Galvanic machine uses direct current to drive active ingredients deep into the skin for improved circulation, hydration, and skin tightening.
A galvanic machine, also known as a galvanic facial machine, is a device used in facial treatments to improve the health and appearance of the skin. The machine uses direct current to create a low-level electric current that drives active ingredients deeper into the skin. This process is known as iontophoresis and helps to improve circulation, hydration, and skin tightening. The galvanic machine is also effective in removing impurities from the skin, such as dirt and oil, by using a process called desincrustation. This process breaks down oil and sebum, allowing for easier extraction of blackheads and other impurities from the skin. Overall, the galvanic machine can provide a range of benefits for the skin, including improved hydration, circulation, and a brighter, healthier complexion.
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BM40006E Molecular Biology Module: Assessment A3
4
Question 7
The image below summarizes the process of RNA spicing
A: which number in the image above corresponds to the lariat structure?
RNA splicing is a crucial process in the nucleus where introns are removed, exons are joined, and a mature mRNA transcript is formed. Splicing is mediated by the spliceosome and coupled to transcription, ensuring proper gene expression and protein isoform generation.
RNA splicing is a process that takes place within the nucleus of a cell. During this process, specific sequences within an RNA molecule, known as introns, are removed, while other sequences, known as exons, are spliced together to form the mature mRNA transcript. The lariat structure corresponds to number 3. The internal branch point corresponds to number 4. The intron/exon boundary corresponds to number 2. The 5’ end of the RNA corresponds to number 1. The 3’ end of the RNA corresponds to the number 7. The protein/RNA complexes that are responsible for mediating the splicing reaction are called the spliceosome. Splicing is coupled to transcription, which helps to ensure that the introns are removed in the correct order.RNA splicing is a highly regulated process that is essential for gene expression in eukaryotes. The process involves the removal of non-coding regions known as introns from the pre-mRNA molecule, which is then spliced together to form the mature mRNA transcript. The splicing reaction is mediated by the spliceosome, which is a large protein/RNA complex that recognizes specific RNA sequences and catalyzes the splicing reaction. The splicing process is coupled to transcription, which ensures that introns are removed in the correct order. This process is essential for the regulation of gene expression and the generation of diverse protein isoforms.For more questions on RNA
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The correct question would be as
The image below summarizes the process of RNA splicing A: which number in the image above corresponds to the lariat structure? B: which number in the image above corresponds to the internal branch point? C: which number in the image above corresponds to the intron/exon boundary? D: which number in the image above corresponds to the 5’ end of the RNA? E: which number in the image above corresponds to the 3’ end of the RNA? F: which protein/RNA complexes are responsible for mediating the splicing reaction? G: which process is splicing coupled to in order to ensure the introns are removed in the correct order?
which class of medication promotes urine production to reduce blood volume
Answer:
Diuretics are known for their ability to increase the formation and excretion of urine. The increase in excretion allows for more water and sodium to be removed, and ultimately affects the vascular system by leading to a decrease in fluid volume.
Explanation:
based on age of onset, when is anorexia nervosa most likely to begin?
Answer:
Early to middle adolescent years
What is the name of the layer that encloses and protects the heart?
A.endocardium
B. myocardium
C. epicardium
D. pericardium
OE. septum
I need help plz hurry :(
Human milk (breast milk) is perfectly formulated for the developing infant's body. Cow's milk is not advisable for children under age one because its nutritional profile does not match a human infant's needs. Determine whether human milk or cow's milk has more of each of the following nutrients
More lipids and carbs are found in human milk.
More nutrients and protein are found in cow milk.
Which of the following actions is advised to reduce morning sickness during pregnancy?Drink 6 to 8 glasses of caffeine-free liquids per day. Be aware of what makes you feel sick. Refrain from eating or breathing anything that seems to make you sicker. Be cautious when using prenatal vitamins.
Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between metabolic efficiency and longevity is true?Which of the following statements on the effect that metabolic efficiency has on longevity is true? People with a quick metabolism tend to accumulate less fat and are less prone to chronic diseases that are weight-related; Less calories are needed for metabolic processes in a "thrifty" metabolism.
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For a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following nursing actions can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a. Assessing the patient for jaundice
b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal
c. Palpating the abdomen for distention
d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet
For a patient with cirrhosis, For a patient with cirrhosis, is a nursing actions that the registered nurse (RN) can delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The correct option is b).
a. Assessing the patient for jaundice: Assessing for jaundice involves observing the yellowing of the skin and eyes, which requires clinical judgment and knowledge to recognize. This task is best performed by the registered nurse (RN) who can interpret and analyze the findings accurately. Therefore, it would not be appropriate to delegate this task to a UAP.
b. Providing oral hygiene after a meal: Providing oral hygiene after a meal is within the scope of practice for a UAP. It involves assisting the patient with brushing their teeth, cleaning their mouth, and maintaining oral hygiene. The UAP can perform this task under the supervision and guidance of the RN.
c. Palpating the abdomen for distention: Palpating the abdomen for distention requires the ability to recognize abnormal findings and interpret them in the context of the patient's condition. This task requires advanced assessment skills and clinical judgment, making it more appropriate for an RN to perform.
d. Assisting the patient to choose the diet: Assisting the patient in choosing a diet involves providing education, guidance, and considering the patient's dietary restrictions and individual needs. This task requires knowledge of the patient's condition and appropriate diet recommendations. Therefore, it is best performed by the RN.
In summary, the nursing action that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a patient with cirrhosis is providing oral hygiene after a meal. Tasks that involve assessment, clinical judgment, and decision-making, such as assessing for jaundice, palpating the abdomen, and assisting with diet choices, are best performed by the registered nurse (RN). Hence option b) is the answer.
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radiation applied to a tumor from a distant source using a linear accelerator is:
Radiation applied to a tumor from a distant source using a linear accelerator is called external beam radiation therapy (EBRT).
External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is a common method of treating cancerous tumors by delivering high-energy X-rays or particles from a linear accelerator. The linear accelerator generates and accelerates charged particles, creating the radiation beam that targets the tumor while minimizing exposure to surrounding healthy tissue.
EBRT involves multiple treatment sessions, typically given over several weeks, depending on the tumor's size, type, and location. This non-invasive procedure can be tailored to match the tumor's shape, sparing healthy tissues, and reducing side effects. The precise targeting ensures effective treatment, making it a preferred option for various types of cancer, such as lung, breast, prostate, and head and neck cancers.
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Which nursing action should be initiated first when there is evidence of prolapsed cord?
1
Notify the health care provider.
2
Apply a scalp electrode.
3
Prepare the woman for an emergency cesarean birth.
4
Reposition the woman with her hips higher than her head.
The nursing action that should be initiated first when there is evidence of prolapsed cord is to reposition the woman with her hips higher than her head (Option 4).
What is a prolapsed cord?An umbilical cord prolapse happens when the umbilical cord slips down in front of the baby after the waters have broken. The cord can then come through the open cervix (entrance of the womb). It usually happens during labour but can occur when the waters break before labour starts.
Repositioning the woman with her hips higher than her head can help relieve pressure on the cord and increase blood flow to the fetus. The healthcare provider should be notified immediately and the woman should be prepared for an emergency cesarean birth. Applying a scalp electrode is not a priority in this situation.
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state some reasons immune self-tolerance may fail and give examples of the resulting diseases (see 21.6b ""autoimmune diseases"" in your text)
Answer:
Explanation:
Immune self-tolerance can fail for various reasons, resulting in autoimmune diseases. Some factors include genetic susceptibility, environmental triggers, loss of tolerance mechanisms, molecular mimicry, and dysregulation of regulatory T cells. Examples of autoimmune diseases include systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis (RA), type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis (MS), and autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1 (APS-1).
Frank is overweight and seems unable to stick to any diet. Although his diet efforts suggest that he wants to lose weight, he denies it and says that he is happy with his body the way it is. Frank is trying to reduce his feelings of
Answer:
cognitive dissonance
Explanation:
his actions are not matching his emotions, so he is trying to make them match each other
CAN WE PREVENT FROM CORONA . WHY WHY NOT?
What is the best book that content all Disease and all things related with it
Answer:
There is no single book that covers all diseases comprehensively, as the field of medicine and healthcare is constantly evolving with new research and discoveries. However, there are several well-regarded medical reference books that provide detailed information on various diseases, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.One example is Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, which is a comprehensive textbook that covers a wide range of medical topics, including diseases and conditions, pharmacology, and clinical procedures. Another resource is the Merck Manual of Diagnosis and Therapy, which is a trusted reference guide for healthcare professionals and patients alike. Both of these resources are regularly updated with the latest information in the field of medicine. However, it's important to note that these books are intended for medical professionals and may be too technical or complex for general readers.
what is the WHO formula for ORT
Answer:
ORS consists of 4 constituents: 1. sodium chloride, 3.5 grams; 2. trisodium citrate, dihydrate, 2.9 grams; 3. potassium chloride, 1.5 grams; 4.
Explanation:
I think .... im not sure though
What is the function of the pons?
The function of the pons is to serve as a relay center between different parts of the brain, particularly the medulla and the cerebrum.
Where is Pons located?The pons is a structure located in the brainstem, which is the region of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It sits between the medulla oblongata and the midbrain, and it plays an important role in several key functions of the brain.
Functions of Pons:
One of the primary functions of the pons is to act as a bridge, connecting different parts of the brain together. Specifically, it helps to relay information between the cerebellum and the cerebral cortex, which are two important regions of the brain that are involved in movement, coordination, and sensory processing. The pons also helps to regulate breathing, sleep, and other autonomic functions of the body. Overall, the pons is a critical part of the brain that plays a vital role in many essential functions of the body.
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a primiparous patientwho underwent a secarean birth 30 minutes ago is to receive rho(d) ummune globulin (rhogam). the nurse should administer the medication within which time frame after birth?
Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is a medication that is given to Rh-negative mothers who have given birth to Rh-positive babies to prevent sensitization to the Rh factor.
In the case of a primiparous patient who underwent a cesarean birth 30 minutes ago, the nurse should administer RhoGAM as soon as possible, ideally within 72 hours of delivery.
The administration of RhoGAM is important to prevent sensitization to the Rh factor that may occur during delivery when fetal and maternal blood can mix. By administering RhoGAM within the recommended timeframe, the medication can prevent the mother's immune system from producing antibodies against the Rh factor that may affect future pregnancies.
It is important for healthcare providers to follow the recommended guidelines for the administration of RhoGAM to prevent potential complications for future pregnancies.
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A primiparous patient who underwent a cesarean birth 30 minutes ago is to receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). The nurse should administer the medication within 72 hours (3 days) after birth.
According to medical guidelines, the nurse should administer rho(d) immune globulin (Rhogam) within 72 hours after birth in cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. However, in this specific case where the primiparous patient underwent a C-section birth, the nurse should administer Rhogam within 30 minutes after birth. This is because there is a higher risk of fetal-maternal bleeding during a C-section, which can lead to the mixing of fetal and maternal blood and increase the chances of sensitization. It is crucial to administer Rhogam within this time frame to prevent the mother's immune system from attacking any Rh-positive cells in future pregnancies.
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Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.
The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.
What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.
Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.
Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.
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Unit Test
This Venn diagram compares two pharmacy reference books. Each circle contains information particular to each sentence, and the overlap is the comparison between the two references.
Title 1
-Information for physicians
-Tables for comparing similar
-Indications for drugs
Warnings and side effects of drugs
Title 2
-Monographs of pharmacy
-Information on history of pharmacy
Which choice shows the BEST titles for each circle?
A. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Facts and Comparisons.
B. Title 1 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) and Title 2 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy.
C. Title 1 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR) and Title 2 is Facts and Comparisons.
D. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
Please select the best answer provided
Answer:
D. Title 1 is Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy and Title 2 is Physician's Desk Reference (PDR)
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which statement indicates the nurse has a correct understanding about trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia (cluster headaches)
Trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia is a category of headache disorders that are characterized by unilateral head pain with autonomic phenomena.
There are many types of cluster headache disorders, which are a part of this category. Following are the statement indicates the nurse has a correct understanding about trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia (cluster headaches):" Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating, unilateral pain that is focused on the orbit, temple, or forehead. The pain is typically severe and frequently described as "drilling" or "burning," with a rapid onset and peak within 15-30 minutes. Pain may radiate into the neck or shoulder on the affected side, and there may be a sense of agitation or restlessness." The above statement is correct because it summarizes the key characteristics of cluster headaches, which are a type of trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia. These headaches are unilateral and involve the orbit, temple, or forehead. The pain is severe and often described as "drilling" or "burning," and may be accompanied by restlessness or agitation. Additionally, pain may radiate into the neck or shoulder on the affected side. Therefore, the statement is appropriate for indicating the correct understanding of cluster headaches.
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true or false: any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.true false question.truefalse
It is true that Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused.
The given statement "Any drug that produces effects might produce some benefit when used carefully and has the potential to produce harm when abused." is True because sensitization is defined as a drug-induced decrease in resistance to a pharmacological action as a result of past drug exposure.
A drug is any chemical substance that, when eaten, induces a change in the physiology or psychology of an organism. Food and substances that provide nutritional support are frequently distinguished from medications. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed through a skin patch, suppository, or dissolved beneath the tongue.
A drug is a chemical substance having a well-defined structure that, when administered to a living being, has a biological impact. A pharmaceutical drug, often known as a medication or medicine, is a chemical compound that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease, or to improve health. Psychoactive medicines are chemical compounds that modify the central nervous system's function, affecting perception, mood, or awareness.
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In the practice of a pharmacy, to ensure medication errors are kept to a minimum
In the practice of a pharmacy, various strategies are implemented to ensure medication errors are kept to a minimum. This includes proper staff training, effective communication, and adherence to established protocols, all of which contribute to safe and accurate medication management.
In the practice of a pharmacy, there are several measures that can be taken to ensure medication errors are kept to a minimum. These measures may include double-checking prescriptions, verifying patient information, confirming dosages, and utilizing electronic systems to track medication usage.
Additionally, regular training and continuing education for pharmacists and pharmacy technicians can help to improve their knowledge and skills, leading to greater accuracy and reduced errors. Ultimately, a strong commitment to patient safety and a culture of open communication and transparency can also contribute to minimizing medication errors in the practice of a pharmacy.
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List all the bones on your thumb from proximal to distal. Do the same for your pinky finger.
What is the difference?
Answer:
Thumb= distal phalanx, promixal phalanx, metacarpal
Pinky= distal phalanges ,middle phalanges, prominal phalanges, metacarpal
Explanation:
Thumb bone from proximal to distal. Daumen = distale Phalanx, proximale Phalanx, Mittelhandknochen
Pinky = distale Phalangen, mittlere Phalangen, pronominale Phalangen, Mittelhandknochen.
What are the 14 phalanges?The phalange is one of the bones of the fingers and toes. Beim Menschen gibt es 14 Fingerglieder in jeder Hand und jedem Fuß, 2 in jedem Daumen und großen Zeh und 3 in den verbleibenden Fingern. They are connected to the metacarpal bones of the hands and the metatarsals of the feet.
What is a phalange?The phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers and toes. The human body has 56 phalanges, and each hand and foot has 14 phalanges. Each finger and toe has three phalanges, except that there are only two big toes and two big toes.
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the second-generation antipsychotic drugs were called atypical because:
The second-generation antipsychotic drugs were called atypical because they have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) compared to first-generation antipsychotic drugs. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs were referred to as atypical because they have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) compared to first-generation antipsychotic drugs.
Parkinsonism, dystonia, and akathisia are examples of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS). The term "atypical" arose because second-generation antipsychotics' pharmacology differed from that of first-generation antipsychotics. Second-generation antipsychotics block serotonin receptors, which are absent in first-generation antipsychotics. Second-generation antipsychotics are also called atypical antipsychotics because they are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia, a significant neurological condition that causes abnormal, involuntary movements of the body. Atypical antipsychotics are used to treat a wide range of psychiatric disorders. They are especially effective in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, emotional withdrawal, and lack of motivation. They also show effectiveness in treating bipolar disorder, depression, and anxiety.
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an acne-like rash, diarrhea, lack of appetite, delayed wound healing, impaired immunity, reduced sense of taste and smell, and hair loss are all symptoms of a deficiency.
An acne-like rash, diarrhea, lack of appetite, delayed wound healing, impaired immunity, reduced sense of taste and smell, and hair loss are all symptoms of a zinc deficiency.
Zinc deficiency may end up in skin changes that seem like skin problem initially. There is also cracks and a glazed look on the skin, typically found round the mouth, nappy space and hands. The rash does not regain with moisturizers or steroid creams or lotions.
However, there are 3 chief causes of associate underlying Zinc deficiency are not taking in enough Zinc through one's appetite, losing excess amounts of Zinc from the body, like through poor absorption, individuals with chronic conditions face hair fall problems.
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of the following hypothes bel EARLIAL For each Maut the independent variable (Y) and the Agendent variabl 1) A professor analyzed whether female or male nursing students achie higher grades in medical-surgical uning courses. 2) A researcher explored the effect of critical care nurses' work schem on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU. Ans: 3) A study to ascertain whether gender identity affects neural resp infant cries.
Hypothesis testing is the procedure by which we test if a hypothesis is statistically significant or not. Statistical significance tests a hypothesis' accuracy by computing the likelihood of obtaining a result as a result of random chance or some other influence.
In this post, I'll go through the three hypotheses and clarify each of them in greater detail.The hypotheses are as follows:
1. A professor analyzed whether female or male nursing students achier higher grades in medical-surgical using courses. An independent variable is a variable that is influenced by the dependent variable. In the given hypothesis, the dependent variable (Y) is the grades of nursing students in medical-surgical courses, and the independent variable is gender. In this hypothesis, the aim is to determine whether male or female students perform better in medical-surgical nursing courses.
2. A researcher explored the effect of critical care nurses' work scheme on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU.The dependent variable (Y) in this hypothesis is the incidence of medication errors in the ICU, while the independent variable is critical care nurses' work scheme. This hypothesis intends to investigate whether the work schedule of critical care nurses has an effect on the incidence of medication errors in the ICU.
3. A study to ascertain whether gender identity affects neural resp infant cries. In this hypothesis, the dependent variable (Y) is the neural response to infant cries, while the independent variable is gender identity. This hypothesis intends to investigate whether gender identity has an effect on the neural response to infant cries.
Conclusion: In summary, hypothesis testing is a statistical method that helps us test whether a hypothesis is statistically significant or not. In the given hypotheses, the researchers aim to investigate the relationship between the dependent and independent variables. Through hypothesis testing, researchers can determine if there is a relationship between the two variables, and if so, to what extent.
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Which condition would most likely involve an inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs, leading to respiratory distress
The condition that most likely involves an inflammation of the main air passages to the lungs, leading to respiratory distress, is known as asthma.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways. When a person with asthma is exposed to triggers such as allergens, irritants, exercise, or respiratory infections, the airways become inflamed and constricted. This leads to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
During an asthma flare-up or attack, the air passages become even more narrowed, making it difficult for air to flow in and out of the lungs. This can result in severe respiratory distress, with individuals struggling to breathe properly.
Asthma is a common condition that can be managed with appropriate treatment and medications, such as bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory drugs. It is important for individuals with asthma to work with healthcare professionals to develop an asthma action plan, which includes strategies to prevent triggers, control symptoms, and effectively manage asthma exacerbations to prevent respiratory distress.
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The number of people living with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is high in Miami and the U.S. The Miami Department of Health reported that there were a total of 1.6 million cases as of May 2022. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention reported the U.S. total for T2DM at 37 million cases. In June 2022, 200,000 Miami reported a new T2DM diagnosis. In the U.S., 1.5 million new cases were reported in this same month.
The total population of people living in Miami is 8.38 million. The total population of people living in the United States is 329.5 million people. Calculate the prevalence rate in the United States per thousand. Round to the nearest whole number.
Answer: 11
Explanation:
Prevalence rate = # cases in the sample / # of total people in the sample *100
When looking at the Prev. Rate for the U.S. you need to identify the info specified above in the question
from your paragraph # of cases in sample of US = 37 million
from your paragraph # of people in US = 329.5 million
meaning that Prev. Rate = 37 million/329.5 million * 100
--> at this point, you can drop the million because both numbers have the same 'base'
so you are left with 37/329.5 *100
which is equal to 0.11229135053 *100
which = 11.229135053
rounded to the nearest whole = 11
To calculate the prevalence rate in the United States per thousand, we can use the formula:
Prevalence rate per thousand = (number of cases / total population) x 1000
From the given information, the number of cases of T2DM in the U.S. is 37 million, and the total population is 329.5 million.
Plugging these values into the formula, we get:
Prevalence rate per thousand = (37,000,000 / 329,500,000) x 1000 Prevalence rate per thousand = 112.3
Rounding to the nearest whole number, we get a prevalence rate of 112 per thousand in the U.S.
Therefore, the prevalence rate of T2DM in the United States per thousand is 112.
Cindy is able to perform more complicated and invasive procedures in her job. She is the direct aid to a famous heart surgeon. Which of the following roles is most likely her job? EKG technician Medical assistant Invasive cardiovascular technologist O none of the above
Answer: Medical Assistant
Explanation:
A Cardiologist is someone who specializes in the study or treatment of heart diseases and heart abnormalities. It says she is "direct aid to a famous heart surgeon." There for it would either be Medical assistant or none of the above.
Taniya, who is 68, discusses with her doctor how some of her knuckles are hurting more and more frequently. The doctor describes how joints such as knuckles weaken with aging as cartilage softens and breaks down. The doctor then prescribes a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug called celecoxib. Why will celecoxib help Taniya?
The drug will increase osteoblast activity to help reduce the damage caused by osteoporosis, thereby slowing the effects of aging.
The drug will stop osteoclast activity in order to reverse the signs of aging caused by osteoporosis.
The drug will increase prostaglandin production and reduce inflammation caused by osteoarthritis, thereby reversing the signs of aging.
The drug will stop prostaglandin production and end inflammation caused by osteoarthritis, thereby slowing the effects of aging.
Answer: it is the last one i think sorry if it is worg
Explanation:
an expert panel of infectious disease physicians were asked to determine the most accurate clinical criteria to determine if a patient was experiencing septic shock.
The most accurate clinical criteria to determine if a patient was experiencing septic shock is hypotension followed by MAP and serum lactate.
Septic stun happens due to sepsis and leads to a major diminish in tissue perfusion to organs and tissues. So, in other words, stun (which is where cells are denied oxygen due to the need for perfusion) happens since of an attack by a microorganism (septic).
Persistent hypotension (<90 SBP) that doesn’t react to IV fluids Needs vasopressors (case Norepinephrine) to preserve perfusion (an Outline >65 mmHg) MAP (cruel blood vessel weight).
This number tells us how well crucial organs are being perfused. If it’s lower than 65 mmHg, the organs aren’t being perfused exceptionally well.
Serum Lactate >2 mmol/L Remember from our video on “stages of shock” we talked almost how when cells begin to battle (subsequently not getting sufficient oxygen due to a diminish in tissue perfusion) they will switch from high-impact to an anaerobic digestion system.
The result of an anaerobic digestion system is the buildup of lactic corrosive within the blood. In this manner, due to diminished tissue perfusion, the serum lactate will be lifted.
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How do communicate location on the human bidy and why is it not feaible to simply use the up/ down
Answer:
You can use different terms like distal, proximal, lateral, medial, etc.
Explanation:
You shouldn't use up or down because it can get confusing and complicated.