Answers
Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is a cognitive behavioral therapy that was initially created to treat people with borderline personality disorder (BPD).
What is Dialectics behavior therapy?It is now acknowledged as the most effective psychological care available to this population. Moreover, studies have demonstrated its efficacy in treating a variety of other diseases, including eating disorders, substance abuse.
Synthesis or integration of opposites is referred to be "dialectical" in this context. The main dialectic in DBT is between the seemingly incompatible transformation and acceptance tactics.
For instance, DBT therapists embrace their patients for who they are while yet recognizing that they must change in order to achieve their objectives.
Therefore, Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is a cognitive behavioral therapy that was initially created to treat people with borderline personality disorder (BPD).
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Related Questions
in the US, the average life expectancy is 76 years for men, and healthy life expectancy for men is 65 years. This means that, on average most men a. have serious financial hardship after 65 years. b. commonly spend the last 11 years of life in social isolation
c. spend the last 11 years of life restricted by disease and disability,
d. often lose the desire to live after 65 years
Answers
Therefore, the correct option is (c) spend the last 11 years of life restricted by disease and disability.
According to the given data, in the US, the average life expectancy is 76 years for men, and healthy life expectancy for men is 65 years.
This indicates that, on average, most men spend the last 11 years of life restricted by disease and disability.
Therefore, the correct option is (c) spend the last 11 years of life restricted by disease and disability. Most men live 11 years longer than they live healthy, which is not always enjoyable. This indicates that many men are in poor health and have a restricted life span.
They are less able to engage in activities they once enjoyed due to the loss of mobility and energy caused by illness and other factors.They must also live with the prospect of declining health and losing independence as they age, which may lead to a sense of isolation or social disconnection.
As a result, option b is incorrect. On average, most men would not face serious financial hardship after 65 years, thus option a is not correct. Finally, there is no evidence to support option d, and thus it is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct option is (c) spend the last 11 years of life restricted by disease and disability.
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How long does it take to become an anesthesiologist?
Answers
Answer:
12 to 14 years
Explanation:
for which of the following reasons will a nurse use theory in evidence-based practice?
Answers
Nursing theory guides the development of curriculum and course content in nursing education programs. It ensures that the content of the curriculum is aligned with the philosophical values and mission of the educational institution.
The following are the reasons why a nurse uses theory in evidence-based practice; To help the nurse identify evidence gaps in the literature Review of literature helps to locate gaps in knowledge which nursing theory can fill. Theory can assist in interpreting, predicting, and managing patient care processes. Theory guides how research is conducted. Nursing theory directs research by determining the variables of concern. It specifies concepts, definitions, and prepositions and identifies the relationships among the concepts.
Theory provides a framework for clinical decision-making. Nursing theory offers a rationale for selecting appropriate nursing interventions based on patient variables such as age, gender, and medical diagnosis. Theory enhances critical thinking skills in clinical practice. Nursing theory aids in the development of sound judgment in clinical practice by enhancing critical thinking skills. It identifies the relevance of individual patient variables and helps in the identification of potential interventions that can improve patient outcomes. Theory guides educational curriculum development.
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9. What is the best treatment for diabetic coma?
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Answer:
According to Mayo Clinic (n.d) Diabetic coma requires emergency medical treatment. The type of treatment depends on whether your blood sugar level is too high or too low.
High blood sugar
If your blood sugar level is too high, you may need:
Intravenous fluids to restore water to your tissues
Potassium, sodium or phosphate supplements to help your cells function correctly
Insulin to help your tissues absorb the glucose in your blood
Treatment for any underlying infections
Low blood sugar
If your blood sugar level is too low, you may be given a glucagon injection, which will cause your blood sugar level to quickly rise. Intravenous dextrose also may be given to raise blood glucose levels.
The DASH diet, the Prudent Pattern, and the Mediterranean Diet are eating patterns associated with reduced _____ incidence.
Answers
Answer:
Mediterranean Diet and Other Dietary Patterns in Primary Prevention of Heart Failure and Changes in Cardiac Function Markers: A Systematic Review
Background: Heart failure (HF) is a complex syndrome and is recognized as the ultimate pathway of cardiovascular disease (CVD). Studies using nutritional strategies based on dietary patterns have proved to be effective for the prevention and treatment of CVD. Although there are studies that support the protective effect of these diets, their effects on the prevention of HF are not clear yet. Methods: We searched the Medline, Embase, and Cochrane databases for studies that examined dietary patterns, such as dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH diet), paleolithic, vegetarian, low-carb and low-fat diets and prevention of HF. No limitations were used during the search in the databases. Results: A total of 1119 studies were identified, 14 met the inclusioncriteria. Studies regarding the Mediterranean, DASH, vegetarian, and Paleolithic diets were found. The Mediterranean and DASH diets showed a protective effect on the incidence of HF and/or worsening of cardiac function parameters, with a significant difference in relation to patients who did not adhere to these dietary patterns. Conclusions: It is observed that the adoption of Mediterranean or DASH-type dietary patterns may contribute to the prevention of HF, but these results need to be analyzed with caution due to the low quality of evidence.
Explanation:
Heart Failure (HF) is considered a complex clinical condition that compromises the heart’s ability to deliver oxygen properly to tissues. Generally, HF results from structural and/or functional dysfunction of the heart, which compromises its ability to fill itself with blood or to eject blood [1].
I HOPE THIS HELPS ALOT GOOD LUCK!a drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug _____.
Answers
A drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug By injecting cocaine intravenously.
Injecting cocaine intravenously provides the drug abuser with the longest duration of the drug's effects. When cocaine is injected directly into the bloodstream, it rapidly reaches the brain, resulting in an intense and immediate high. The effects of cocaine typically peak within minutes and can last for an extended period.
Compared to other routes of administration, such as smoking or snorting, intravenous injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the slower absorption process through the lungs or nasal membranes. This direct delivery allows for a more potent and prolonged effect.
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Fact or Fiction?
________ 1. The French established the first hospitals when physicians care for soldiers and ill people in their homes.
Answers
My answer is also Fiction
Learning the rules of syntax for a specific language best illustrates the acquisition of
Answers
Answer:
Phonemes
Explanation:
Learning the rules of syntax for a specific language best illustrates the acquisition of phonemes
DISCUSSION1. What role does the hospital nurse play in facilitating end-of-life care for Zachary?
Answers
Answer: To provide care that includes the promotion of comfort, relief of pain and other symptoms, and support for patients, families, and others close to the patient
and
Two types of monocular depth cues are
A. motion parallax. .. pictorial depth cues
B. convergence...retinal disparity
C. motion parallax...retinal disparity
D. convergence... pictorial depth cues
Answers
Answer:
A. Motion parallax and pictorial depth cues
Explanation:
100% on edge2020
You are caring for a pregnant patient 30 weeks gestation in Cardiac Arrest the patients fundus is about the umbilicus which of the following steps are appropriate
Answers
In the scenario of a pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest with the fundus about the umbilicus, appropriate steps include initiating CPR, activating the emergency response system, and considering a perimortem cesarean section.
In the scenario of a pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation experiencing cardiac arrest, the following steps would be appropriate:
Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): Begin chest compressions to maintain circulation and oxygenation to both the mother and the fetus. High-quality CPR should be started immediately following the cardiac arrest.
Activate the emergency response system: Call for immediate assistance from the healthcare team, including additional personnel trained in advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) and obstetric emergencies. Time is critical, and a coordinated response is essential.
Defibrillation if indicated: If the patient is in a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, delivering a shock with a defibrillator may be necessary to restore a normal heart rhythm.
Establish an airway: Ensure the airway is clear and provide ventilation using appropriate techniques, such as bag-mask ventilation or advanced airway management with endotracheal intubation.
Administer medications: Follow ACLS protocols for the administration of medications like epinephrine to support cardiac function and stabilize the patient.
Consider perimortem cesarean section: If maternal resuscitation is unsuccessful and the gestational age is greater than 24 weeks, a perimortem cesarean section may be considered to optimize the chances of neonatal survival.
It is crucial to remember that the management of cardiac arrest in pregnancy requires a multidisciplinary approach involving obstetricians, anesthesiologists, and critical care specialists. Immediate and coordinated actions are necessary to maximize the chances of successful resuscitation for both the mother and the fetus.
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using the tenets of operant conditioning, analyze the following scenario: maria is a long-term smoker who has often tried to quit through the use of lollipops and gum as a replacement for cigarettes. however, she was unsuccessful in breaking the habit until being diagnosed with stage ii - non-small cell pulmonary carcinoma (lung cancer). since receiving her diagnosis, maria has not smoked a single cigarette. in this scenario, the lung cancer would be considered: a. negative punishment b. positive reinforcement c. negative reinforcement d. positive punishment
Answers
- Positive reinforcement is a type of operant conditioning where a reward or positive outcome follows a desired behavior. In this scenario, there was no rewarding stimulus that followed Maria's decision to stop smoking after being diagnosed with lung cancer.
- Negative reinforcement is another type of operant conditioning in which an unpleasant stimulus is removed following a desired behavior. This could have been plausible if Maria had stopped feeling pain or discomfort in her lungs and breathing after quitting smoking.
- Positive punishment involves adding an aversive consequence to discourage unwanted behaviors. An example would be punishing someone for breaking rules by yelling at them or giving them extra work. This option does not seem relevant because there was no aversive consequence added, nor did anyone punish Maria for smoking before her diagnosis.
Therefore, we can conclude that the correct answer would be:
Option A) Negative Punishment
Negative punishment occurs when removing something desirable as punishment results in decreased frequency of undesired behaviour.
Maria lost her desire/need to smoke due to fear caused by lung cancer diagnosis and risk associated with it resulting in cessation(removing undesirable habit/smoking).
In this scenario, the lung cancer diagnosis would be considered as a form of positive punishment.
What does Operant conditioning involves ?Operant conditioning involves the use of consequences to modify behavior. Positive punishment involves the addition of an unpleasant consequence to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.
In this scenario, the behavior of smoking was decreased after the unpleasant consequence of being diagnosed with lung cancer was added. Prior to the diagnosis, Maria had attempted to quit smoking using replacement methods like lollipops and gum but was unsuccessful.
It wasn't until the addition of the unpleasant consequence of lung cancer that Maria's smoking behavior was effectively punished and ceased.
It's worth noting that while positive punishment can be effective in decreasing certain behaviors, it is not always the best or most ethical approach to behavior modification.
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What aspect of clotting are people with hemophilia unable to do?
a) platelet plug formation
b) vasoconstriction
c) formation of clot
Answers
Answer:
Overview. Hemophilia is a rare disorder in which the blood doesn't clot in the typical way because it doesn't have enough blood-clotting proteins (clotting factors). If you have hemophilia, you might bleed for a longer time after an injury than you would if your blood clotted properly
People with hemophilia are unable to form clots while bleeding. Therefore, option C is correct.
What is hemophilia?Hemophilia is genetic in which blood doesn't clot properly, and excessive bleeding occurs after any kind of accident or damage. A female is a carrier of this disease. There are three types of hemophilia and that are hemophilia A, hemophilia B, and hemophilia C.
A mutation or alteration in one of the genes that codes for the clotting factor proteins required to create a blood clot is what causes hemophilia. This alteration or mutation may result in the clotting protein not functioning at all or not functioning at all. The X chromosome contains these genes.
Thus, people with hemophilia are unable to form clots while bleeding. Therefore, option C is correct.
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what is the rationate for rotating the patient foot internally when postioning for an ap hip?
Answers
The rationale for rotating the patient's foot internally when positioning for an AP hip is to obtain a true AP view of the hip joint. By rotating the foot internally, the femoral neck is placed in a more parallel position to the image receptor, allowing for a clearer view of the hip joint and the surrounding structures.
When positioning a patient for an AP hip X-ray, the foot should be internally rotated to ensure the greater trochanter is in an ideal position for the X-ray. This allows for the best visibility of the hip joint and surrounding structures. This positioning also helps to reduce any foreshortening of the femoral neck and provides a more accurate representation of the hip joint.
To properly rotate the foot, the patient's ankle should be placed at a 90-degree angle from the lower leg, with the toes pointing outwards.
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In the development of the probability function for a discrete random variable, two conditions must be satisfied: (1) f(x) must be nonnegative for each value of the random variable, and (2) the sum of the probabilities for each value of the random variable must equal one.
Answers
In the development of the probability function for a discrete random variable, two conditions must be satisfied: (1) the probability function, denoted as f(x), must be nonnegative for each value of the random variable, and (2) the sum of the probabilities for each value of the random variable must equal one.
The first condition states that the probability function f(x) must be nonnegative for every possible value of the random variable x. This means that the probability assigned to each value of x cannot be negative; it must be zero or a positive value. This condition ensures that the probability values are valid and consistent with the concept of probability.
The second condition states that the sum of the probabilities for all possible values of the random variable must equal one. In other words, when you add up the probabilities assigned to each possible outcome, the total probability must equal one. This condition ensures that the probability distribution is normalized and represents all possible outcomes comprehensively.
By satisfying these two conditions, the probability function for a discrete random variable meets the requirements for a valid probability distribution. It ensures that the probabilities are nonnegative and that they collectively account for all possible outcomes, providing a meaningful representation of the likelihoods associated with different values of the random variable.
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A rapid onset of similar non-traumatic symptoms within a large
group of people should be sufficient warning that responders are
dealing with a potential incident.
A. incendiary
B. radiological
C. chemical
Answers
Answer:
a. i think
Explanation:
this is my greys anatomy and chicago med knowladge lol
a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who was involved in an explosion . which of the following action should the nurse take first ?
A-obtain an ECG B-calculate the extend of burns using the rules of nines
C notify the rapid response team D-initiate peripheral IV access.
Answers
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who was involved in an explosion . The nurse should take first option D-initiate peripheral IV access.
When caring for a client who has been involved in an explosion, initiating peripheral IV access is a crucial first step for the nurse in the emergency department. The primary reason for prioritizing peripheral IV access is to establish a route for the administration of fluids and medications.
Explosions can result in severe trauma, burns, and potential internal injuries, which may necessitate immediate fluid resuscitation and pain management. By promptly initiating peripheral IV access, the nurse can ensure the timely administration of intravenous fluids to restore circulating volume and support vital organ perfusion. Additionally, IV access allows for the administration of analgesics and other medications to alleviate pain and manage any associated complications, such as infection or inflammation.
By taking this initial action, the nurse can address the client's immediate needs and help stabilize their condition while preparing for further assessments and interventions in collaboration with the healthcare team.
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The nurse, Cynthia, has an order to deliver four oral medications to Mrs. Steinhart, an 85-year-old with mild dementia who is in the care center. The facility uses a unit-dose system, which is not automated. Over-the-counter medications are kept as a stock supply.
Cynthia recognized two of the four medications because she has given them before, but she is unfamiliar with the other two prescriptions. What should her next action be?
Research the two unknown medications.
Research the two unknown medications and refresh her knowledge for the two known medications.
Administer the medications as ordered.
Ask another nurse what the two unknown medications are given for.
Ask Mrs. Steinhart whether she knows what the medications are for.
Answers
The next action that Cynthia should take is to research the two unknown medications. When a nurse is unfamiliar with a prescribed medication, the nurse is required to research it in order to ensure that the medication is given properly and effectively to the patient
A unit-dose system is a distribution method in which medications are packaged individually in one-dose packages, which are labeled with the name, strength, and expiration date of the medication. This method ensures that patients receive the correct dosage of medication at the appropriate time.
Therefore, before administering the medications, Cynthia should take the necessary time to research the unknown medications in order to be sure of the medication's purpose, indications, contraindications, side effects, dosage, and any other related issues. After doing so, she will be confident that she is administering the correct medication to the patient, avoiding any potential errors.
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A postoperative vaginal hysterectomy client complains of pain that is more intense than this morning. this factor should be explained to the client as
Answers
A postoperative vaginal hysterectomy client complains of pain that is more intense than this morning. This factor should be explained to the client as "acute pain tends to increase during the day and is called a routine pain response"
What is Hysterectomy?This is referred to a medical procedure which is designed in other to remove the uterus in humans.
This procedure is characterized by a great amount of pain in the morning than other periods of the day which is as a result of the acute pain tending to increase during the day which is referred to as a routine pain response.
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What are some safeguards you would use if you had to prepare medications for a patient?
Answers
•Check the patient's medical record for an allergy or contraindication to the prescribed medication. ...
•Prepare medications for one patient at a time.
•Educate patients about their medications. ...
•Follow the eight rights of medication administration.
the nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed sumatriptan. in order to maximize therapeutic benefit while reducing the risk of adverse effects, the nurse should encourage the client to implement which intervention?
Answers
The nurse should encourage the client to take sumatriptan as prescribed, including the dosage, timing, and frequency.
The nurse should also advise the customer to take the drug with food to reduce the threat of gastrointestinal adverse goods. The nurse should further explain the significance of not taking further than the maximum recommended tablet of sumatriptan in a 24- hour period, as this could lead to serotonin pattern.
The nurse should also advise the customer that if no relief is felt after taking the first cure, that a alternate cure shouldn't be taken. The nurse should also encourage the customer to report any adverse goods that may do, similar as casket pain, miserliness, or discomfort, as these could be signs of a heart attack.
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Which client statement indicates understanding of content taught about removing his or her three-way indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI)
Answers
The client statement tht indicates Deliberate dilution of the client’s urine understanding of content taught about removing his or her three-way indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) is that "probably will experience some burning on urination."
As a result of the trauma to the mucous membranes of the urinary tract, there will be a burning on urination as a known response but it will subside.The urine often slight pink in color due to the trauma from the surgery and the presence of the catheter.
The three-way irrigation catheter is simply known as a big indwelling urinary catheter that comprises of three lumens.
The catheter side by side allows fluid to run into and drain out of the bladder.
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Does hypertension have any symptoms
Answers
Answer:
you can have high blood pressure and experience no obvious symptoms until you experience a stroke or heart attack. in some people, severe high blood pressure can result in nosebleeds, headaches, or dizziness. Because hypertension can sneak up on you, it's especially important to monitor yor blood pressure regularly.
Answer:
yes it has symptoms but it doesn't fast. you can notice the symptoms when it is very serious. some of the symptoms are severe head aches, nosebleed, chest pain, etc... hope this help.
Explanation:
A nurse is performing eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Hold the irrigator 1.25 cm (0.5 in) above the eye.
b. Direct the irrigation solution upward toward the upper eyelid.
c. Exert pressure on the bony prominences when holding the eyelids open.
d. Direct the irrigation from the outer canthus to the inner canthus of the eye.
Answers
Eye irrigation is method of cleaning of the conjunctiva sac by a stream of liquid.
The following solution can be used:
1. Plain water to clean the eye should be used.
2. Normal saline also known as (sodium chloride).
3. Boric acid 2%, as a sanitized.
4. Silver nitrate 1%, is as an sanitizes.
Here are the general instructions.
1. Maintain aseptic technique throughout the procedure to safe introduction of infection into eye.
2. Use only sterile articles and result for eye irrigation.
3. Never ever touch eye with irrigator.
4. Test temperature of the answer at the inner surface of the wrist.
5. Move of the fluid should be from inner canthus to the outer canthus to prevent forcing the infection into the nasolacrimal duct.
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at the present time there is no recommended daily allowance (rda) established for calcium.
Answers
At the present time, there is indeed a recommended daily allowance (RDA) established for calcium. The RDA for calcium varies depending on age and gender, with different requirements for different life stages and physiological needs. It is important to consult reputable dietary guidelines or healthcare professionals for accurate and up-to-date information regarding the recommended daily intake of calcium.
The RDA for calcium varies depending on age, gender, and life stage. For adults aged 19-50, the RDA is typically around 1000 milligrams per day. However, it may vary for different populations, such as pregnant or breastfeeding individuals and older adults.
Calcium is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in maintaining healthy bones, teeth, and muscle function. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for overall health and the prevention of conditions like osteoporosis.
It is important to note that dietary recommendations and guidelines are subject to updates as scientific research progresses. Therefore, it is advisable to consult reliable sources, such as reputable health organizations or healthcare professionals, for the most current and accurate information on recommended daily allowances for calcium.
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Which of the following statements is generally true about in the workplace?
A) Most people accept change easily.
B) Change in the workplace happens fairly infrequently.
C) Smart companies can avoid change altogether.
D) Individuals can learn to manage the change in their lives.
Answers
Answer:
D
Explanation:
I think its D because the others just sound not right at all no workplace of mine does those 3 other things
Answer: i would go with d
Explanation:
What can you do to get rid of black gums at home?
Answers
Seek help of a PROFESSIONAL .
Damage to the heart valves produces lesions called ___________ that can break off into the bloodstream as ___________, material that travels through the blood.
Answers
Damage to the heart valves produces lesions called "vegetations" that can break off into the bloodstream as "emboli," material that travels through the blood.
When heart valves are damaged, such as in infective endocarditis or other conditions affecting the valves, abnormal growths called vegetations can form on the valve surfaces. These vegetations consist of a mixture of fibrin, platelets, bacteria, immune cells, and other debris. Over time, if left untreated, this vegetation can become larger and more friable.
The concern arises when this vegetation breaks off or fragments. These fragments, known as emboli, are then carried by the bloodstream to other parts of the body. Depending on their size and composition, these emboli can obstruct blood vessels in various organs, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications.
Damage to heart valves can result in the formation of vegetation, which can break off as emboli and travel through the bloodstream. It is crucial to diagnose and treat valve lesions promptly to prevent the formation of emboli and minimize the risk of complications associated with their migration to vital organs.
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27 of 50 question 27. which of the following would indicate that an applicant for licensure is likely to possess the good professional character necessary to hold a nursing license in texas? a. the occupations of the applicant's parents and their standing in the community. b. the applicant's personal acquaintance with community and government leaders. c. the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule. d. the applicant's knowledge about state regulations for the health care industry.
Answers
The statement that indicates that the applicant is likely to possess the good professional character necessary to hold a nursing license in texas is when the applicant provides satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule. That is option C.
What is a nursing license?A nursing license is a legal permit that gives a registered nurse the authority and protection to carry out the various procedures required of a nurse who has undergone proper training in a registered institution.
Licensure is defined as the process by which a governing body of nursing grants permission to an individual to engage in nursing practice after attaining and proving the competency necessary to perform the unique scope of the nursing practice.
The be able to hold a nursing license in Texas, the applicant must provide satisfactory evidence that he/she has not committed a violation of the nursing practice act or a board rule as this shows they are of good professional character.
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Which best describes the different mechanisms of mitoxantrone and carboplatin
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Carboplatin undergoes activation inside cells and forms reactive platinum complexes that cause the intra- and inter-strand cross-linkage of DNA molecules within the cell. This modifies the DNA structure and inhibits DNA synthesis. This may affect a cell in all the phases of its cycle.