Answer:
started in the 1970s and 1980s
Which of the following types of exercise has very little effect on body composition:
muscular strength exercises
cardiorespiratory exercises
flexibility exercises
muscular endurance exercises
Answer:
flexibility exercises
Explanation:
Since all they do is just release tension in the muscles.
In a couple of sentences, describe the differences between gliding and condyloid joints and name the body part where both joints can be found.
Differences between gliding and condyloid joints are their movements.
The gliding joint is a synovial joint constructed between bones that meet on flat articular surfaces permitting sliding or gliding motion. Different gliding joints are the joints between two vertebras, ankle joints, acromioclavicular joints, and many others.
Gliding joints allow the bones to glide beyond an additional in any course alongside the joint plane, which include up and down, right and left, and diagonally.
A gliding joint is a synovial joint in which the bony surfaces that the joint holds together are flat, or only barely rounded. A synovial joint is the residing cloth that holds or greater bones collectively but also allows those bones to transport relative to each different.
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pls help me tysm omg ty ty
Answer: 1, 2 6 are all depressive and the rest are bipolar symptoms
Explanation: source- I'm diagnosed with depression
Nurse is preparing to instill 840 ml of enteral nutrition via a client's gastrostomy tube over 24 hr using an infusion pump. the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hr?
To determine the infusion rate in ml/hr, you can divide the total volume to be infused (840 ml) by the total duration (24 hr). So, the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver 35 ml/hr.
Infusion rate refers to the speed at which a substance or fluid is delivered into the body through an intravenous (IV) line. It is typically measured in milliliters per hour (mL/hr) and is important for ensuring the proper administration of medications, fluids, or blood products.
The infusion rate is determined by several factors, including the prescribed dosage, the volume of the substance to be administered, and the desired duration of infusion. The healthcare provider or nurse calculates the appropriate infusion rate based on these factors, taking into account the specific medication or fluid being administered and the individual patient's needs.
To control the infusion rate, an IV pump or an infusion controller is often used. These devices allow precise regulation of the flow rate and ensure a consistent and accurate delivery of the substance over the desired time frame.
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What is the main difference between malingering and factitious disorder?
A. People with factitious disorder have physically-based symptoms with true biological causes.
B. People with factitious disorder invent or exaggerate their symptoms without obvious incentive apart from playing sick.
C. People with malingering invent or exaggerate their symptoms for no apparent reason other than to assume the sick role.
D. People with malingering have physically-based symptoms with true biological causes.
The main difference between malingering and factitious disorder is option B. People with factitious disorders invent or exaggerate their symptoms without obvious incentive apart from playing sick.
Malingering refers to the intentional fabrication or exaggeration of symptoms for external gain or personal benefit, such as avoiding work, obtaining financial compensation, or seeking drugs. It is characterized by a conscious effort to feign illness or impairment without a genuine underlying medical condition.
Factitious disorder, on the other hand, involves the deliberate production or feigning of physical or psychological symptoms without an apparent external motive, such as financial gain. Individuals with factitious disorders may go to great lengths to simulate or induce symptoms, often seeking medical attention and assuming the role of a patient.
Unlike malingering, the motivation for the factitious disorder is internal, driven by the need for attention, care, and validation associated with being perceived as sick. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.
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Ben is 55 inches (140 cm) tall at age 7. How tall is Ben likely to be at age 10 if he grows at an average rate?
Ben is 55 inches (140 cm) tall at age 7, and if Ben is likely to grow at an average rate, then by the time he is 10 years old, Ben will gain more height that is above 55 inches or 60 inches.
What is the reason behind the increase in height?The height is increased due to the increased amount of growth hormone, which stimulates the body cells to divide and grow mitotically, and in this way the height of the person is increased. Example: When Ben is 7 years old, he is likely to be 140 cm tall, but if he grows normally, then by the action of the mitogens and growth factors, he will be more than 55 inches at 10 years.
Hence, Ben is 55 inches (140 cm) tall at age 7, and if Ben is likely to grow at an average rate, then by the time he is 10 years old, Ben will gain more height that is above 55 inches or 60 inches.
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what diagnosis would you give Mr. Thompson? why do you believe it to be so (explain using test results such as color, smell, pH,cells, casts, benedicts test and biuret's test)? do you think there may be casts present in his urine? if so, what type of xasts might be found in his urine?
As per the given information and the results of the tests, the diagnosis for Mr. Thompson can be interstitial nephritis. Interstitial nephritis is the inflammation of the connective tissue surrounding the renal tubules.
There may be several reasons for the inflammation like drug reactions, viral infections, and some autoimmune diseases. The test results and the symptoms can provide evidence for the diagnosis. The tests are discussed below-
Color, Smell and pH- The color of urine can be pale yellow to dark amber depending on the concentration. Mr. Thompson has an amber color of urine. There is no specific smell of the urine. The pH of the urine is slightly acidic, which is normal.
Cells and Casts- There are WBCs and RBCs present in the urine of Mr. Thompson, indicating inflammation in the urinary tract. The presence of WBCs is an indication of an infection, whereas RBCs indicate inflammation of the renal system. Casts are protein-based structures formed in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. In Mr. Thompson's urine, there may be casts present, but the type cannot be identified without a microscope.
Benedict's Test- Benedict's test is a qualitative test for the presence of reducing sugars in urine. Mr. Thompson's test is positive for glucose. It is a symptom of diabetes.
Biuret Test- Biuret test is a qualitative test for the presence of protein in urine. The test of Mr. Thompson is positive for protein, which is the sign of interstitial nephritis. Therefore, it can be concluded that Mr. Thompson has interstitial nephritis.
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Which type of gel is used in DNA sequencing?a. agarose b. polyacrylamide c. both polyacrylamide and agarose d. some other kind of gel e. no gel is used - only computer analysis
The type of gel used in DNA sequencing depends on the sequencing technique being employed is (a.) Agarose gels and (b.) polyacrylamide gels.
The type of gel used in DNA sequencing depends on the sequencing technique being employed. For automated sequencing, agarose gels are typically used. Agarose gels are composed of a polysaccharide derived from seaweed and are relatively easy to prepare. Because of their low cost and relative simplicity, agarose gels are the most common type of gel used in DNA sequencing.
In addition to agarose gels, polyacrylamide gels can also be used in DNA sequencing. Polyacrylamide gels are composed of a synthetic polymer and are more expensive and difficult to prepare than agarose gels. However, polyacrylamide gels can produce higher resolution results than agarose gels, making them useful for certain applications.
In some cases, both types of gels may be used in DNA sequencing. For example, some techniques, such as Sanger sequencing, may require the use of both agarose and polyacrylamide gels. In this case, the two gels are used in tandem to increase the resolution of the sequencing results.
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What is ivp medical abbreviation?
IVP, an intravenous pyelogram is an x-ray examination that uses a specific dye to highlight the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. It can show how your kidney and urinary systems control fluid waste. This helps your medical team spot urinary tract problems.
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) uses a particular dye to highlight the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on an x-ray. It can show how your kidney and urinary systems control fluid waste. IVP is used to diagnose patients who have side/lower back discomfort or have blood in their urine. It might also illuminate the unusual design of each person's kidney and urinary system. It can find:
renal stonesprostate growthkidney, ureter, or urinary bladder tumorsa urinary tract infection-related scarabnormalities in the urinary system at birthWhen is IVP used?
Before computed tomography (CT) imaging was widely available, IVP was extremely common. It could be used to confirm:
a low back and side painHematuria, or blood in the urine, is a kidney stone sign.IVP isn't used as often these days, but it still might be helpful.CT scans are now the primary x-ray investigation for the urinary system. With CT, the area may be swiftly and completely imaged (even in one breath). A CT scan shows a cross-sectional image of the patient. In a CT scan, a contrast agent is not always necessary. It frequently provides data that is more precise than an IVP. But the outcome is an increase in radiation levels.
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Write the positive and negative effect of urbanization on population
125 x to the power 5 by 5 under root 5 x cube
Answer:
Its not clear
Didn't understand the question
!!! !!!
Which of the following should a pregnant client avoid during exercise? Moderate aerobic training, lying in the supine position, stretching before and after exercise, consuming additional calories
Answer:
Lying in the supine position
Explanation:
Lying in the supine position (or on your back, in layman's terms), is not good for pregnant women because it can cause a disruption in blood flow to the mama and the baby.
Answer:
Lying in the supine position
Explanation:
Can someone help me with these?
Answer:
1.c 2.b,e
Explanation:
mark brainlist pls this took me a min lol
Select 2 effects that can result from fragmentation of care within U. S. Healthcare system?
One effect of fragmentation of care within the U.S. healthcare system is a lack of continuity of care.
Healthcare refers to the organized provision of medical treatment and services to individuals or communities. It encompasses all activities related to maintaining, promoting, and restoring health, including prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation of illnesses, injuries, and disabilities.
Healthcare services can be delivered through a variety of settings, such as hospitals, clinics, private practices, and community health centers. Healthcare professionals, including doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and other allied health professionals, work together to provide quality care and improve patients' health outcomes. The healthcare industry is constantly evolving, driven by technological advancements, changing patient needs, and emerging public health challenges.
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Based on the campinha-bacote model of cultural competency, "health care providers become appreciative of the influences of culture on the development of values" is the _____ construc
Based on the camping-Bacote model of Cultural competence, "health care providers become appreciative of the influences of culture on the development of values" is the cultural awareness construct
Cultural competence is the capacity to engage, collaborate, and forge deep connections with people from different cultural origins. The values, traditions, and conduct of individuals belonging to various groups might be considered cultural backgrounds.
Understanding and accepting differences in appearance, behavior, and culture are encouraged by cultural competency. You will come into contact with clients from a variety of backgrounds in this field.
For instance, culturally adept educators who value diversity: comprehend and respect the histories, cultures, languages, traditions, and ways of raising children. respect the diversity of strengths and skills among children. esteem variations in the domestic life of families.
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Which of the following is NOT true about oxidative enzyme response to aerobic training?
a) phosphorylase and phosphofructokinase activities are particularly high
b) it can also be stimulated by high-intensity interval training
c) activity increases even after VO2 max has plateaued
d) it exerts a glycogen-sparing effect in muscle
Which states that phosphorylase and phosphofructokinase activities are particularly high in response to aerobic training. This statement is not true as these enzymes are primarily involved in anaerobic glycolysis, which is not the primary energy pathway during aerobic exercise.
The correct answer to the question is option A
On the other hand, options B, C, and D are all true statements about oxidative enzyme response to aerobic training. High-intensity interval training (HIIT) has been shown to increase oxidative enzyme activity in muscle cells, leading to improved endurance performance. Additionally, oxidative enzyme activity continues to increase even after VO2 max has plateaued, indicating that other adaptations are occurring to support aerobic metabolism.
Finally, oxidative enzyme activity exerts a glycogen-sparing effect in muscle, which means that the body is better able to use fat as a fuel source during exercise, preserving glycogen stores for later use. This is a key adaptation that occurs with aerobic training and can improve endurance performance.
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HIV is thought have originated by __________.
A.
apes passing the disease to hunters
B.
early explorers traveling in jungles
C.
people drinking contaminated water
D.
mutations in the gene pool
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
A
B
C
D
Answer:
A
Explanation:
HIV is thought to have originated by apes passing the disease to hunters
What is HIV?Human immunodeficiency virus is a kind of infection that is caused by virus which affects the immune system of humans and make it very weak, and unable to fight back incoming infections.
Therefore, HIV is thought to have originated by apes passing the disease to hunters
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Is a segment of dna that is the basic unit of heredity and is transferred from parent to offspring. is a cell structure made of dna that gives the master instructions for the cell. is the process of passing characteristics from parent to offspring.
Answer:
✔ DNA
is a nucleic acid that contains the genetic information for heredity in most organisms.
✔ A gene
is a segment of DNA that is the basic unit of heredity and is transferred from parent to offspring.
✔ A chromosome
is a cell structure made of DNA that gives the master instructions for the cell.
✔ Heredity
is the process of passing characteristics from parent to offspring.
✔ Genetics
is the study of heredity in organisms.
Explanation:
on edg
Gene is a segment of DNA, and DNA made chromosomes a cell structure heredity is the process of passing characteristics from parent to offspring.
What are gene DNA and chromosome?DNA, genes, and chromosomes each makeup who you are. In cells, chromosomes transfer DNA. DNA is in charge of constructing and maintaining your human structure.
Genes are DNA segments that give you physical characteristics that differentiate you from others. Genes are DNA segments that contain the code for a specific protein that functions in one or more types of cells in the body.
Chromosomes are raised to a higher that contains a person's genes, a gene segment responsible for heredity to pass to the next generation.
Therefore segment of DNA is a gene, which gives rise to the cell structure chromosome, and heredity is a condition to pass from parents to the next generation.
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Which of these is important to consider before believing health or fitness information you find online?
Where ads are positioned in the information
When the information was written
Who else has read the information
How challenging it is to read the information
Answer:
2
Explanation:
if information is written it's easier to go off of it because somebody had found the correct information to choose and personally I would go by it. plus I just took the test got it right...
Why can’t scientists just say that the formula for good parenting is doing specific activities with children?
Because being a parent is much more than just hanging around with their kid(s). You have to actually be there for them. Not only do activities with them, but teach them good morals, provide for them, give them a roof over their head, food, water, and all the necessities of life. They need to impart knowledge and wisdom based on their own experiences, and they need to actually care. They need to not be under any influence and be morally well in order to raise the child right. They need to cultivate good manners and instill good morals, as well as help build character and allow their child to develop and grow. They also need to be stable and not harmful or abusive, and in the right position to be caring for a kid. It's not that some kids don't deserve parents; it's that some parents don't deserve kids. They need to build a strong relationship with their kids and bond with them. Again, there is much more to being a good parent than just being a parent.
Hope that helps! <3
Disclaimer: I am not responsible for anything you get incorrect, as I only have the context and information you provide, and I give my response based on my knowledge supported with credible information from experts and online professional articles.
What percent of your recommended daily value of calcium will you get from two servings of milk?
Answer: 6o%
Explanation:
b/c one suving is 30 so 30+30=60
plz mark brainlyest
PLZ HELP
1.
Maintains proper body functions (cells, nerves, skin, tissue, organs, breathing, etc.
2.
Regulates body temperature
3.
The primary source of energy
4.
Build and repair body tissue and muscle
5.
Cushion organs from shock
A.Vitamins and Minerals
B.Protein
C.Water
D.Fat
E.Carbohydrates
Answer:
Vitamin and mineral is crucial for muscle growth.
Protein Maintains proper body functions (cells, nerves, skin, tissue, organs, breathing, etc.
Fats Regulates body temperature
Carbohydrates is the primary source of energy
Water Cushion organs from shock
Hiv positive people should stay away for anyone who has a ________ disease
Answer: Avoid excessive alcohol or drug use
Explanation: Heavy drinking and taking recreational drugs can also weaken your immune system, making it harder for your body to recover from infections. Certain anti-HIV drugs can interact with recreational drugs and alcohol to cause unwanted side effects, some of which can be severe.
​Upon admission to a healthcare facility, what are the nurse's responsibilities regarding a living will?
Upon admission to a healthcare facility, the nurse's responsibilities regarding a living will typically include a host of tasks.
What do these responsibilities include?Reviewing the patient's medical records to determine if they have a living will or other advanced directives in place.Discussing the living will with the patient and their family or designated representative, if applicable, to ensure that their wishes are clearly understood.Ensuring that the living will is properly documented in the patient's medical record and that all healthcare providers involved in the patient's care are aware of its existence and content.Advocating for the patient's rights and preferences as expressed in the living will.Facilitating discussions with the patient and their family or designated representative about the implications of the living will for the patient's care and treatment.Providing emotional support and guidance to the patient and their family or designated representative as they make decisions about the patient's care based on the living will.To know more about healthcare facilities, visit:
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While working in a lab, if chemicals are spilled/splashed on you, use the appropriate emergency equipment for _____ minutes.
In the event of chemical spills or splashes on your body while working in a lab, it is crucial to use the appropriate emergency equipment for a minimum of 15 minutes.
When handling hazardous chemicals in a laboratory setting, accidents such as spills or splashes can occur, posing a risk to personal safety. In such situations, it is essential to respond promptly and effectively.
The recommended minimum duration for using emergency equipment, such as safety showers or eyewash stations, is 15 minutes. This duration ensures thorough decontamination and minimizes the potential for long-term harm.
Chemical spills or splashes on the skin can lead to immediate and long-term damage if not addressed promptly. The primary purpose of using emergency equipment for at least 15 minutes is to flush the affected area thoroughly.
The continuous flow of water or other appropriate decontamination solution helps to dilute and remove the chemical from the skin, reducing the risk of absorption and further injury. Additionally, the duration allows time for the equipment to effectively rinse away any residual chemicals on the body, ensuring a more thorough decontamination process.
It is important to note that the duration may vary depending on the specific chemical involved, and it is advisable to consult safety protocols and Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for specific guidelines regarding the chemicals in use.
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What does large zone of inhibition mean?
A greater zone of inhibition surrounding an antibiotic-containing disk suggests that the bacteria are more susceptible to the antibiotic contained inside the disk.
The Zone of Inhibition test is used to detect pathogenic bacteria sensitivity or resistance to antibacterial drugs. In compared to other laboratory test methods, the zone of inhibition test is a low-cost and quick method of determining antibacterial activity.
The Zone of Inhibition is a circular region surrounding the antibiotic site where bacteria colonies do not develop. The zone of inhibition can be used to determine the susceptibility of the bacteria to the antibiotic. Zone of Inhibition Testing is a quick and qualitative method of determining an antimicrobial agent's capacity to suppress the development of bacteria. In the field of antimicrobial substances/surfaces, the degree to which these materials are inhibitory can be critical to consumer health.
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Match the disadvantage with the method of obtaining food intake.
The task is to match the lettered items with the correct numbered items. Appearing below is a list of lettered items. Following that is a list of numbered items. Each numbered item is followed by a drop-down. Select the letter in the drop down that best matches the numbered item with the lettered alternatives.
a.May not accurately represent overall food intakes.
b.The most time-consuming method for the patient.
c.Method is not useful outside of in-patient situations.
d. Does not reflect short-term or recent diet changes.
1.24-hour recall
2.Food frequency
3.Food record
4.Direct Observation
May not accurately represent overall food intakes. c. Method is not useful outside of in-patient situations. d. Does not reflect short-term or recent diet changes.
Food frequency
Food record
Direct Observation
May not accurately represent overall food intakes: This method of obtaining food intake involves asking the patient to remember everything they have eaten over the past 24 hours, which may not accurately reflect their overall food intake.
People often forget what they have eaten or under-report their intake, which can lead to inaccurate results.The most time-consuming method for the patient: The 24-hour recall is the most time-consuming method for the patient.
As they need to remember everything they have eaten over the past 24 hours and record it in a food diary or log. This can be a burden for patients who have busy schedules or who have trouble remembering everything they have eaten.
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What would you call 211 for?
A. Help after a domestic violence incident
B. Domestic violence counseling
C. Help after a home break in
D. Product safety information
Essential Community Services
Dial 211 for Essential Community Services. In many states, dialing “211” provides individuals and families in need with a shortcut through what can be a bewildering maze of health and human service agency phone numbers.
hi myself Jiya
class 10
I am 15
I live in delhi, india
can you fo.llow my all following
Which of the following statements about developing a personal fitness program is NOT true?
A. When developing a personal fitness program, it is important to implement strategies that will help
maintain the program as well as give it a successful start.
B. Personal factors such as age, health concerns, and likes are important to consider when developing a
personal fitness program.
C. The starting skill level of the physical activities included in a personal fitness program should be
determined from other individuals' fitness programs.
D. The FITT principle should be used when developing a personal fitness program.
Which act required the epa to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards?.
The Clean Air Act (CAA) required the EPA to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards.
What is The Clean Air Act (CAA)?The Clean Air Act (CAA) is the primary federal air quality law in the United States, with the goal of reducing and controlling air pollution across the country. It is one of the United States' first and most prominent modern environmental laws, having been passed in 1963 and updated numerous times subsequently.The Clean Air Act, like many other key federal environmental acts in the United States, is administered by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in collaboration with state, local, and tribal governments. To carry out the mandates of the law, the EPA creates numerous administrative regulations. Regulatory programs are frequently technical and sophisticated.The Clean Air Act (CAA) mandated that the EPA implement laws aimed at protecting the general public from airborne health dangers.As it is given in the description, the Clean Air Act (CAA) mandated that the EPA implement laws aimed at protecting the general public from airborne health dangers.
Therefore, the Clean Air Act (CAA) required the EPA to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards.
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