Marissa's mom purchased coffee from the local coffee shop. The first cup of coffee was $3.75. Each refill is $1.50. She also decided to get a bagel for $3.15. If Marissa's mom had 2 refills and a $0.50 discount as part of the rewards program, how much did she spend at the coffee shop?

$11.40
$10.65
$9.90
$9.40

There are 32 different bit strings of length 7 that contain the substring "0000."

Here,

The number of different bit strings of length 7 that contain the string "0000" can be calculated as follows:

Since we want to count bit strings of length 7 that contain the substring "0000," we need to determine the positions where this substring can occur.

The bit string "0000" can start at positions 1, 2, 3, or 4 in a bit string of length 7.

For each starting position, there are two choices for each of the remaining three bits (either 0 or 1).

This is because we want all possible combinations of 0s and 1s for the remaining three bits.

So, for each starting position, there are 2³ = 8 possible combinations.

Since there are 4 possible starting positions for the substring "0000," the total number of bit strings of length 7 that contain "0000" is:

Total number of bit strings = Number of starting positions * Number of possible combinations for remaining bits

Total number of bit strings = 4 * 8 = 32

Therefore, there are 32 different bit strings of length 7 that contain the substring "0000."

learn more on bit strings :

https://brainly.com/question/14390561

#SPJ4

The circumference of the figure given is 43.96 mi   and the area is 153.86 mi²  .

In the question ,

it is given that ,

the radius of the given figure (circle) is = 7 mi

We know that formula for circumference of  circle is = 2πr

Substituting the radius as 7 mi , in the formula ,

we get ,

Circumference = 2*π*7

= 2*3.14*7              ,.......by using the value π = 3.14

= 43.96 mi

The formula for the Area of the Circle is given by

Area = π*r²

Substituting the radius = 7 mi in the area formula ,

we get ,

Area = π*7²

= π*49

= 3.14*49           ,.......by using the value π = 3.14

= 153.86 mi²

Therefore , The circumference of the figure given is 43.96 mi   and the area is 153.86 mi²  .

Learn more about Circles here

https://brainly.com/question/16125353

#SPJ1

Answer:

1/20

there are 20 students altogether

Step-by-step explanation:

um I'm not sure

Answer:

\(\huge\boxed{\sf x\leq 2}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(56-10x\geq 20+8x\\\\Subtract \ 20 \ from \ both \ sides\\\\56-20-10x\geq 8x\\\\36-10x\geq 8x\\\\Add \ 10x \ to \ both \ sides\\\\36\geq 8x+10x\\\\36\geq 18x\\\\Divide \ 18 \ to \ both \ sides\\\\2 \geq x\\\\OR\\\\x\leq 2\\\\\rule[225]{225}{2}\)

\(\bf{56-10x\geq 20+8x }\)

Subtract 8x on both sides.

\(\bf{56-10x-8x\geq 20 }\)

Combine −10x and −8x to get −18x.

\(\bf{56-18x\geq 20 }\)

Subtract 56 from both sides.

\(\bf{-18x\geq 20-56 }\)

Subtract 56 from 20 to get −36.

\(\bf{-18x\geq -36 }\)

Divide both sides by −18. Since −18 is <0, the inequality direction is changed.

\(\bf{x\leq \dfrac{-36}{-18} }\)

Divide −36 by −18 to get 2.

\(\bf{x\leq 2 \ \ \to \ \ \ Answer}\)

We conclude that the correct option is "C".

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  24.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of the ticket in euros is ...

  £222 × €1.38/(£1) = €306.36

Then the ratio of the tax to the to the total cost is ...

  €100/(€306.36 +100) = 100/406.36 ≈ 24.6%

The f′(a) when a = −6 is -7. This means that the slope of the tangent line of the graph of f(x) at x = -6 is -7.

To compute f′(a) algebraically for the given value of a, we use the following differentiation rule which is known as the Power Rule.

This states that:If f(x) = xn, where n is any real number, then f′(x) = nxⁿ⁻¹This is valid for any value of x.

Therefore, we can differentiate f(x) = −7x + 5 with respect to x using the power rule as follows:

f(x) = −7x + 5

⇒ f′(x) = d/dx (−7x + 5)

⇒ f′(x) = d/dx (−7x) + d/dx(5)

⇒ f′(x) = −7(d/dx(x)) + 0

⇒ f′(x) = −7⋅1 = −7

Hence, the derivative of f(x) with respect to x is -7.Now, we evaluate f′(a) when a = −6 as follows:f′(x) = −7 evaluated at x = −6⇒ f′(−6) = −7

Therefore, f′(a) when a = −6 is -7. This means that the slope of the tangent line of the graph of f(x) at x = -6 is -7.

Learn more about Power Rule here:

https://brainly.com/question/23418174

#SPJ11

Answer:

4,150 is Macy's salary

Step-by-step explanation:

2,500+(0.3)(5,500)=total

          2,500+1650=total

                     4,150=total

Tthe area enclosed by the lemniscate is 4 units squared.

The lemniscate is symmetric about the x-axis and y-axis, so we can find the area in the first quadrant and multiply it by 4.

In polar coordinates, the equation of the lemniscate can be written as:

r^2 = 4cos(2θ)

Squaring both sides, we get:

r^4 = 16cos^2(2θ)

Converting to Cartesian coordinates, we have:

x^2 + y^2 = 16cos^2(2θ)

Using the identity cos(2θ) = (1/2)(cos^2θ - sin^2θ), we can simplify the equation to:

x^2 + y^2 = 8(cos^4θ - cos^2θsin^2θ)

Multiplying both sides by r, we get:

r^2 = 8r(cos^4θ - cos^2θsin^2θ)

Substituting x = rcosθ and y = rsinθ, we get:

x^2 + y^2 = 8(x^2 - xy + y^2)(x^2 + y^2)

Simplifying, we get:

x^4 - 2x^2y^2 + y^4 = (1/8)

This is the equation of a quartic curve, which is symmetric about the x-axis and y-axis.

To find the area enclosed by the lemniscate in the first quadrant, we can integrate over the range 0 ≤ θ ≤ π/4:

A = 4 ∫[0,π/4] ∫[0,r(θ)] r dr dθ

where r(θ) = 2√cos(2θ).

Evaluating the integral, we get:

A = 4 ∫[0,π/4] ∫[0,2√cos(2θ)] r dr dθ

= 4 ∫[0,π/4] (1/2)(2√cos(2θ))^2 dθ

= 4 ∫[0,π/4] 2cos(2θ) dθ

= 4[sin(π/2) - sin(0)]

= 4

Therefore, the area enclosed by the lemniscate is 4 units squared.

Learn more about area here

https://brainly.com/question/25292087

#SPJ11

a) To obtain the potential pressure drop in the wellbore, we can use the hydrostatic pressure equation.

The potential pressure drop is equal to the pressure gradient multiplied by the length of the wellbore. The pressure gradient can be calculated using the equation: Pressure gradient = (density of oil × acceleration due to gravity) × sin(θ), where θ is the deviation angle of the wellbore from horizontal flow. In this case, the pressure gradient would be (48 lbm/ft^3 × 32.2 ft/s^2) × sin(15°). Multiplying the pressure gradient by the wellbore length of 6,000 ft gives the potential pressure drop.

b) To determine the frictional pressure drop in the wellbore, we can use the Darcy-Weisbach equation. The Darcy-Weisbach equation states that the pressure drop is equal to the friction factor multiplied by the pipe length, density, squared velocity, and divided by the pipe diameter. However, to calculate the friction factor, we need the Reynolds number. The Reynolds number can be calculated as (density × velocity × diameter) divided by the oil viscosity. Once the Reynolds number is known, the friction factor can be determined. Finally, using the friction factor, we can calculate the frictional pressure drop.

c) To calculate the in-situ oil velocity, we need to consider the total volume of the pipe, including both oil and gas. The total pipe volume is calculated as the pipe cross-sectional area multiplied by the wellbore length. Subtracting the gas volume from the total volume gives the oil volume. Dividing the oil volume by the total time taken by the oil to flow through the pipe (converted to seconds) gives the average oil velocity.

d) The flow regime of the two-phase flow can be determined based on the oil and gas mixture properties and flow conditions. Common flow regimes include bubble flow, slug flow, annular flow, and mist flow. These regimes are characterized by different distribution and interaction of the oil and gas phases. To determine the specific flow regime, various parameters such as gas and liquid velocities, mixture density, viscosity, and surface tension need to be considered. Additional information would be required to accurately determine the flow regime in this scenario.

Learn more about viscosity here: brainly.com/question/14004181

#SPJ11

The estimated regression equation is:

\($y = 420.1 + 0.778x$\)

To find the estimated regression equation, we need to perform linear regression analysis on the given data. We will use the least squares method to find the line of best fit.

First, let's calculate the mean and standard deviation of the rent and size variables:

\($\bar{x} = 1192$\) (mean of size)

\($\bar{y}= 1337$\) (mean of rent)

\($s_x = 404.9$\) (standard deviation of size)

\($s_y= 390.3 $\)(standard deviation of rent)

Next, we can calculate the correlation coefficient between the rent and size variables:

\($r = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x})(y_i - \bar{y})}{\sqrt{\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \bar{x})^2}\sqrt{\sum_{i=1}^{n}(y_i - \bar{y})^2}} = 0.807$\)

Now, we can use the formula for the slope of the regression line:

\($b = r\frac{s_y}{s_x} = 0.807\frac{390.3}{404.9} = 0.778$\)

And the formula for the intercept of the regression line:

\($a = \bar{y} - b\bar{x} = 1337 - 0.778(1192) = 420.1$\)

Therefore, the estimated regression equation is:

\($y = 420.1 + 0.778x$\)

where y is the monthly rent and x is the size of the apartment.

Learn more about estimated regression equation

brainly.com/question/14184702

#SPJ11

Answer:

- 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

y = 7x - 5 ← is in slope- intercept form

with y- intercept c = - 5

The y-intercept of the line y = 7x - 5 is -5.

To find the y-intercept of the line represented by the equation y = 7x - 5, we need to determine the value of y when x is equal to zero. The y-intercept represents the point where the line crosses or intersects the y-axis.

In this case, when we substitute x = 0 into the equation, we get:

y = 7(0) - 5

y = -5

Therefore, the y-intercept of the line y = 7x - 5 is -5. This means that the line intersects the y-axis at the point (0, -5), with the y-coordinate being -5. Graphically, this indicates that the line crosses the y-axis at a height of -5 units.

To know more about intercept:

https://brainly.com/question/14180189

#SPJ6

Answer:

43.5 unit^2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of the triangle

= 1/2 * base * height

= 1/2 * AB * AC.

AB = √ [(6-1)^2 + (6-8)^2] = √29

AC = √ [(8 - (-7))^2 + (1 - (-5)^2] = √261

So the area = 1/2 * √29  * √261

                    = 43.5

For an equivalent expression for \(18^{-7}\\\) * \(18^5\\\) it is option 4 that is correct that means the equivalent expression can be seen as \(\frac{1}{18} ^{2}\).

Expressions that can be considered are equivalent do the same thing even when they have distinct appearances. When we get to enter the same value(s) for the same variable, two algebraic expressions that are equivalent have the same value (s).

Calculating the equivalent expression,

\(18^{-7}\\\) * \(18^5\\\)

= \(18^{-7+5}\)

=\(18^{-2}\)

=  \(\frac{1}{18} ^{2}\)

An expression that can be considered equivalent to another phrase but then differs in appearance is the one that has the same value or worth. In algebra, we can say 2(2x – 3y + 6) is equal to 4x -6y + 12 as an example of an equivalent expression.

When two expressions can be reduced to a single thread expression or when one of the expressions can be written in the same way as the other, they are said to be equivalent. You can also determine whether two expressions are equivalent.

To know more about equivalent expression visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28170201

#SPJ13

Answer:

x= 5/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The volume of one marble can be calculated as follows:

V = (4/3) * π * (r^3)

where r = 1.25 cm (diameter of 2.5 cm divided by 2)

V = (4/3) * 3.14 * (1.25^3) = 5.20 cm^3

The mass of one marble is then:

m = V * 2.6 g/cm^3 = 13.52 g

And the total mass of 66 marbles is:

m = 66 * 13.52 g = 888.32 g

Rounding to the nearest gram, the total mass of the marbles in Keisha's pouch is 888 g.

The surface area S of the solid formed by revolving the curve y = cosh(x), for 0 ≤ x ≤ ln(6), around the x-axis can be found by constructing an integral with respect to y. Therefore, the surface area is S = 30.764.

To find the surface area S, we need to consider the curve y = cosh(x) and revolve it around the x-axis. We want to construct an integral with respect to y that gives the surface area.

First, let's solve the equation y = cosh(x) for x. Taking the inverse hyperbolic cosine of both sides, we get x = acosh(y).

Next, we determine the limits of integration on the y-axis. The lower limit is y = cosh(0) = 1, and the upper limit is y = cosh(ln(6)).

To construct the integral with respect to y, we consider an infinitesimally small strip of width dy along the y-axis. The length of the corresponding curve segment is given by 2πy times the derivative of x with respect to y, which is 1/sqrt(y² - 1).

Therefore, the surface area element dS is given by 2πy(1/sqrt(y² - 1)) dy.

By integrating this expression over the limits y = 1 to y = cosh(ln(6)), Therefore,  the surface area S = 30.764.

Learn more about limits of integration here:

https://brainly.com/question/31994684

#SPJ11

When a function  f(x)  undergoes a horizontal shift to the right by 4 units followed by a horizontal stretch by a factor of 3/2, the resulting transformed function can be represented as
g(x) = (3/2) * f(x - 4)

Horizontal shift right 4 units:

To shift the function to the right by 4 units, we replace x with (x - 4) in the function. This causes the graph of the function to shift 4 units to the right.

Horizontal stretch by a factor of 3/2:

To stretch the function horizontally by a factor of 3/2, we multiply the entire function by 3/2. This causes the x-values to be compressed towards the y-axis.

Overall, the transformation can be represented as:

g(x) = (3/2) * f(x - 4)

In this equation, g(x) represents the transformed function, f(x) represents the original function, (x - 4) represents the horizontal shift to the right, and (3/2) represents the horizontal stretch.

To know more about Transformed functions, visit:
brainly.com/question/26896273

#SPJ11

Answer:

N, M, P

Step-by-step explanation:

The smallest angle is opposite the shortest side

The largest angle is opposite the longest side

Thus

∠ N is opposite the shortest side MP = 10

∠ P is opposite the longest side MN = 18

From smallest to largest, then

∠ N, ∠ M, ∠ P

Therefore, the two positive coterminal angles are 5π/4 and 13π/4, and the two negative coterminal angles are -11π/4 and -19π/4.

To find the coterminal angles, we can add or subtract multiples of 2π (or 360°) to the given angle to obtain angles that have the same initial and terminal sides.

For the angle -3π/4 radians, adding or subtracting multiples of 2π will give us the coterminal angles.

Positive coterminal angles:

-3π/4 + 2π = 5π/4

-3π/4 + 4π = 13π/4

Negative coterminal angles:

-3π/4 - 2π = -11π/4

-3π/4 - 4π = -19π/4

To know more about angles,

https://brainly.com/question/15115073

#SPJ11

Answer:The boat is traveling at a rate of 3 ft/s.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1,5,9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(1.5,9)

Step-by-step explanation:

pls give this brainliest

To create 4 hexagons using pattern block rhombuses, we need to use a total of 24 rhombuses because each hexagon has 6 sides, and each rhombus can cover one side of a hexagon.

To see why this is the case, note that each hexagon can be divided into 6 congruent equilateral triangles. We can then cover each triangle with a rhombus by placing the rhombus with one corner at the center of the hexagon and the other three corners at the midpoints of the sides of the triangle. This will cover one side of the hexagon with a rhombus.

Therefore, since each hexagon has 6 sides, we need 6 rhombuses to cover one hexagon. Multiplying this by 4 hexagons gives us a total of 24 rhombuses needed to create 4 hexagons using pattern block rhombuses.

Learn more about hexagons here brainly.com/question/3295271

#SPJ4

First okay and second umm my what?! Lol

The answer is : - 112

We add 14 to both side

-16x - 14 = -126

       + 14    +14

-16x      =  - 112.    <- that’s the answer

Then we divide both sides by 16

X          =  7

Ta -Da!!

Also I’ll leave this.....

1) 2 3÷4 = 11÷4

hence, 11÷8 = 1.37 .

2)  4 2÷9 =38÷9 .

hence, 38÷18 = 2.11 .

simplify  2 3÷4  = 11÷4

and

4 2÷9 = 38÷9.

now 1/2 of 11/4 = 11/8 = 1.37.

1/2 of 38/9 = 38/18 = 2.11 .

To find the dimensions of the second rectangular prism that will have the same surface area as the first one, we can use the formula for the surface area of a rectangular prism which is:

Surface Area = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh

where l is the length, w is the width, and h is the height of the rectangular prism.

For the first rectangular prism, we have:

l = 3 m w = 7 m h = 4 m

Surface Area = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh Surface Area = 2(3)(7) + 2(3)(4) + 2(7)(4) Surface Area = 42 + 24 + 56 Surface Area = 122 m²

To find the dimensions of the second rectangular prism that will have the same surface area as the first one, we can use this formula again and solve for one of the variables. Let’s solve for l:

Surface Area = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh 122 = 2l(w+h) + 2wh 122 = 2l(w+h) + w(4) 122 = 2l(w+h) + 4w 118 = l(w+h)

Now we can choose any value for w and h and solve for l. Let’s choose w=1 and h=1:

118 = l(1+1) 118 = l(2) l = 59

So the dimensions of the second rectangular prism that will have the same surface area as the first one are:

l = 59 m w = 1 m h = 1 m