The citation you provided is a reference to a research article titled "Low Educational Attainment is a Predictor of Adverse Outcomes in Patients with Coronary Artery Disease," published in the Journal of the American Heart Association in 2019. Here is the breakdown of the citation:
Authors: Kelli HM, Mehta A, Tahhan AS, et al.
Title: Low educational attainment is a predictor of adverse outcomes in patients with coronary artery disease.
Journal: Journal of the American Heart Association
Year: 2019
Volume: 8
Issue: 17
Page: e013165
DOI: 10.1161/jaha.119.013165
The study focuses on investigating the relationship between educational attainment and outcomes in patients with coronary artery disease. Based on the information provided in the citation, it suggests that having a low level of education is associated with poorer outcomes for individuals with coronary artery disease. The DOI (Digital Object Identifier) is a unique identifier for the article and can be used to access the full text of the publication.
know more about research article here
https://brainly.com/question/30129262#
#SPJ11
What is that which keeps the MRI functioning
Answer:
The helium liquid which keeps the strong magnet in super cooling mode. This makes it superconducting
Answer: GoodMorning)✨The helium liquid which keeps the strong magnet in super cooling mode. This makes it superconductingMRIs employ powerful magnets which produce a strong magnetic field that forces protons in the body to align with that field. When a radiofrequency current is then pulsed through the patient, the protons are stimulated, and spin out of equilibrium, straining against the pull of the magnetic field.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a type of scan that uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the inside of the body.
Have A Nice Day : )
A group of nurses are reviewing several client's medical history. Which of the following clients may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy?
A.A client in the third trimester of pregnancy taking iron
B.An elderly client who has pancreatitis and taking enzymes
C.A client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications
D.An adult client who has type 2 dm and is taking insulin
The client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy.
What are Extrapyramidal Symptoms?
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are a group of side effects that occur when taking specific types of medications.
These symptoms include tremors, rigid muscles, slurred speech, shuffling walk, and other involuntary movements.
EPS are more commonly associated with the use of antipsychotic medications that are used to treat schizophrenia and other psychiatric disorders.
Explanation:
The correct option is C.
To know more about medications visit:
https://brainly.com/question/28335307
#SPJ11
If a refill request is denied, you must contact the?
Answer:
You can call your doctor's office and ask to approve the refill over the phone. Some pharmacies can also do this for you. For instance, you can call your local pharmacy and ask them to contact your doctor to approve a refill.
If a refill request is denied, you must contact the prescribing healthcare provider or physician.
When a refill request is denied, it means that the healthcare provider or physician has determined that the prescription should not be refilled for various reasons. To address this situation, it is necessary to communicate directly with the prescribing healthcare provider or physician to understand the reason for the denial and discuss any alternatives or necessary adjustments to the medication regimen.
Contacting the prescribing healthcare provider allows for clarification, further assessment, or discussion of alternative treatment options, if applicable. They have the authority to make decisions regarding medication refills based on their medical expertise and the specific needs of the patient.
To know more about physician here
https://brainly.com/question/925545
#SPJ2
The amount of tension produced by a muscle cell will parallel the number of cross bridges that are created.
True
Or
False
Consider the primary functions of the muscular system. How are these functions critical to survival? Explain your answer.
1. Rx: Ampicillin 250-mg caps, 500 mg po q8h X 10 days. How many capsules
are needed to fill the prescription?
A 31-year-old woman newly diagnosed with HIV and her initial CD4 count is 238 cells/mm3. The plan is to immediately start antiretroviral therapy.
Which one of the following medications requires baseline HLA-B*5701 testing to identify persons at increased risk of developing a medication-related hypersensitivity reaction?
Abacavir
Abacavir is the required medication.
What is HIV?
HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, attacks the body’s infection fighting cells, which makes a person vulnerable to diseases and infections. More specifically, HIV attacks the white blood cells called the CD4++ cells.
There is no effective cure for HIV, so once you contract the virus, it stays for life. There is an effective treatment with HIV medicine. But, if left untreated, HIV can lead to AIDS, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
AIDS is the last stage of HIV. This occurs when the immune system of the body is badly damaged.
Therefore, Abacavir is the required medication.
Learn more about HIV here: https://brainly.com/question/1686219
#SPJ4
How many dosage should I use tobramycin and dexamethasone ophthalmic suspension?
The dosage of tobramycin and the dexamethasone ophthalmic suspension should be Use 1 or 2 drops in the eye every four to six hours.
Dexamethasone eye drops are in a class of drugs called steroids (corticosteroids). Steroids are copies of hormones that the body makes naturally. They are not all the same as anabolic steroids. They are used to treat eye inflammation by reducing swelling, redness, and irritation. Tobramycin and dexamethasone are a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids. It is used in the eyes to prevent permanent damage that can occur with certain eye problems. This drug is not available without a prescription. Vision problems - blurred or cloudy vision that does not improve or worsen. These may be signs of increased intraocular pressure (glaucoma) or cataracts. Eye pain - This can be a sign of an ulcer on the surface of the eye.
To know more about Tobramycin visit:
https://brainly.com/question/13888193?referrer=searchResults
#SPJ4
To counter the inflammation caused by a bee sting, your friend Alan takes an antihistamine. What type of blood cell’s activity is this helping to counteract?
A. neutrophils
B. lymphocytes
C. erythrocytes
D. basophils
Answer:
The activity of blood cells that can be counteracted by an antihistamine is the release of histamine by basophils (option D).
Explanation:
Histamine is an inflammatory mediator produced and released by the body in response to an allergic or hypersensitivity reaction. This substance is produced by the mast cell, a basophilic leukocyte that participates in the immune response.
When a person produces an allergic reaction, such as from a bee sting, the presence of the bee venom causes the mast cells to release the histamine they contain, producing capillary vasodilation and the signs of inflammation.
Anti-histamines are a type of medication that prevent mast cells from releasing histamine.
The other options are not correct because cells like erythrocytes, neutrophils or lymphocytes do not contain histamine.
Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase of an injury?a. velocity-specific muscle activitiesb. closed kinetic chain exercisec. proprioceptive training activitiesd. submaximal isokinetic exercise
The exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase of an injury is option B) closed kinetic chain exercise.
Closed kinetic chain exercises involve weight-bearing activities that stimulate the muscles and joints around the injury, promoting healing and improving function. This type of exercise helps to strengthen the injured area, improve balance, and reduce the risk of future injury. Velocity-specific muscle activities, proprioceptive training activities, and submaximal isokinetic exercise may be incorporated at other stages of the rehabilitation process, but are not specific to the fibroblastic repair phase.
Closed kinetic chain exercise, which entails weight-bearing exercises requiring the coordinated activation of numerous joints and muscle groups, is one training approach used during this phase. Exercises of this kind can support stability, proprioception, and neuromuscular control, all of which are crucial for regaining normal movement patterns and avoiding further damage. Gentle range-of-motion exercises, isometric contractions, and low-intensity cardiovascular exercise are possible additional exercise techniques during this phase.
Learn more about fibroblastic repair phase here:
https://brainly.com/question/24629430
#SPJ11
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: A. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. B. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. C. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, it is important for the EMT to carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. Scapular fractures are not typically life-threatening, but they can indicate significant force was applied to the back. It is important to ensure the patient is breathing properly and to provide appropriate care and transport. Applying rigid board splints across the chest and back may not be necessary for this type of injury.
C. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
Fractures in the scapula can result from significant force and may cause damage to the surrounding tissues and organs, including the lungs. Assessing for breathing problems helps to identify any potential complications and ensures proper management of the patient's condition.
Learn more about Scapula:
brainly.com/question/30512955
#SPJ11
VO2max is:
Question 5 options:
An indicator of cardiovascular endurance
The maximum amount of oxygen uptake by the body
Influenced by arteriovenous oxygen difference and cardiac output
All of the above
VO2max implies all the given statement " All of the above statements are true."
What is VO2max?VO2max refers to the maximum amount of oxygen that a person can consume and utilize during exercise. It is considered to be one of the best indicators of cardiovascular endurance and aerobic fitness.
The amount of oxygen that a person can consume and utilize is influenced by both arteriovenous oxygen difference (the difference in oxygen concentration between the arterial blood and the venous blood) and cardiac output (the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute).
Therefore, these factors also play a role in determining VO2max.
Learn more about maximum amount of oxygen here: https://brainly.com/question/29156523
#SPJ1
A 50 y/o known alcoholic presents to the ER with tonic clonic seizures. BP 180/110, HR 118, T 100.1
Best initial treatment of our patient?
The best initial treatment for a 50-year-old known alcoholic presenting to the ER with tonic-clonic seizures and high blood pressure of 180/110, heart rate of 118, and a fever of 100.1 would be to administer benzodiazepines to control the seizures.
This is because benzodiazepines are the first-line treatment for seizures and can help to stop the seizure activity quickly. After the seizures are under control, the medical team can work to manage the patient's high blood pressure and fever.
In addition, the patient's history of alcoholism should be taken into account as it may be a contributing factor to the seizure activity. The patient may also require additional medications to help manage their alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which can further exacerbate their condition.
It is important to closely monitor the patient's vital signs, fluid and electrolyte balance, and manage any potential complications that may arise from their condition. Close follow-up care and support will also be important for this patient's ongoing recovery.
You can learn more about tonic-clonic seizures at: brainly.com/question/28583087
#SPJ11
I agree that when your product makes it through the approval process, Physicians and patients will have more than one medicine to use for their ailment.
The more treatment options you come up with, the more costly it is to produce biosimilar products. Moreover, it becomes more complicated to assimilate them into the reference drug. How are you willing to advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options?
To manage the expenses associated with developing treatment options, it is essential to carefully evaluate the potential benefits, align with reliable partners, and stay updated with the regulatory landscape.
To advise your company on the expensive process of coming up with treatment options, it is important to consider several factors. Firstly, conducting thorough research and development to identify potential treatment options can be costly. It is crucial to assess the market demand, potential patient benefits, and regulatory requirements for each option before proceeding.
Additionally, the manufacturing process of biosimilar products can be complex and expensive. Ensuring quality and consistency in production requires significant investment in technology, equipment, and expertise. Collaborating with experienced manufacturers and investing in robust quality control systems can help mitigate these challenges.
Moreover, integrating biosimilar products into the reference drug landscape can be a complex task. It involves navigating regulatory pathways, addressing intellectual property considerations, and establishing effective marketing strategies. Engaging with regulatory bodies, collaborating with legal experts, and conducting comprehensive market analysis can facilitate this process.
Additionally, optimizing internal processes and investing in research and development can help drive cost-efficiency while ensuring the availability of multiple treatment options for physicians and patients.
Learn more about potential benefits here :-
https://brainly.com/question/30521481
#SPJ11
How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
To learn more about genetic mutations
https://brainly.com/question/14438201
#SPJ8
When blocked by drugs, beta blockers heart rate slows and demand for ______________ in the heart decreases, lowering blood pressure. Fill in the blank.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube set to continuous low suction following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
When a nurse should report findings to a healthcare provider when caring for a client with an NG tube set to continuous low suction following a gastrectomy.
In general, the nurse should report any significant or concerning findings to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
The specific findings that should be reported can vary depending on the client's condition, the type of surgery performed, and any specific instructions or precautions given by the healthcare team.
However, some common findings that may warrant reporting include:
Excessive or bright red bleeding from the NG tube: Significant bleeding could indicate a complication such as an anastomotic leak or bleeding from the surgical site.
Increased abdominal pain or discomfort: Persistent or worsening abdominal pain may indicate an underlying issue such as bowel obstruction, perforation, or infection.
Signs of infection: This may include fever, increased redness or swelling around the incision site, purulent drainage, or foul odor from the NG tube.
Vomiting or inability to tolerate oral intake: Continuous low suction is typically used to drain gastric contents and prevent vomiting.
If the client is experiencing persistent or severe vomiting or is unable to tolerate any oral intake, it may indicate a problem that requires attention.
Distended abdomen or absent bowel sounds: These findings may suggest an obstruction or ileus, which can be complications following a gastrectomy.
Changes in NG tube drainage: Significant changes in the amount, color, consistency, or odor of the gastric drainage should be reported, as they may indicate an underlying issue.
It's essential for the nurse to communicate any abnormal findings promptly to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate assessment and intervention.
Each client's situation may vary, so it's important to follow the specific guidelines and protocols established by the healthcare team for the individual client.
To know more about gastrectomy refer here
brainly.com/question/30455136#
#SPJ11
Lisa heard celery has negative calories. The Internet article she read said it takes more calories to digest, absorb, and use the nutrients in celery than celery actually provides. Lisa wonders if she should try adding more celery to her diet to lose weight. Use the following information to determine which option best explains whether or not celery has negative calories. 1 cup of chopped celery has 15 Calories. If it took 6 minutes for a person to chew the celery before swallowing, that would use approximately 2 Calories. The thermic effect of food for celery would be approximately 1.5 Calories. Group of answer choices Celery does not have negative calories because 1 cup of chopped celery would still provide approximately 11.5 Calories to the body after someone chews, digests and absorbs the nutrients. Celery has negative calories because it provides fewer calories than what is needed to chew, digest, and absorb the nutrients.
Answer:
Celery has negative calories because it provides fewer calories than what is needed to chew, digest and absorb the nutrients.
Explanation:
Celery is considered as negative calories food because it is very low in calories. When a person wants to loose weight celery is a go to meal. It provides less calories to a person than he looses to consume it. When a person chews, and digests the celery his calories are loosed.
Celery does not have negative calories because 1 cup of chopped celery would still provide approximately 11.5 Calories to the body after someone chews, digests and absorbs the nutrients.
The thermic effect of food is an increase in metabolic rate that occurs after food is taken into the body, which is required for the digestion, absorption, and storage of the nutrients present in the food .
Negative calorie foods are foods which are assumed to provide less energy in calories than what is needed to chew, digest, and absorb the nutrients in them.
From the data provided:
1 cup of chopped celery has 15 Calories.6 minutes is required for a person to chew the celery before swallowing, that would use approximately 2 Calories.The thermic effect of food for celery would be approximately 1.5 Calories.Net calories obtained from 1 cup of celery = amount of calories in 1 cup - (calories used in chewing + calories for thermic effect)
Net calories obtained from 1 cup of celery = 15 - (2 + 1.5) calories
Net calories obtained from 1 cup of celery = 11.5 calories.
Thus, celery does not have negative calories because 1 cup of chopped celery would still provide approximately 11.5 Calories to the body after someone chews, digests and absorbs the nutrients.
Learn more about negative calories and nutrients at: https://brainly.com/question/15681591
Question: 1 of 60
Offer the client a straw to drink liquids.
A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when feeding the
client?
Place food toward the back of the client's mouth.
Encourage the client to lie down and rest for 30 min after meals.
Time Remaining: 08:11:10 PAUSE
Pause Remaining: 08:16:04
Instruct the client to tilt their head forward while eating.
FLAG
CONTINUE
The nurse should Instruct the client to tilt their head forward while eating.
In order to facilitate swallowing and avoid aspiration.
What is aspiration?In medical jargon, aspiration is the process of inhaling foreign matter into the lungs. It takes place when someone breathes in something that shouldn't be in their airways, such as food, vomit, saliva, or other liquids. Choking, coughing, and breathing difficulties may result from this. Aspiration can occasionally lead to major side effects like pneumonia or lung abscesses. Aspiration is most frequently observed in those with neurological or respiratory conditions that make it difficult for them to properly swallow. In critically ill patients who are unable to protect their airways, it is also a typical worry. Maintaining a good posture while eating, avoiding eating while lying down, and getting medical help if you have any swallowing issues are important prevention techniques.
To know more about aspiration, check out:
https://brainly.com/question/28283811
#SPJ1
To help with swallowing and to avoid aspiration, a client with dysphagia after a stroke should sit straight with her head angled forward.
What shouldn't nurses do for a patient with dysphagia?checking on the patient: It's crucial to regularly check a patient's meals. Foods that take a long time to chew or that can be challenging for the dysphagic patient to swallow should not be served. A patient who has trouble swallowing could only require clear liquids or might fare better on pureed foods.
Which of the following actions should be made to assist the dysphagic patient in swallowing and avoid aspiration?Texture modification of food and liquids and positional swallowing techniques, such as the chin-tuck, are the main techniques utilized to reduce aspiration during oral intake in dysphagic stroke patients.
To learn more about dysphagia visit:
brainly.com/question/10543522
#SPJ1
One way to avoid crashes is to
don't drink and drive it can cause serious crashes.
Which are parts of the respiratory system? Check all that apply. tracheotomy lungs nose trachea bronchi alveoli pneumoconiosis
Catapres(R) decreases stimulation of the GI tract and acts as a mild sedative. It is known as the only alpha-receptor drug used to treat
a. Crohn's disease.
b. GERD
c. ulcerative colitis
d. vertigo
Answer:
C. Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
You document these vitals for a patient:
VITALS: 120/89, 99.6 (R), 72, 14
What is the patient's pulse?
120
89
99.6
u
72
14
The vitals or vital signs are the measurement of individual basic and important functions. The medical professional will primarily monitor the pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and temperature.
The correct answer is 72, the pulse rate of a patient.
The vitals or the vital signs are the measurements of temperature, breathing rate, blood pressure, and heart rate.
The correct notations for writing the vital signs by a medical professional is:
BP (Blood Pressure), BT (Body Temperature), Pulse Rate(PR), and Respiratory Rate (RR).
The given data of Vitals: 120/89, 99.6 (R), 72, 14 suggests that :
120/80 - Blood Pressure
99.6 - Temperature
72 - Pulse Rate
14 - Respiratory Rate
Thus, the 72 is the pulse rate from the given vitals of a patient.
To know more about Vitals, refer to the following link:
https://brainly.com/question/8185989
little confused SOMEONE TELL ME <3
someone please hurry my time is running out !!!
* 1. Georgia is a coffee enthusiast and drinks three coffee drinks a day from a local coffee shop costing $1. 25 each. Being concerned with the expense of her coffee habit Georgia looks into making her own manual brewed coffee. A bag of premium coffee beans costs $70. 00, a coffee grinder costs $120. 00, and the manual coffee brewer costs $40. 0. If a bag of coffee makes enough for 100 cups, how many full bags of coffee does she need to consume before saving money
Before she can start saving money, she must consume three full bags of coffee. 3.1 cups of coffee are consumed daily by the average American coffee user.
These coffee shops frequently offer delicious food and drinks, making them ideal for a quick snack or light meal. You ruin your financial future every time you buy a coffee in a cafe. Complete bags of coffee must she eat before she begins to save money if a bag of coffee yields enough for 100 cups:
70 x 1 + 120 + 40 = 230 / 100 = 2.3
70 x 2 + 120 + 40 = 300 / 200 = 1.5
70 x 3 + 120 + 40 = 370 / 300 = 1.23
To know more about average American, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/3794836
#SPJ4
what are some causes of autonomic neuropathy
What part of the scaphoid is most at-risk for developing avascular necrosis and why?
Answer: Scaphoid nonunion advanced collapse (SNAC) is the end-stage and is managed with wrist fusion or proximal row carpectomy. Avascular necrosis - The incidence of this is approximately 30-40%. This is most likely to affect the proximal pole.
Explanation:
Which of the following children 18 years of age or younger are eligible to receive VFC vaccine? Select all answers that apply.
a. Children whose parents are insured through their employer
b. Children who are American Indian or Alaska Native
c. Children who are underinsured
d. Children who are eligible for Medicaid
The following children 18 years of age or younger are eligible to receive VFC vaccine : b). Children who are American Indian or Alaska Native and c.) Children who are underinsured. Hence, option b) and c) are the correct answer.
The VFC (Vaccines for Children) program is a federally funded program in the United States that provides vaccines at no cost to children who might not otherwise be vaccinated due to their inability to pay.
To answer the question, children who are 18 years of age or younger are eligible to receive VFC vaccine if they meet certain criteria. These criteria include:
1. Children who are eligible for Medicaid: Medicaid is a joint federal-state program that provides health coverage to low-income families and individuals. Children who are eligible for Medicaid are also eligible to receive VFC vaccine.
2. Children who are American Indian or Alaska Native: The Indian Health Service (IHS) provides healthcare to American Indians and Alaska Natives. Children who are members of these tribes are eligible to receive VFC vaccine through the IHS.
3. Children who are underinsured: Children who have health insurance that does not cover vaccines or who have a high deductible that must be met before vaccines are covered are considered underinsured. These children are also eligible to receive VFC vaccine.
4. Children whose parents are insured through their employer: Children whose parents have health insurance through their employer are not eligible for VFC vaccine, unless they meet one of the other eligibility criteria mentioned above.
To know more about VFC vaccine , refer
https://brainly.com/question/30506309
#SPJ11
The client's diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder is supported when the nurse documents what?
When a client reports "hearing voices" for the last three months, the client's schizoaffective disorder diagnosis is supported.
What is schizoaffective disorder?Schizoaffective disorder is a mental health disorder characterized by a combination of schizophrenia and mood disorder symptoms, such as depression or mania. Symptoms may appear simultaneously or sequentially.Severe symptom cycles are frequently followed by periods of improvement. Delusions, hallucinations, depressive episodes, and manic periods of high energy are all possible symptoms.Patients with this disorder benefit the most from a combination of medications and counseling.Some symptoms are Delusions — having false, fixed beliefs despite contrary evidence. Hearing voices for the last 3 months or seeing things that aren't there are examples of hallucinations. Communication and speech impairment, such as incoherence.Therefore, the client's diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder is supported when a client reports "hearing voices" for the last 3 months.
Know more about schizoaffective disorder here:
https://brainly.com/question/7333977
#SPJ4
Codes from category G81, Hemiplegia and hemiparesis, and subcategories G83.1, Monoplegia of lower limb, G83.2, Monoplegia of upper limb, and G83.3, Monoplegia, unspecified, identify whether the dominant or nondominant side is affected. Should the affected side be documented, but not specified as dominant or nondominant, and the classification system does not indicate a default, code selection is as follows:
• For ambidextrous patients, the default should be dominant. • If the left side is affected, the default is non-dominant. • If the right side is affected, the default is dominant.
The codes from category G81, which includes Hemiplegia and hemiparesis, and subcategories G83.1, Monoplegia of lower limb, G83.2, Monoplegia of upper limb, and G83.3, Monoplegia, unspecified, are used to identify whether the dominant or non-dominant side is affected.
If the affected side is not specified as dominant or non-dominant, and the classification system does not indicate a default, the code selection is as follows: for ambidextrous patients, the default should be dominant. If the left side is affected, the default is non-dominant, and if the right side is affected, the default is dominant. It is important to document the affected side to ensure accurate code selection.
Learn more about Hemiplegia here:
brainly.com/question/28042765
#SPJ11