helps the body respond to stress by increasing blood sugar levels and suppressing the immune system.
Adrenaline and noradrenaline: In addition to cortisol, stress also triggers the release of adrenaline and noradrenaline, which can increase heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate.
Estrogen and progesterone: Chronic stress can affect the production of estrogen and progesterone, which are important hormones for regulating the menstrual cycle and maintaining pregnancy. Stress can disrupt the balance of these hormones and lead to irregular periods, fertility problems, and other reproductive issues.
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Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of.
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can’t put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge.
In the field of knowledge, procedural knowledge is a kind of knowledge that occurs when someone learns to do a task through his actions. The individual knows certain steps that lead to the accomplishment of the task.
There are no facts or research studies made on procedural learning. Just by practicing an action, a person becomes best at it.
As Jamie has been able to learn perfectly how to tie a know by practicing the procedure again and again, hence Jamie’s knowledge of knot tying is an example of procedural knowledge. As his descriptive knowledge of Jamie might not be as good as procedural knowledge, he is not able to teach the younger member of his troop how to tie the knot.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
Jamie, a boy scout, has practiced tying a particular kind of knot dozens of times, and he does it quickly and efficiently. But when he tries to explain how to do it to a younger member of his troop, he can't put it into words, he can only show the other boy how to do it. Jamie's knowledge of knot tying is an example of
a. semantic knowledge.
b. procedural knowledge.
c. autobiographical knowledge.
d. declarative knowledge.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
During positive pressure mechanical ventilation inspired volume is 500ml. the same person, moments later, spontaneously inspires 500 ml. compare the following: alveloar pressures, alveolar volumes, transpulmonary pressures, degree of alveolar epithelial stretch
positive pressure mechanical ventilation raises alveolar pressure and delivers a set volume, while spontaneous inspiration lowers alveolar pressure and allows variable volume.
How do we explain?During positive pressure mechanical ventilation (PPMV), the applied positive pressure increases alveolar pressure and delivers a predetermined volume. In spontaneous inspiration, negative pressure generated by the diaphragm and intercostal muscles lowers alveolar pressure, allowing air to enter.
Both methods stretch the alveolar epithelium. Tran pulmonary pressure increases with positive pressure during PPMV and with negative pressure during spontaneous inspiration. Inspired volume is 500 ml in both cases.
In conclusion, Both methods stretch the alveolar epithelium, and transpulmonary pressure increases accordingly.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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The nurse in the labor and delivery unit is performing a focused assessment on a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Assessment reveals a headache 3 out of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Vital signs: temperature, 99. 1°f (37. 3°c); heart rate, 101 beats/min; blood pressure, 87/58 mm hg; capillary refill time, less than 3 seconds. Client reports a small gush of blood the first time out of bed to ambulate to the bathroom. Three perineal pads have been saturated since birth. Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of options
The correct option is A, Based on the assessment findings, the client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is indicated by the small gush of blood and saturation of three perineal pads since birth. The low blood pressure of 87/58 mmHg is also suggestive of hypovolemia, which can occur in postpartum hemorrhage.
Hemorrhage, also known as bleeding, is the abnormal loss of blood from the body. It can occur internally or externally and may be caused by trauma, disease, or a medical condition. Symptoms of hemorrhage vary depending on the location and severity of the bleeding, but can include pain, swelling, redness, and weakness. Treatment for hemorrhage depends on the cause and severity of the bleeding and may include compression, medication, surgery, or blood transfusions.
There are several types of hemorrhage, including arterial, venous, capillary, and petechial. Arterial hemorrhage occurs when blood flows rapidly from an artery and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Venous hemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs when blood leaks from a vein and may be slower and less severe than arterial hemorrhage. Capillary hemorrhage involves the slow oozing of blood from small blood vessels, while petechial hemorrhage involves small, pinpoint-sized bleeds under the skin.
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Complete Question:
The nurse in the labor and delivery unit is performing a focused assessment on a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Assessment reveals a headache 3 out of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Vital signs: temperature, 99. 1°f (37. 3°c); heart rate, 101 beats/min; blood pressure, 87/58 mm hg; capillary refill time, less than 3 seconds. Client reports a small gush of blood the first time out of bed to ambulate to the bathroom. Three perineal pads have been saturated since birth. Complete the following sentence(s) by choosing from the lists of Options:
a) hemorrhage
b) preeclampsia
c) infection
d) lactation
What did Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission?
a.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles
b.
Holloman AFB became a site for the Tactical Fighter Wing
c.
Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of the atomic bomb
d.
Both a and b are correct.
e.
Both a and c are correct.
Holloman Air Force Base (AFB) develop as its mission because a. Holloman AFB became the primary site for development and testing of guided missiles.
Holloman AFB, located near Alamogordo, New Mexico, has a rich history in the field of missile development and testing. It played a crucial role in the United States' efforts to advance its missile technology during the mid-20th century. In particular, Holloman AFB was closely associated with the development and testing of guided missiles.
The base became home to the Holloman Development Test Center (formerly known as the Holloman Test Facility), which was established to conduct research, development, and testing of various guided missile systems. This included both air-to-air and surface-to-air missiles. Holloman AFB provided a suitable environment for missile testing due to its expansive and relatively unpopulated surroundings, allowing for safe and controlled test flights.
In summary, Holloman AFB's mission centered around the development and testing of guided missiles, making it an integral part of the United States' efforts to advance missile technology. Therefore, Option a is correct.
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Health Education in nursing care program
Answer: You should look into Loma Linda University they have a really good nursing program as well as a variety of other programs on health in general.
Explanation:
Answer: Johns Hopkins University is one of the best but has a very low acceptance rate of about 11% but University of Washington is also good with a higher rate of about 55% it all depends on what you are looking for
Explanation:
Brianna monitors her heart rate during workouts to ensure it is within the proper range. If she is below her target heart range, she increases her speed
What training principle is Brianna applying?
Frequency
Intensity
Time
Type
Answer:
Intensity
Explanation:
Frequency is the how often you exercise
Intensity is how hard you work during exercise
Time is the length of time you spend working out
Type is the activity/exercise that is performed
Rosa Gutierrez was just seen by Dr. Bahjat. Her laboratory tests have come back, and she has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. She is a Mexican immigrant who has lived in the United States for the past 31 years. She is very worried about how the disease will affect her life.
One of the laboratory tests performed was an FBS (fasting blood sugar) ordered by Dr. Bahjat. Give an example of an abnormal FBS that could be concerning for Dr. Bahjat.
List some signs and symptoms that Ms. Gutierrez may have had, which would have indicated to Dr. Bahjat that she should be tested for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
How does Ms. Gutierrez’s ethnicity play a role in her diagnosis? What should be considered regarding patient education?
how does Ms. Gutierrez ethnicity play a role In her diagnosis what should be considered regarding patient's education
The role of ethnicity, patient education are given below :
Effect of ethnicity:
There is evidence that certain ethnic groups have a predisposition to type 2 diabetes in the presence of the same risk factors.Hispanics are the largest minority in the United States and have higher rates of diabetes in both adults and childrenThese are due to change in food habits, rapid urbanization, changes in the environment and changes in lifestyles, and so on.patient education:
1. Eating healthfully. 2. Exercise. 3. Losing weight 4. Monitoring and treating blood sugar levels. 5. Following the treatment plan. 6. Managing cardiovascular risks. 7. Preventing infections.Learn more:
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True or false the urine is produce in the kidney
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The kidneys are part of the urinary tract that makes the urine. Urine has salt and toxins in the blood that gets filtered out by the kidneys. After this process you have urine.
A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. He states that he forgot to depress the event marker when he was having chest pain due to extreme stress at the office, but he wrote this on the daily journal that he kept but forgot to note the time. Will the monitor tape be effective in this case?
Answer: yes
Explanation: it will
Answer:
A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. The monitor tape is effective in this case because:
While you are gone from the doctor's office, it constantly records the electrical activity of your heart for up to 24 hours. A typical ECG, sometimes known as a "resting" ECG, is one of the most basic and quick diagnostics for evaluating the heart.
Explanation:
The Holter monitor is a type of portable electrocardiogram (ECG).
two technicians are discussing shopkeypro technician a says that the 1search module is the preferred module to use because it is the quickest and most efficient way of gathering all diagnostic and repair related information about a code component or system. technician b says the service manual module is prefered search method because it is also built for speed and efficiency
Technicians are a group of engineers who help to understand the equipment and it makes it easy for people.
Who is the technician?Technicians are engineers which help in the study of equipment and machines.
In the medical field, machines are required for various purposes. Various medical instruments such as ECG, dialysis, and many other instruments are required.
Two scientists say that the first module is preferred because it is the quickest and technician b says the service module is preferred because it is used to build for speed and efficiency.
Two technicians are saying this from their perspectives because they both have different perspectives and both are true.
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what is the sickness ligma?
Answer:
Ligma is a made-up disease and internet hoax claimed to have killed popular Fort-nite video game streamer Ninja.
lol
How many milliliters (mL) are there in 2 tablespoons?
Answer:
29.57 mL
Explanation:
tablespoons milliliters
2 tbsp 29.57 mL
3 tbsp 44.36 mL
4 tbsp 59.15 mL
5 tbsp 73.93 mL
Edyn is preparing for an athletic competition at her high school. She wants to do well in the competition. She will have two weeks to prepare.Explain how each of the following might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition.
The following factors might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition: Stress from academics and other commitments Inadequate sleep Inadequate nutrition
Edyn's main focus should be preparing for the athletic competition since she wants to do well in it. However, several factors may hinder her preparation process. Below are some of these factors:Stress from academics and other commitments: Edyn might have other commitments such as academic work that could hinder her preparation. For example, if she has several assignments to complete, she might be forced to dedicate her time to academic work, which would limit her preparation time.
Inadequate sleep: Edyn might not be able to get adequate sleep since she has to dedicate time to preparing for the athletic competition. This could result in her being tired, which would affect her athletic performance. Adequate sleep is essential since it helps the body rest and recover from the strain of training.
Inadequate nutrition: Adequate nutrition is essential for anyone who engages in physical activity. If Edyn doesn't get adequate nutrition, she might become weak and unable to perform at her best during the competition. Furthermore, inadequate nutrition could lead to health problems, which would further hinder her preparation process.
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organisms that populate the human body and which protect it from disease are termed normal
Organisms that populate the human body and protect it from disease are called Lymphocytes
What is an Organism?An organism is a unit of living things that are composed of a combination of all organ systems that work together so that life functions can be formed in it. In the human body, there are various organisms that have their respective duties. One of them is Lymphocytes.
Lymphocytes are leukocytes that are important for maintaining the immune system. There are two main types of lymphocytes, namely B cell lymphocytes and T cells. B lymphocytes function to make antibodies to fight bacteria, viruses, and poisons that attack the body.
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A girl has been chewing and swallowing her food but her digestive system is not doing what its supposed to do. why is her solution exercise
Answer:
molecules from food are not getting broken down small enough to get inside her cells.
Explanation:
a 75- kg person is exposed to this radiation for 1.00 year (365 days ). if each alpha particle deposits 8.00×10−13 j what is the number of rads absorbed by the person?
Answer:
Explanation:
To calculate the number of rads absorbed by a person exposed to radiation, we need to use the formula:
Rads = Energy absorbed (Joules) / Mass (kg)
Given:
Mass of the person = 75 kg
Energy deposited by each alpha particle = 8.00×10^(-13) J
Exposure time = 1.00 year = 365 days
First, we need to calculate the total energy absorbed by the person over the given exposure time. We can find this by multiplying the energy deposited by each alpha particle by the number of alpha particles received by the person.
To determine the number of alpha particles, we need to know the rate of alpha particle emission or the activity of the radiation source. Without this information, it is not possible to calculate the exact number of alpha particles.
The number of rads absorbed can be determined by dividing the total energy absorbed by the mass of the person.
Please provide the rate of alpha particle emission or the activity of the radiation source so that we can calculate the number of rads absorbed accurately.
The elements of performance for the National Patient Safety Goal for preventing surgical site infections
includes which of the following?
Use a hair removal technique that has been approved by reputable organisations or is referenced in scientific literature when it's necessary.
What foundation do the National Patient Safety Objectives have?A initiative to improve quality and patient safety was launched by the Joint Commission in 2003. It is known as the National Patient Safety Objectives. The purpose of the NPSGs is to aid recognised organisations in addressing certain patient safety issues. The Joint Commission regularly evaluates the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs) programme based on their impact, cost, and effectiveness to make sure health care facilities put a priority on patient safety. The 2023 National Patient Safety Objectives of the Joint Commission should be explained. Increase patient identification accuracy as the first goal. The second goal is to enhance carers' ability to communicate. Thirdly, we want to make medicine use safer.To learn more about National Patient Safety Goal, refer to:
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The National Patient Safety Goal's elements for preventing surgical site infections include: compliance with antibiotic prophylaxis, preoperative bathing with antiseptic agent, hair removal using clippers, and controlling blood sugar and body temperature during the perioperative period.
Explanation:The National Patient Safety Goal for preventing surgical site infections includes several elements of performance. The first element includes ensuring compliance with guidelines for the use of antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infections. In practice, this involves giving patients antibiotics before, during, or after surgery as appropriate. The second element is encouraging patients to shower or bathe with an antiseptic agent at least the night before an operation. The third element is hair removal using clippers, not razors, to prevent skin injuries that could harbor infection. Lastly, controlling blood glucose levels for all patients and maintaining normal body temperature during the perioperative period are also part of the guidelines.
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Was the deceased on any medication?