Acute suppurative sialadenitis is a rare condition that can occur in premature neonates. It is characterized by inflammation and infection of the salivary glands, leading to the formation of pus.
The causes of this condition in premature neonates are not fully understood, but there are several factors that may contribute to its development. These include:
1. Immature immune system: Premature neonates have an immature immune system that may not be able to fight off infections as effectively as full-term infants.
2. Impaired salivary gland function: Premature neonates may have impaired salivary gland function, which can lead to stasis of saliva and bacterial overgrowth.
3. Dehydration: Premature neonates may experience dehydration, which can cause the saliva to become thicker and more difficult to drain from the glands.
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Kayla Christianson, CMA, has been employed six years by the cardiology practice of three physicians. She is a graduate of a CAAHEP-accredited school. Furthermore, Kayla received extensive hands-on training performing ECGs while doing her required externship.
Kayla has completed an ECG ordered by Dr. Hsu for Mrs. Warner, a 76-year-old patient. Dr. Hsu, Kayla’s boss, telephoned her explaining that he was behind schedule doing rounds at the hospital. He asked her to do him a favor and interpret Mrs. Warner’s ECG, sign his name, and fax the report to Mrs. Warner’s referring internist, who is expecting the results.
Given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, would this “favor” fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities?
Would any portion of Dr. Hsu’s request fall within the guidelines? If so, which portion(s)? Is an exception to these guidelines ever allowed?
How should Kayla respond to Dr. Hsu?
As far as the scope of Kayla’s education is concerned, the favour that was asked for doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
The only portion of Dr. Hsu's request that fell within the guidelines is asking for assistance to fax the report.
It would therefore be wise if Kayla to decline the request made by Dr Hsu.
What is Electrocardiography (ECG)?Electrocardiography (ECG) is defined as the type of diagnostic services that is used to detect and observe the beating of the heart for any abnormal sounds.
As a Certified Medical Assistants (CMA), Kayla is not allowed to perform delicate procedures such as the electrocardiography procedure but they are allowed to assist the physician on duty for the procedure.
Therefore, given the scope of Kayla’s education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, this favour doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
This means that she should decline the request of the doctor and suggest ways that Mrs Warmer can be attended to without implications.
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From the information provided, it should be noted that CMA guidelines, as stipulated by the American Association of Physician Assistants, prohibit the CMA from interpreting patient medical data. Therefore, the favor that was asked by Dr. Kayla Hsu is simply against guidelines.
What is the AAMA code of ethics?AAMA Code of Ethics for Medical Assistants | The AAMA Code of Ethics for medical assistants sets forth principles of ethical and moral conduct as they relate to the medical profession and the particular practice of medical assisting.
What does AAMA mean in medical terms?The Certified Medical Assistant CMA (AAMA) or (AAMA) —credential is a medical assistant who has been credentialed through the Certifying Board (CB) of the AAMA. The credential is awarded to candidates who pass the CMA Certification Exam.
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quizlet a patient experiences an acute gouty episode despite taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs for several months. the prescriber and patient had planned to begin therapy with probenecid. what effect will the acute episode have on the patient’s planned medication therapy? group of answer choices probenecid will be prescribed as planned, but colchicine will be added to the medication regimen. the provider will need to prescribe allopurinol instead of probenecid. probenecid therapy can begin but the patient must commit to increasing fluid intake. the probenecid therapy will be delayed until the acute episode has subsided.
The acute gouty episode may affect the patient's planned medication therapy with probenecid as per nursing studies.
During an acute gouty episode, it is common to experience increased inflammation and pain in the affected joint. If the patient is already taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) but still experiences an acute episode, it may indicate insufficient control of symptoms. In such cases, the healthcare provider may opt to add colchicine to the medication regimen alongside probenecid. Colchicine helps to relieve the inflammation and pain associated with acute gout attacks.
Alternatively, if the acute episode is severe or if the patient has frequent or chronic gout attacks, the prescriber may consider switching to allopurinol instead of probenecid. Allopurinol is a medication used for the long-term management of gout by reducing the production of uric acid in the body.
If the acute episode is relatively mild and the patient's kidney function is adequate, the prescriber may still initiate probenecid therapy but emphasize the importance of increasing fluid intake. Probenecid works by increasing the excretion of uric acid through the kidneys, so sufficient hydration is crucial for its effectiveness.
In some cases, the prescriber may choose to delay the initiation of probenecid therapy until the acute episode has subsided. This approach ensures that the patient's symptoms are appropriately managed before starting a new medication regimen.
Ultimately, the specific decision regarding the patient's planned medication therapy will depend on the severity of the acute gouty episode, the patient's medical history, and the healthcare provider's clinical judgment.
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Businesses must be conscious of the __________, or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
Answer:
culture
Explanation:
Cultural norms are the shared, sanctioned, and integrated systems of beliefs and practices that are passed down through generations and characterize a cultural group. Norms cultivate reliable guidelines for daily living and contribute to the health and well-being of a culture. They act as prescriptions for correct and moral behavior, lend meaning and coherence to life, and provide a means of achieving a sense of integrity, safety, and belonging. These normative beliefs, together with related cultural values and rituals, impose a sense of order and control on aspects of life that might otherwise appear chaotic or unpredictable.
Businesses must be conscious of the culture or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
Why cultural norms are very important to be shared?Cultural norms has been considered as they shared, or sanctioned, and the integrated systems of the beliefs as well as practices that has been passed down just through the generations as well as characterize the cultural group. Norms that cultivate the reliable guidelines for the daily living as well as it contribute to the health and well-being of the culture.
They will act as the prescriptions for correct and the moral behavior, that lend meaning as well as the coherence to life, and the provide the means of the achieving a particular sense of the integrity, safety, and the belonging. These normative beliefs, that all together with the related cultural values along with the rituals, has been imposed the sense of order and the control on the aspects of the life that would might otherwise appear chaotic or it is unpredictable.
Therefore, Businesses must be conscious of the culture or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
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cubital fossa contents from lateral to medial:
The cubital fossa is a triangular depression located on the anterior side of the elbow. It is bounded by the biceps brachii muscle laterally, the brachioradialis muscle medially, and the pronator teres muscle superiorly.
The contents of the cubital fossa from lateral to medial are the radial nerve, the brachial artery, and the median nerve. The radial nerve is the most lateral structure and is responsible for motor control of the triceps brachii and anconeus muscles as well as sensory innervation of the skin over the dorsum of the hand.
The median nerve is the most medial structure and is responsible for motor control of most of the muscles of the anterior compartment of the forearm and sensory innervation of the palmar surface of the hand.
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The purposes for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) include all of the following except: Group of answer choices to mandate access to continued health care coverage when changing jobs to create a uniform system for processing, securing and retaining healthcare information to prevent employers from restricting coverage due to pre-existing conditions to protect the privacy of individuals in their protected health information
The exception to the purposes of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to prevent employers from restricting coverage due to pre-existing conditions.
What is HIPAA?HIPAA is a United state legislation which protect and safeguard the medical information.
Their main purpose is to take care of the insurance coverage of people, and protect the data from data breaches and ransomware.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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a drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug _____.
A drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug By injecting cocaine intravenously.
Injecting cocaine intravenously provides the drug abuser with the longest duration of the drug's effects. When cocaine is injected directly into the bloodstream, it rapidly reaches the brain, resulting in an intense and immediate high. The effects of cocaine typically peak within minutes and can last for an extended period.
Compared to other routes of administration, such as smoking or snorting, intravenous injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the slower absorption process through the lungs or nasal membranes. This direct delivery allows for a more potent and prolonged effect.
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Given what you have learned about brain structure and function, how might an individual lose their sight or their hearing but not have direct damage to their eyes or ears?
An individual can lose their sight or their hearing but not have direct damage to their eyes or ears when the part of the brain connected to the senses is injured.
The brain is important as it helps in controlling our thoughts, speech, and memory. It is also vital in making the organs in the body function. The brain also coordinates and controls the things that we do.It should be noted that the auditory cortex is the part of the brain that helps in processing auditory information in human beings. Also, the occipital lobe is the part of the brain responsible for vision.For human beings to hear well, the auditory system must work normally so that sound can be able to pass through different parts of the ear into the person's brain.In conclusion, when the occipital lobe and the auditory cortex are damaged, it affects one's vision and hearing.
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Does hydroxychloroquine work?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
What is another term for myocardial infarction?
An arrhythmia
A heart attack
Varicose veins
Sleep apnea
Another name for a myocardial infarction is a heart attack.
Life review: ____. a) suggests that many individuals will achieve greater life satisfaction if they continue their middle-adulthood roles into late adulthood. b) might result in Increased meaning in life and mastery, but it also might revive bitterness and negative thoughts. c) revealed that those who were more physically active had higher life satisfaction and greater social interaction than their physically inactive counterparts. d) fails to consider sociocultural dimensions, such as culture, ethnicity, and gender
Life review: b) might result in Increased meaning in life and mastery, but it also might revive bitterness and negative thoughts.
Life review, a process of reflecting on one's past experiences and relationships, can lead to increased meaning and a sense of mastery. However, it can also bring up negative emotions and bitterness, especially if unresolved conflicts or regrets are revisited.
Life review is a complex and individualized process that can have varying effects on different individuals. Life review, a reflective process of recalling and evaluating past experiences, can enhance a sense of purpose and accomplishment, bringing increased meaning and a feeling of mastery.
However, it can also evoke negative emotions as unresolved issues resurface, potentially leading to bitterness and negative thoughts. It is important to recognize that the effects of life review can vary among individuals, and support systems should be in place to navigate any emotional challenges that may arise.
Life review: b) might result in Increased meaning in life and mastery, but it also might revive bitterness and negative thoughts.
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when vital signs are compared with other signs and symptoms to arrive at a conclusion about what is wrong with a patient, this is known as the:
When vital signs are compared with other signs and symptoms to arrive at a conclusion about what is wrong with a patient, this is known as the differential diagnosis.
What are vital signs?
Vital signs are an objective measurement of the essential physiological functions of a living organism. They have the name "vital" as their measurement and assessment is the critical first step for any clinical evaluation. The first set of clinical examinations is an evaluation of the vital signs of the patient. Triage of patients in an urgent/prompt care or an emergency department is based on their vital signs as it tells the physician the degree of derangement that is happening from the baseline.
Healthcare providers must understand the various physiologic and pathologic processes affecting these sets of measurements and their proper interpretation. If we use a triage method where we select patients without determining their vital signs, it may not give us a reflection of the urgency of the patient's presentation.The degree of vital sign abnormalities may also predict the long-term patient health outcomes, return emergency department visits, and frequency of readmission to hospitals, and utilization of healthcare resources.Vital signs are a collection of determinants doctors use to find out if your body's vital most important functions are within the norm. These are helpful in diagnosing any illnesses or diseases because at least one of your vital signs will show anomalies when you are sick. Also, the standard for vital signs varies with the age, weight, and gender of a person. The 4 main vital signs include body temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate.To learn more about vital signs, refer to
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You have been asked to set up the machines to make 150 more pills after this batch is finished. Assuming the recipe ingredients are used in the same proportion and at the end of the current batch there will be no filler left in the mixer, how many units of filler ingredient do you need to use to produce the 150 more pills?
Answer:
percentage problem There are 200 Prescriptions in the queue. ... tablets of "Drug Y", assuming your cost for 500 tablets is $425.00 with a 28% markup and ... solution strength How many milligrams of active ingredient will you need to ... How many units . ... Pharmacy Math Dilution Question To get 33mg/ml from a vial of 2.1g.
Explanation:
oiio
HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
Select one:
A. friendly
OB. plural
OC. specific
D. neutral
Gender - terms are preferred when writing business correspondence.
Gender D. neutral terms are preferred when writing business correspondence.
Why is it Gender-neutral terms?Gender-neutral terms are preferred when writing business correspondence because they are inclusive and respectful of all genders. Using gender-neutral terms shows that you are open-minded and that you value the diversity of your audience.
These are some examples of gender-neutral terms that can be used in business correspondence:
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caregivers of a 9-year-old client in the terminal phase of a fatal illness ask the nurse for guidance in discussing death with the client. which response is appropriate?
The response which is appropriate is that at this developmental stage, most children have an adult concept of death and should be encouraged to discuss it.
What is Death?This is referred to as the irreversible functioning of the organism and is characterized by the stoppage of the activities which are done by the body system on a daily basis such as respiration, excretion etc.
At this developmental stage and age, most children have an adult concept of death and usually have fears for it when under severe conditions such as in the terminal phase of a fatal illness.
This therefore means that the child should be encouraged to discuss about it with anyone so as to know what the child wants and feel relaxed about the process during the process of medical care.
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why is urine called urine? why is the urinary system so important ?
Answer:
Gets rid of bad bacteria in the body
Explanation:
What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
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One of your clientes Lauren Nicholas has heard about a Medicare concept from one of her neighbors called troop she ask you to explain what would you say
In general, Medicare is a federal health insurance program that provides coverage for eligible individuals who are 65 years or older, individuals with certain disabilities, and individuals with end-stage renal disease.
Why is Medicare important?Healthcare coverage: Medicare provides healthcare coverage for eligible individuals, which can help them access medical services, receive treatment, and manage their health conditions. This can be especially important for older adults and individuals with disabilities who may have more healthcare needs.
Financial protection: Healthcare costs can be expensive, and Medicare can help protect individuals from the financial burden of medical bills. Medicare has different parts that cover different types of services, such as hospital stays, doctor visits, prescription drugs, and more.
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Describe how to calculate the Rf value for a spot on a TLC plate.
Answer:
In thin-layer chromatography, the retention factor (Rf) is used to compare and help identify compounds. The Rf value of a compound is equal to the distance traveled by the compound divided by the distance traveled by the solvent front (both measured from the origin).
Explanation:
learned about it in school
mrs. morgan is a 60-year-old african american woman with hypertension. the registered dietitian helped her establish an individualized meal plan that includes mg of sodium. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices
Mrs. Morgan is a 60-year-old African American woman with hypertension. Her registered dietitian helped her create a special meal plan with 1500 mg of sodium
High blood pressure, which is also called as the hypertension, is blood pressure that is higher than normal blood pressure. Their blood pressure varies throughout their day based on activity. Consistently higher than normal blood pressure readings can lead to a diagnosis of high blood pressure (or hypertension). Symptoms include early morning headaches, nosebleeds, irregular heartbeats, blurred vision, and ringing in the ears. Severe high blood pressure can cause fatigue, nausea, vomiting, confusion, anxiety, chest pain, and the muscle tremors.
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Explain what distinguishes acute and chronic sports injuries.
Answer:
that develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques.That develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques.
Explanation:
sorry if it wrong
Answer:
Acute sports injuries are generally those that result from some sort of traumatic event on the body. Since they generally result from trauma, acute injuries tend to have a rapid onset and progression, but this can also mean that they will be of more limited duration. Chronic sports injuries, however, are generally those that develop over extended periods of time from overuse and improper exercise techniques. The slow onset and progression of chronic injuries tends to also extend the time needed to recover from them.
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for a client who returned from a vacation with malaria. the client likely was exposed to malaria when the infected mosquito injected:a.schizonts.b.gametocytes.c.merozoites.d.sporozoites.
The client likely was exposed to malaria when the infected mosquito injected D. sporozoites. Option D is correct.
Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. When the mosquito bites an individual, it injects sporozoites from its salivary glands into the individual's bloodstream. These sporozoites then travel to the liver and invade liver cells, where they multiply and form merozoites. The merozoites are then released into the bloodstream and infect red blood cells, leading to the clinical symptoms of malaria.
Therefore, the most likely point of transmission of malaria to the client was when the infected mosquito injected sporozoites into the client's bloodstream during the mosquito bite. It is important to take measures to prevent mosquito bites, such as using mosquito nets, wearing protective clothing, and applying insect repellent when traveling to areas where malaria is endemic. Hence Option D is correct.
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What is the difference between personal and professional communication in nursing?
Answer:
personal- talking about yourself and the stuff going on in your life.
Professional- talking about what is going on with the patient and asking questions about their health and not about their personal life .
Explanation:
Personal communication is a type of communication that proceeds in the internal body of an individual while professional communication deals with a two-way conversation.
What is the significance of personal communication?Personal communication significantly improves your thoughts, emotions, and ideas behind each perspective. With this type of communication, an individual must have a determined intent to convey and satisfy themselves. It usually involves the things going on between the individual itself and the stuff associated with them.
Professional communication is associated with your career and job. For example, if an individual is working in the nursing or medical healthcare field, he/she must have to follow the path of communication to understand and satisfy patients, their staff members, and all those who are directly or indirectly related to this background.
Therefore, the difference between personal and professional communication in nursing is well described above.
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Which of the following best describes the most widely known injury associated with individuals routinely using
computer?
Answer:
Back Pains.
Explanation:
Seems correct.
Answer:
Wrist Spasm
Explanation:
given that the wrist is in constant contact with the keyboard while typing.
Aspirin (asa) is discouraged for treatment of viral infection in children because of?
Aspirin should not be used in children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
It turns out that providing aspirin to kids while they have a viral illness—most frequently the flu or chicken pox—can result in Reye's syndrome, a potentially lethal condition. 1 Sudden brain injury and issues with liver function are the hallmarks of Reye's. It may result in unconsciousness, mania, or even death.
Aspirin is a medication that lowers blood coagulation, inflammation, discomfort, and fever. Aspirin is a member of the pharmacological class known as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
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In calculating the following dilution; 115ml of a 9% benzocaine solution must be diluted to a 4%
solution, you notice the final volume of 250ml was provided by a fellow technician. The final volume
should have been 258. 75ml. The technician states he wanted to pour an even volume.
a. How might this difference in volume affect the patient?
b. Explain whether or not you think this is appropriate
a. The difference in volume between the intended final volume of 258.75 ml and the actual final volume of 250 ml could potentially affect the patient if it results in a different concentration of the benzocaine solution being administered. For example, if the final concentration of the solution is less than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may not provide the intended level of pain relief for the patient. On the other hand, if the final concentration is higher than 4% due to the reduction in volume, it may increase the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities for the patient.
b. It is not appropriate for the technician to intentionally pour an even volume of the diluted solution if it results in a deviation from the intended final concentration. The concentration of the medication should be carefully controlled to ensure that the patient receives the correct dosage and to minimize the risk of adverse reactions or toxicities. It is important for the technician to follow proper protocols and procedures for diluting medications, including accurately measuring and recording the final volume of the solution.
What does mixed-methods research include?
observational design
transformative design
distinctive design
directional design
Answer:
Quantitative research is statistical: it has numbers attached to it, like
averages, percentages or quotas. Qualitative research uses non-statistical
methods. For example, you might perform a study and find that 50% of a
district's students dislike their teachers.
Explanation:
Characteristics of Qualitative Research.
Findings are judged by whether they make sense and are consistent with
the collected data.
Results are validated externally by how well they might be applicable to
other situations. This is tough to do; rich, detailed descriptions can help to
bolster external validity.
Data is usually collected from small, specific and non-random samples.
Actions of the researcher that can compromise the integrity of the findings:
Intellectual honesty in proposing, performing, and reporting research refers
to honesty with respect to the meaning of one's research. It is expected
that researchers present proposals and data honestly and communicate
their best understanding of the work in writing and verbally.
When a researcher do not exemplify and transmit the values associated
with ethical scientific conduct” (NAS, 1995, preface).
12 You demonstrate high-quality CPR by keeping interruptions
in CPR to less than
seconds.
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
You are called to the scene of a 47 year old man with a current chief complain of chest pain. The patient informs you he has never been sick a day in his life prior to this which of the following will provide you the greatest information
A nursing instructor is leading a group discussion on congenital hydrocephalus. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which factor that determines the noncommunicating type?
Answer:
Hydrocephalus is produced when there is an imbalance between the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced by the choroid plexus and its absorption into the bloodstream. It is a congenital disease that can be divided into two major classes: communicating and non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus is caused by blockage of the CSF circulation pathway after exit from the ventricles, while the non-communicating type is caused by the obstruction of one or more ventricles in the brain. Thus, the disruption of the ventricular zone (i.e., both the obstruction within a ventricle and the connection between ventricles) is known to cause non-communicating hydrocephalus, while the factors associated with communicating hydrocephalus include insufficient CSF reabsorption, excessive CSF production and defective flow of CSF.