distinguish the appearance of specimens under each type of microscope: brightfield, darkfield, phase contrast, fluorescent, electron (including transmission electron microscope and scanning electron microscope). what is each type of microscope designed for?
Answers
Microscopes are invaluable tools for investigating the microscopic world and have revolutionized the field of biology. With the advent of different types of microscopes, scientists have been able to see structures in much greater detail. The following types of microscopes are discussed in this answer: brightfield, darkfield, phase contrast, fluorescent, transmission electron, and scanning electron.
Brightfield microscope
The brightfield microscope is a fundamental microscope that is simple to use and produces a bright image of a specimen on a clear background. Brightfield microscopes are frequently used in schools to teach biology since they provide a basic understanding of cellular and tissue structure. They are also frequently used to observe fixed and stained tissue samples.
Darkfield microscope
Darkfield microscopy is a variation of brightfield microscopy that uses a specially designed condenser to illuminate the sample from an oblique angle. This results in the sample appearing bright on a dark background, allowing it to be examined without the use of stains or dyes. The darkfield microscope is frequently used to study live bacteria and other small organisms.
Phase contrast microscope
The phase contrast microscope is a type of microscope that uses a special condenser to produce high-contrast images of transparent specimens such as living cells. This technique is ideal for studying live cells since it does not require fixing or staining, which can harm or destroy cells. The phase contrast microscope is frequently used in cell culture, microbiology, and histology laboratories.
Fluorescent microscope
The fluorescent microscope is a type of microscope that uses fluorescence to generate an image of a specimen. This is accomplished by using a light source to excite a fluorescent molecule in the sample, causing it to emit light of a different color. Fluorescent microscopy is frequently used in biological research to visualize and track the movement of specific molecules in cells.
Transmission electron microscope
The transmission electron microscope is a type of microscope that uses a beam of electrons to generate an image of a sample. The electrons pass through a thin section of the specimen, creating a highly detailed image of the internal structures of cells and tissues. Transmission electron microscopy is frequently used to study the structure of cells and tissues at the nanoscale level.
Scanning electron microscope
The scanning electron microscope is a type of microscope that uses a beam of electrons to scan the surface of a sample and generate a highly detailed 3D image of the surface structure. Scanning electron microscopy is frequently used in biology to study the surface structure of cells and tissues.
In conclusion, the brightfield microscope is ideal for examining fixed and stained specimens, while the darkfield microscope is ideal for examining live bacteria and other small organisms. The phase contrast microscope is ideal for studying live cells, while the fluorescent microscope is ideal for visualizing and tracking specific molecules in cells. Transmission electron microscopy is ideal for studying the structure of cells and tissues at the nanoscale level, while scanning electron microscopy is ideal for studying the surface structure of cells and tissues.
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Related Questions
1. How far will an airplane travel if it flies 800 mile per hour for 6.5 hours?
2. How long will it take to get to Florida (2400 miles) if you travel at 65 miles per hour?
3. What is your average velocity if you travel 700 miles in 5 hours?
4. What is the average speed of an airplane that travels 3500 miles in 6 hours?
5. San Francisco is 246 miles away. How long will it take to get there if you drive 55 miles
per hour?
Answers
60.
Which of the following is the first step in the production of insulin using recombinant DNA?
(A)Plasmid removed from E. coli.
(b)DNA coding for human insulin inserted in the plasmid.
(C)Plasmid closed by a special enzyme.
(S)Plasmid opened by a special enzyme.
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
because it is the right answer
choose all that stimulate the secretion of aldosterone.
a. hyperkalemia b. hyponatremia c. hypotension d. hypercalcemia
Answers
The factors that stimulate the secretion of aldosterone include:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypotension
Hypercalcemia does not stimulate aldosterone secretion.
Hyperkalemia: Elevated levels of potassium in the blood, known as hyperkalemia, stimulate the secretion of aldosterone. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water while promoting the excretion of potassium.
By increasing the excretion of potassium, aldosterone helps regulate the concentration of this electrolyte in the blood.
Hyponatremia: Low levels of sodium in the blood, called hyponatremia, also stimulate aldosterone secretion.
Aldosterone helps restore sodium levels by promoting its reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to increased water reabsorption as well. This mechanism helps maintain proper sodium balance in the body.
Hypotension: Reduced blood pressure, or hypotension, triggers the release of aldosterone. When blood pressure decreases, it is sensed by specialized cells in the kidneys called juxtaglomerular cells.
These cells release an enzyme called renin, which ultimately leads to the production of angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone, which acts on the kidneys to increase sodium and water reabsorption. This process helps restore blood volume and blood pressure.
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using remote sensing, an ecosystem with high absorption of blue and red wavelengths and high reflectance of green reflectance would likely be found a. in the polar regions. b. in the tropical rainforest. c. in the desert. d. in the open ocean.
Answers
An ecosystem with high absorption of blue and red wavelengths and high reflectance of green wavelengths, as detected by remote sensing, is likely to be found in a tropical rainforest. The Correct option is B
This is because the chlorophyll pigment in the leaves of plants in the tropical rainforest has a high absorption rate for blue and red wavelengths of light and a high reflectance rate for green wavelengths of light. This enables the plants to efficiently capture energy from the sun and photosynthesize.
The other options, such as the polar regions, desert, and open ocean, do not have the same characteristics of high absorption of blue and red wavelengths and high reflectance of green wavelengths, making them less likely to fit this description.
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Complete Question:
In remote sensing, which ecosystem is likely to have high absorption of blue and red wavelengths and high reflectance of green wavelengths?
a. Polar regions
b. Tropical rainforest
c. Desert
d. Open ocean
exocytosis of neurotransmitter (quantal release) requires the following step to occur: a. the interaction of synaptobrevin with snap25 b. the binding of calcium to synaptobrevin. c. the interaction of munc-13 with bassoon d. the uncoupling of v-snares from t-snares. e. an action potential in the presynaptic neuron
Answers
Exocytosis of neurotransmitter (quantal release) requires the step to occur an action potential in the presynaptic neuron.
Option (e) is correct.
Exocytosis of neurotransmitter, also known as quantal release, is a fundamental process in synaptic transmission. It involves the release of neurotransmitter molecules from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft. The key step required for this process is the occurrence of an action potential in the presynaptic neuron.
When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal, it depolarizes the membrane, leading to the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. The influx of calcium ions into the presynaptic terminal triggers a series of events that culminate in the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane and the subsequent release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft.
While the other options listed (A, B, C, and D) are all involved in synaptic vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release, they are not the initial or primary step in the process.
Therefore, the correct option is (e)
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HELP ASAP PLEASEEE ??! :)
Answers
sorry the offspring of the organism
1. Based on the relative humidity in the room (average for the 3 trials), would a drop of water on your hand evaporate? If so, do you think it would evaporate quickly? Explain your answer. (5 pts)
Answers
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
Because the air is not at its max saturation point, which means that it could possibly melt in your hand.
During semiconservative DNA replication, ______. Multiple choice question. one of the new daughter double helix is made of the two original strands, while the other one is made of two new strands random portions of each new double helix come from the original molecule or are newly synthesized one of the strands in each new double helix comes from the original molecule, and one is newly synthesized
Answers
During semiconservative DNA replication, one of the DNA strands in each new double helix comes from the original molecule, and one is newly synthesized. It is for that reason that DNA replication is 'semiconservative'.
DNA is a double helix molecule composed of two long chains of nucleotides linked by hydrogen bonds.
Meselson and Stahl discovered that DNA replication is semiconservative by experimenting with the bacterium Escherichia coli.
During their experiments, Meselson and Stahl labeled the DNA of E. coli across generations using radioactive isotopes of nitrogen (N) and they observed that only one DNA strand contained these isotopes.
Thus, DNA replication is semiconservative because each daughter cell contained one newly synthesized DNA strand and one original DNA strand.
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Why is it important for the U.S. to have an active space program like NASA?
Answers
Answer:
multiple reasons
Explanation:
satellite telecommunications, GPS, remote sensing, and space access.
Ability to test different fuels they can make for better efficiency it can go on and on my good sir.
hope this helps
true or false, postsynaptic cells, in turn, add receptors from their membranes to make it less difficult to stimulate the cell and cause an action potential
Answers
The given statement "postsynaptic cells, in turn, add receptors from their membranes to make it less difficult to stimulate the cell and cause an action potential" is False because Postsynaptic cells do not add receptors from their membranes to make it less difficult to stimulate the cell and cause an action potential. In fact, the process is usually the opposite.
Postsynaptic cells, which receive signals from presynaptic cells at chemical synapses, contain receptors on their membranes that specifically bind with neurotransmitter molecules released by the presynaptic cell. These receptors are proteins that are already present in the postsynaptic cell membrane and are not added or removed based on the difficulty of stimulating the cell.
When neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell, it can either excite or inhibit the postsynaptic cell's activity. Excitatory neurotransmitters can depolarize the postsynaptic membrane, making it more likely to generate an action potential, while inhibitory neurotransmitters can hyperpolarize the membrane, making it less likely to generate an action potential.
The number and sensitivity of receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane can be dynamically regulated through processes like long-term potentiation or long-term depression, which can affect the strength of synaptic connections over time. However, these processes are not directly related to the difficulty of stimulating the cell but rather to the strength and efficacy of synaptic transmission.
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Richard Caton used electrodes ______.
A. on the inside of a person's body
B. on the outside of a person's body
Answers
What is the name of the supercontinent in Alfred Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis?
Answers
Answer:
Pangaea
Explanation:
Alfred Wegener proposed that the continents were once united into a single supercontinent named Pangaea, meaning all earth in ancient Greek. He suggested that Pangaea broke up long ago and that the continents then moved to their current positions. He called his hypothesis continental drift.
\(\sf\purple{Pangaea}\) was the name of the supercontinent in Alfred Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis.
MORE:-Alfred Wegener is considered as the father of Continental Drift.This hypothesis was developed in the early part of the 20th century.Wegener proposed that the continents were once united into a single supercontinent named Pangaea. He also suggested that it broke apart long ago and the continents then moved to their current position.\(\large\mathfrak{{\pmb{\underline{\orange{Mystique }}{\orange{♡}}}}}\)
In the database, Academic Search Complete (Links to an external site.), search for the article "Brevetoxicosis: Red Tides and Marine Mammal Mortalities" by Flewelling et al. If you wanted to explore more of the scholarly conversation by taking advantage of "citation chaining" what links could you click on to help with this task
Answers
Answer: The link I would be clicking on with this task is Molecular detection of the brevetoxin-producing dinoflagellate Karenia brevis and closely related species using rRNA-targeted probes and a semiautomated sandwich hybridization assay. Therefore, the task will be accomplished having done this.
While washing her hair, Olivia noticed that she was losing a lot of hair. She visited a clinic, and the physician reassured her that her hair would grow back. How do you think Olivia’s hair will grow back?
Answers
Answer:
The right option is; The hair will grow back by undergoing meiosis. Meiosis is a type of cell division in which the number of parental chromosome is reduced by half, and there is formation of four haploid daughter cells that are genetically distinct from the parent cell that produced them. Meiosis only occurs when the cell needs to reproduce and it occurs in all eukaryotic, se,xually-reproducing animals and plants.
Explanation:
When we talk about a 2 degree Celsius difference - why is that not dust a change from 26c to 28c ?
Answers
When we talk about a 2-degree Celsius difference, we are referring to a change in the average global temperature. This means that the temperature across the entire planet is increasing by 2 degrees Celsius, not just in one specific location.
The increase in temperature is caused by human activities such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation, which release greenhouse gases into the atmosphere and trap heat. This has a significant impact on the Earth's climate, causing sea levels to rise, extreme weather events, and changes in ecosystems.
In comparison, a change from 26c to 28c in one specific location may just be a result of local weather patterns or a temporary fluctuation in temperature. It is important to understand the difference between short-term weather changes and long-term global climate trends to properly address the issue of climate change. Therefore, a 2-degree Celsius increase is a significant global issue, whereas a change from 26c to 28c may just be a small local change that is not as significant in the grand scheme of things.
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What is the number and type of cells produced from meosis
Answers
four
Explanation:
meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half and produces four gamete cells
Answer:
Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half and produce 4 gamete cells. This process is required to produce egg and sperm cells for sexual reproduction.
Explanation:
I think it will help you
Here are some DNA fragments that have been isolated by gel electrophoresis after being cut with restriction enzymes A. 5'-ACTGACATAGGCACCCCTTAA-3' 3'-TGACTGTATCCGTGGGG-5 B. 5'-TGACTGTATCCGTGGGG-3 3'-ACTGACATAGGCACCCCTTAA-5' C. 5 '-GGCATACTAGATCCACGTTAA-3 3'-CCGTATGATCTAGGTGC-5' D. 5 '-GGCATACTAGATCCACGAATT-3' 3 '-CCGTATGATCTAGGTGC-5 E. 5 '-GGCATACTAGATCCACGGATC-3' 3 '-CCGTATGATCTAGGTGC-5 a. Which pair of these fragments has appropriate complementary sticky ends to get joined together in a recombinant DNA molecule? b. What enzyme would we use to join up the DNA backbones to make the make the recombinant molecule?
Answers
The pair of DNA fragments with appropriate complementary sticky ends for joining together in a recombinant DNA molecule is Fragment A (5'-ACTGACATAGGCACCCCTTAA-3') and Fragment B (5'-TGACTGTATCCGTGGGG-3'). The enzyme used to join the DNA backbones and create the recombinant molecule is DNA ligase.
A. In order for two DNA fragments to be joined together in a recombinant DNA molecule, they should have appropriate complementary sticky ends. Sticky ends are short, single-stranded overhangs that result from the action of restriction enzymes. By examining the DNA fragments provided, we can identify the pair that has complementary sticky ends:
Fragment A: 5'-ACTGACATAGGCACCCCTTAA-3'
Fragment B: 5'-TGACTGTATCCGTGGGG-3'
These fragments have complementary sequences at their ends. The overhang on Fragment A is 5'-AA-3', while the overhang on Fragment B is 5'-TT-3'. These sequences are complementary to each other (A pairs with T), indicating that these fragments have appropriate complementary sticky ends to be joined together.
B. To join the DNA backbones and create a recombinant molecule, we would typically use an enzyme called DNA ligase. DNA ligase is responsible for catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in DNA strands. It acts by joining the phosphate group at the 5' end of one DNA fragment with the hydroxyl group at the 3' end of another fragment, creating a continuous DNA molecule.
In this case, once the complementary sticky ends of Fragment A and Fragment B have been aligned, DNA ligase would be used to seal the nick between them, resulting in the formation of a recombinant DNA molecule. The enzyme DNA ligase is commonly used in molecular biology techniques such as cloning and recombinant DNA technology.
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Read the sentence. Fill in the blank with the correct answer. Type answer in all lower-case letters.
3. The distance between the Earth and the sun is about 93 million miles. To reduce the difficulties
of dealing with the large numbers of these distances scientists have designated the distance
from the Earth to the sun as one (blank) or AU
Answers
Answer:
One astronomical unit is the approximate mean distance between the Earth and sun. It's about 93 million miles (150 million km), or 8 light-minutes. Enjoying ...
Explanation:
Image result for he distance between the Earth and the sun is about 93 million miles. To reduce the difficulties of dealing with the large numbers of these distances scientists have designated the distance from the Earth to the sun as one (blank) or AU aphelion Half a year after perihelion, Earth reaches its farthest distance from the star, which is called aphelion. At that moment, the planet is approximately 94.5 million miles (152.1 million km) from the sun. Aphelion occurs in early July. Perihelion and aphelion average out to about 93 million miles (150 million km).
Why is it not easy to replace a link in a food chain?
There are not enough animals to replace the previous organism.
The decomposers will not decompose another type of organisms.
There are not enough plants to replace the previous organisms.
There may be limited type of natural predators organisms may have.
Answers
Answer: D
Explanation: Everything in the food chain is there for a reason. Removing one thing could ruin the whole ecosystem
The bee's hairy thorax (middle section) is covered in pollen. Pollen is produced by male
reproductive organs in the flower. Each grain of pollen contains a sperm cell.
B. What happens to the flowers?
Answers
Answer:
1
Explanation:
The breathing rate of an aquatic animal is more than that of of a terrestrial animal . Why ?
Answers
Answer:
Since the amount of oxygen dissolved in water is comparatively lower than that in air, the aquatic animals have to breath rapidly to take in sufficient oxygen. Thus, the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial organisms
explain why glycogen makes a good storage molecule
Answers
Answer:
Glycogen is insoluble due to the fact it is such a large molecule.
Explanation:
These extra branches mean the stored glucose can be released very quickly - something that is very important. also found in animals.
13. Molecular clocks based on mitochondrial DNA comparisons are best
used to classify (page 315)
a. clades.
b. closely related species.
c. distantly related species.
d. domains.
Answers
Answer:
c
Explanation:
hope this helps
Escherichia coli has a doubling time of 30 minutes. If a culture has 10 E. coli cells at the beginning of log phase, how many E. coli cells will be in the culture after two hours
Answers
80 E. coli cells will be in the culture after two hours.
What is culture?The development of the human, plant, or animal cells in a lab, as well as microorganisms like bacteria and yeast. Cell cultures can be used for research, medication testing, and infection diagnosis.
Primary (mortal) cultures and cultures of established (immortal) cell lines are the two main categories of cultures.
One of the most crucial methods in cellular and molecular biology is cell culture because it offers a platform for studying the biology, biochemistry, physiology, metabolism, and other aspects of both healthy and diseased cells.
A culture of 10 E. coli cells.
Incubation time = 2 hours = 120min
Doubling time = 30min (120/30 = 4)
So, 1 cell - 30min = 2 cells - 30min = 4 cells - 30min = 8 cells - 30min
Therefore, 8 ₓ 10 = 80cells of E. coli at the end of 2 hours of incubation time.
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Ferns, such as the one in the picture, can be found today. They are usually found
growing in warmer climates. However, fossils of ferns have been found in places with
cold climates where it often snows today. What can we conclude about the places
where the fossils of ferns have been found?
A. Ferns used to live in cold climates.
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
C. Someone tried to grow ferns in cold climates.
D. These places once had a colder climate.
Answers
Answer:
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
Explanation:
They're fossils meaning they're extremely old therefore the climate they once grew in was suitable for its needs until the climate changed causing them to die.
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the largest amount of energy?
Stage one
Stage two
They produce an equal amount of energy
Answers
The answer is Stage 2
Which is one effect that would most likely result from a tsunami?
death
drought
extinction
genetic change
Answers
Answer: Death would be your answer.
Explanation: Hope this helps!
Answer:death
Explanation:
I need help and listen I will give you Brainliest just answer this question and read it twice because I really need help and so help me God if you don't answer this question fully I will report you and you will get banned for life so answer this question fully!!
Answers
Answer:
The heart consists of four chambers organized into two pumps (right and left) for the purpose of providing blood flow to the systemic and pulmonary circulations. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the entire body except for the lungs via the superior and inferior vena cavae!
The heart has four chambers: two atria and two ventricles.
The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body and pumps it to the right ventricle.
The right ventricle pumps the oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
The left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.
The left ventricle pumps the oxygen-rich blood to the body.
Hope this helps!
what is difference between self pollination and cross pollination? Help me
Answers
Answer:
Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on a different individual of the same species. Self-pollination occurs in flowers where the stamen and carpel mature at the same time, and are positioned so that the pollen can land on the flower's stigma.
forest responses to simulated elevated co2 under alternate hypotheses of size- and age-dependent mortality
Answers
The study investigated how forests respond to simulated elevated CO2 levels under alternate hypotheses of size- and age-dependent mortality.
In this research, the scientists aimed to understand the effects of increased CO2 concentrations on forest dynamics, specifically considering different hypotheses related to mortality based on tree size and age. By examining size- and age-dependent mortality patterns under elevated CO2, the study provides insights into how forests may respond to future climate change scenarios. Understanding the complex interactions between elevated CO2, forest growth, and mortality dynamics is crucial for predicting the long-term impacts of climate change on forest ecosystems. This research contributes to our knowledge of forest ecology and helps inform strategies for sustainable forest management in the face of environmental changes.
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