To persons aged 40 to 75 without a history of CVD who have one or more CVD risk factors and an estimated 10-year CVD event risk of 7.5% to 10%, the USPSTF advises that clinicians selectively administer low- to moderate-dose statins.
The USPSTF comes to the conclusion that there is inadequate evidence at this time to evaluate the benefits and hazards of starting statin usage in persons 76 years of age and older.
Us Preventive Services Task Force Recommendation Statement on Statin Use in Adults for the Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular DiseaseImportance One in three adult fatalities in the United States are caused by cardiovascular disease (CVD), which is the primary cause of morbidity and mortality.Update the US Preventive Services Task Force's (USPSTF) 2008 guideline on adult lipid disorder screening.Evidence Review The USPSTF examined the evidence regarding the advantages and disadvantages of dyslipidemia screening and treatment in adults 21 years of age and older, the advantages and disadvantages of statin use in lowering CVD events and mortality in adults without a history of CVD events, whether the advantages of statin use vary by subgroup, clinical characteristics, or dosage, and the advantages of different treatment modalities in older adults without a history of CVD events who are 40 years of age or older.learn more about cardiovascular disease here
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Use the drop-down menu to select the answer that completes each sentence.Health Information Management professionals may choose to get a credential from.is the organization that oversees Medicare and Medicaid.EHR products are certified for effectiveness by.is an organization that provides recommendations on how to manage information technology.Themakes recommendations about healthcare policies
The above sentences indicate:
Health Information Management professionals may choose to get a credential from AHIMACMS is the organization that oversees Medicare and MedicaidEHR products are certified for effectiveness by CCHITHIMSS is an organization that provides recommendations on how to manage information technology.IOM makes recommendations about healthcare policiesLearn more in:
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Answer:
C, A, B, D, D
Explanation:
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FILL IN THE BLANK. the term ___ is used currently by the institute of medicine (iom) and hl7 to describe the development of standards that relate to the exchange of clinical health information.
the term Electronic Health Record is used Currently, the development of standards relating to the return of clinical health information is described by institute of medicine (iom) as well as HL7.
What is electronic health record?
A digitally stored systematised collection of patient as well as population health information is known as an electronic health record (EHR). The sharing of these records is possible between various healthcare facilities. Records are exchanged via other information networks and exchanges, including network-connected, enterprise-wide information systems. EHRs may contain a variety of data, such as billing information, demographics, health information, medication as well as allergy information, immunisation status, laboratory results, radiology images, and vital signs.
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A nursing assistant is being called for assistance by a patient who speaks very little English. Because the nursing
assistant has a difficult time understanding the patient, the nursing assistant ignores the patient's call, figuring that
someone else will tend to the patient instead. Which ethical principle is the nursing assistant neglecting?
fidelity
beneficence
nonmaleficence
autonomy
Order: digoxin 0.6 mg IVP stat over 5 min. The digoxin vial has a con- centration of 0.1 mg/mL. How many mL will you push every 30 seconds?
To administer digoxin 0.6 mg intravenously (IVP) over 5 minutes using a vial with a concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, you would push 0.3 mL every 30 seconds.
Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions. In this scenario, the order is to administer digoxin 0.6 mg IVP stat (immediately) over 5 minutes. The vial of digoxin has a concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, meaning that each milliliter of solution contains 0.1 mg of digoxin.
To determine how much to push every 30 seconds, you need to divide the total dose of 0.6 mg by the concentration of the vial. So, 0.6 mg divided by 0.1 mg/mL gives you 6 mL. This means that you have a total of 6 mL of the digoxin solution.
Since you want to administer the dose over 5 minutes, and there are 10 intervals of 30 seconds in 5 minutes (30 seconds x 10 = 300 seconds), you will need to push a portion of the solution every 30 seconds. To calculate the amount, divide the total volume (6 mL) by the number of intervals (10), resulting in 0.6 mL per 30 seconds.
Therefore, to administer the digoxin 0.6 mg IVP stat over 5 minutes, you would push 0.3 mL every 30 seconds until the total dose of 0.6 mg is infused. It is important to follow proper medication administration guidelines and consult with a healthcare professional for accurate dosing and administration instructions.
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What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
If Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company it is attainable for Portia Milstine the MA (Medical Assisstant) at the front table to commit miscalculation of faulty categorization by presumptuous that Mrs. Hilbert's edges are identical as that of Josiah Campbell.
The fact that they're colleagues within the same place of labor, with an equivalent form of card doesn't mean that they need an equivalent medical cowl or health advantages.
Should the caregiver proceed to bill Mrs. David Hilbert on an equivalent basis, as Mr. Josiah, she would be committing a charge error. There are different varieties of billing errors that are common among medical assistants. They are:
Wrong Patient information
Duplicate billing
Balance billing
The question is incomplete, complete question is here
Patient Kenya Hilbert arrives for an appointment and gives the medical assistant, Portia Milstine, MA, her insurance card. Portia notices that the insurance company is Healthy Way Insurance and that Ms. Hilbert works for the Exact Accounting Company, a large company near the medical clinic. She recalls that this morning Josiah Campbell came in and that he also had Healthy Way Insurance and also works for the Exact Accounting Company. When she verified his benefits, she learned that preventive care is covered at 100 percent, and for other services, patients must pay a $20.00 copayment. The office is busy this afternoon, so Portia wonders if she really needs to take the time to verify the benefits for Ms. Hilbert. After all, it looks like she has the exact same insurance that Mr. Campbell had, and she already verified his benefits.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
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which single dietary change can result in a 5% drop in ldl levels? group of answer choices consuming no more than 500 milligrams of sodium a day consuming as little dietary cholesterol as possible consuming 2 glasses of red wine a day consuming 5 to 10 milligrams of soluble fiber a day
Consuming 5 to 10 milligrams of soluble fiber a day is the single dietary change that can result in a 5% drop in LDL levels.
Soluble fiber is a type of fiber that dissolves in water and forms a gel-like substance in the digestive tract. This gel-like substance binds with cholesterol and prevents it from being absorbed into the bloodstream, which can lead to a reduction in LDL levels.
Foods that are high in soluble fiber include oats, barley, beans, lentils, peas, fruits such as apples and citrus fruits, and vegetables such as carrots and broccoli. Consuming these foods on a regular basis can help to increase the intake of soluble fiber and lower LDL levels.
It is important to note that while consuming soluble fiber can be helpful in lowering LDL levels, it is not a standalone solution. A healthy diet that is low in saturated and trans fats, and high in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats is recommended for optimal heart health. Additionally, regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight can also help to lower LDL levels and reduce the risk of heart disease.
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If urine is chemically (-ve for blood), what may be a possible cause?
Answer:
There are a variety of factors that can cause red or white blood cells to be present in the urine. Many are not cause for concern. Small amounts of blood in the urine may be due to certain medicines, intense exercise, sexual activity, or menstruation. If larger amounts of blood are found, your health care provider may request further testing.
Increased red blood cells in urine may indicate:
A viral infection
Inflammation of the kidney or bladder
A blood disorder
Bladder or kidney cancer
Increased white blood cells in urine may indicate:
A bacterial urinary tract infection. This is the most common cause of a high white blood cell count in urine.
Inflammation of the urinary tract or kidneys
Explanation:
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What do the physical features of the Great Plains and the Gulf Coastal Plain have in common?
Answer:
Both have cold winters.
Explanation:
a drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter s would be termed a(n)
Answer:
indirect antagonist
Explanation:
In pharmacology, an indirect agonist or indirect-acting agonist is a substance that enhances the release or action of an endogenous neurotransmitter but has no specific agonist activity at the neurotransmitter receptor itself.
A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor and interferes with the action of the receptor (blocks ion channel from opening), but does not interfere with the binding site for the principal neurotransmitter would be termed an antagonist.
Antagonists work by blocking the action of the neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic receptor. This can be accomplished either by directly blocking the binding site on the receptor, or by interfering with the ion channels associated with the receptor.
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Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.
The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.
What is communication?It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.
The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.
Therapeutic responses are described as to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:
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A 45-year-old female (weight 70 kg, height 168 cm) requires erythromycin IV for severe community-acquired pneumonia. Her recent serum creatinine is 130 micromol/L, stable. The dose is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. Erythromcycin powder for injection is dissolved 1 g in 20 mL water for injection, then diluted to a concentration of 1 to 5 mg/mL for intermittent infusion in sodium chloride 0.9% over 20–60 minutes.
Which of the following statements are true?
More than one answer is correct. You need to select all correct answers to pass this question.
A.Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg
B.Using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min
C.Correct dose could be stated as 3000 mg in 24 hours, divided into 4 doses
D.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 750 mL
E.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL
The true options are Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg, using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min. The correct options are A, B, C, and E.
What is infusion?Infusion is basically the method of putting fluids, including drugs, into the bloodstream.
Ideal body weight (IBW) for this patient can be calculated using the following formula:
IBW (kg) = 45.5 + 2.3 (height in inches - 60) = 45.5 + 2.3 (66.1 - 60) = 58.1 kg
Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) using the Cockcroft and Gault formula can be calculated as follows:
CrCl (mL/min) = [(140 - age) x weight (kg)] / (72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL))
CrCl = [(140 - 45) x 70] / (72 x 130/88.4) = 44 mL/min
The correct dose of erythromycin is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. For a 70 kg patient, the total daily dose would be:
12.5 mg/kg x 70 kg = 875 mg every 6 hours
Total daily dose = 875 mg x 4 = 3500 mg
To adjust for renal impairment, the dose should be decreased. In this case, no adjustment is necessary since the serum creatinine is stable.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 875 mL, not 750 mL.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL, which is correct.
Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and E.
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if digoxin has a half-life of 35 hours, how long will it take for a toxic plasma concentration of 8ng/ml to decline to a therapeutic asthma concentration of 2ng/ml?
Answer:
70 hours
Explanation:
8 ng/ml to 4ng/ml: 1 half-life
4ng/ml to 2ng/ml: 1 half-life
=> 8 to 2: 2 half-lives
35 hrs x 2 = 70 hrs
SOMEONE QUICK ONLY 1 BLOOD BAG LEFT OXYGEN IS LOW BLOOD IS LEAKING HOW DO I STOP MY PATIENT FROM BLEEDING OUT!!!! WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO BEST ANSWER PLEASE HELP
Answer:
Neither oxygen supplementation nor the blood bag is going to help your patient to stop bleeding out, or even bleed less. You need to locate the site of trauma and apply direct pressure as well as using gauze or other materials to assist in blocking the open wound depending how large it is.
Explanation: that is the explanation ^^
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates the distribution of Gensol. The FDA is a federal executive agency. Its power to regulate Gensol:
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA), a federal executive agency, is responsible for regulating the distribution of Gensol.
Gensol, a product subject to FDA regulation, falls under the purview of the agency due to its role in overseeing the safety and efficacy of food and drugs in the United States. As a federal executive agency, the FDA has the authority to establish and enforce regulations governing the distribution, labelling, and manufacturing of products like Gensol.
The FDA's primary objective is to protect public health by ensuring that products on the market meet rigorous standards for safety, effectiveness, and quality. By regulating the distribution of Gensol, the FDA aims to minimize potential risks associated with its use and ensure that it meets the necessary standards for consumer protection.
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The Association of Preoperative Nurses can provide ?
The Association of PeriOperative Registered Nurses (AORN) was established in 1949 to provide a network for operating room nurses who wanted to exchange best practices for patients having surgery.
What is the perioperative nurse's (AORN) function?A registered nurse (RN) who organizes, coordinates, administers, and evaluates nursing care for patients whose defensive reflexes or capacity for self-care may be jeopardized during surgical or other invasive procedures is known as a perioperative nurse.It is impossible for nurses to carry out surgery on their own. Before, during, and after surgeries, nurses can perform a wide variety of tasks. To land the job you want most, take into account pursuing more education or training.In order to keep the patient and surgical team safe before, during, and after surgery, the primary duty of the perioperative nurse is to maintain a sterile environment. Anxiety and knowledge deficiency are the two most typical nursing diagnoses during the preoperative period. 30. A lack of knowledge could be caused by surgical procedures, normal operating room procedures, or unrealistic expectations for results.To learn more about Association of Preoperative Nurses, refer to:
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A pharmacy technician receives an order to prepare an intravenous glucose solution with an added 0.2 mL of
antibiotic and 0.1 mL of anti-inflammatory medication. Which terms best describe the order? Check all that
apply.
*oral
*parenteral
*premixed
*IV admixture
*pharmacy prepared
The client is prescribed ampicillin 250 mg po four times a day for 10 day.the pharmacy has 125 mg per 5mlon hand how ml in 10 day?
Un niño que ha enfermado de paperas o varicela, no desarrollará estas enfermedades en una segunda oportunidad, porque: I.- la piel, mucosas y lágrimas impiden el ingreso de los microbios. II.- en el primer contacto adquirió anticuerpos. III.- interviene la inmunidad Adaptativa, la cual presenta "memoria" IV.- su sistema defensivo está preparado frente a una segunda exposición
Answer:
Las respuestas II, III y IV son correctas
Explanation:
La papera, también conocida como parotiditis, es una enfermedad vírica altamente contagiosa causada por un virus de la familia Paramyxoviridae, la cual se desarrolla principalmente en las glándulas parótidas situadas a ambos lados de la mandíbula. La inmunidad a esta enfermedad puede ser lograda a partir de la aplicación de la vacuna triple viral, cuyo nombre se debe a que esta vacuna también permite adquirir inmunidad contra los virus del sarampión y la rubéola. Por otra parte, la varicela es también una enfermedad muy contagiosa que se presenta generalmente en niños, la cual es causada por el herpesvirus de varicela-zoster. Esta enfermedad se caracteriza por la presencia de erupciones rojas en la piel que causan picazón, lo cual a su vez genera lesiones cutáneas. Tanto la varicela como la papera sólo se producen una vez ya que una vez contagiado el organismo adquiere inmunidad frente a estos virus a través de un mecanismo adaptativo en el cual linajes específicos de linfocitos B capaces de secretar anticuerpos específicos contra ambos virus proliferan rápidamente a través de un proceso conocido como expansión monoclonal, con lo cual el sistema inmune adquiere memoria inmunológica.
which of the following drugs are some of the most commonly used cns stimulants? choose all that apply. - amphetamines
- methylphenidate
- cocaine
- caffeine
The drugs that are some of the most commonly used CNS stimulants are:
AmphetaminesMethylphenidateCocaineCaffeineTherefore, all the options apply.
Central Nervous System (CNS) stimulants are drugs that increase the level of certain chemicals (such as dopamine, norepinephrine, or serotonin) in the brain that affect (increase) attention, alertness, and energy. They can also raise blood pressure, anxiety, and increase heart rate as well as breathing rate.
Normally, CNS stimulants are used to treat depression, sleep apnea, narcolepsy, obesity, and ADHD. They have legitimate clinical use and can be safe and effective when taken as prescribed. However, some of them are also common types of drugs of abuse.
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which condition would a nurse expect to teach about when a client with a reddish-blue generalized skin alteration is hospitalized and laboratory findings show an increase in the overall amount of hemoglobin? albinism addison disease polycythemia vera methemoglobinemia
The condition to be taught about when a client with a reddish-blue generalized skin alteration is hospitalized with an increase in overall amount of hemoglobin: Polycythemia Vera
Polycythemia Vera is a form of blood cancer. The bone marrow starts making excessive red blood cells during this condition. It results in thickening of blood that causes slow blood movement and may also forms clots.
Hemoglobin is the pigment found in the blood. It is specifically present in the red blood cells that provides the color to the blood. The hemoglobin is also essential for the transport of oxygen from the lungs to different parts of the body.
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A big-toe problem Hallux abducto valgus (call it HAV) is a deformation of the big toe that is fairly uncommon in youth and often requires surgery. Doctors used X-rays to measure the angle (in degrees) of deformity in a random sample of patients under the age of 21 who came to a medical center for surgery to correct HAV. The angle is a measure of the seriousness of the deformity. For these 21 patients, the mean HAV angle was 24.76 degrees and the standard deviation was 6.34 degrees. A dotplot of the data revealed no outliers or strong skewness. $^{27}$ (a) Construct and interpret a 90% confidence interval for the mean HAV angle in the population of all such patients. (b) Researchers omitted one patient with an HAV angle of 50 degrees from the analysis due to a measurement issue. What effect would including this outlier have on the confidence interval in (a)? Justify your answer.
Alright. So on the sample size and it's 21 patients. Okay. And the sample means HIV angle X. Bar is 84.76 degrees. Okay and the sample standard deviation S. T. D. Is 6.34 degrees. Now in part A we have to construct 90% carpenters interval part the mean HIV angle in the population of all such patients. Okay, so the Pamela Pardy had confidence in Turnbull is X. R. Plus. Manistee is of critical times sigma over square root N. Okay, So using the T critical value calculator at a 90% confidence interval in degrees of freedom is In -1 which is 21 -1. This is 20 part true tale gives it the critical value tease of C Is 1.7847. Okay so the 90% confidence in terrible is 24.76 plus men as 1.7247 times six point three Poor Divided by Square Root. 21. Okay so this will be equal to 24.76 plus -2.8861. Uh this is equal to 24.76 -2.3861 and 24.76 plus 2.3861. Okay and this is equal to 22.3739 and 27.1461. Okay. Now the interpreter and there is a 90% confidence interval that mean HIV angle patients population is lies between 22.3739 degrees and 27.1 for uh 61. Okay, so in part B The regression admitted one patient within HIV Angola, 50° from the analysis. So 50° is very far from mean 24.76° as compared to the standard deviation, Which is 6.3 point okay. Now the outliers uh effect the mean and uh the our standard deviation. So the values are meaning at the standard deviation are uh were valued when extreme values are present. Okay, so if we remove large valued outlier with value pip pip from sample, uh then mean and standard deviation. Both are decreased below to effect, including this our clear on the competence center. Well, okay, So let here, in part one The the upper and lower limits are higher when this outlier is present as compared to the upper and lower limits without outlier. And uh and part two Ah and by two ah with the competence in turbo is large when this our clear is prison but with his butt with is increased. I went out there does not include in data. Okay.
How will you identify the given lens is Convex lens and Concave lens ?
Answer:
concave is curved in the middle and convex is thick on the side
Answer:
Convex lenses curve outward like the outside of a sphere, while concave (cave= collapse is how i think it) lenses are thicker on the sides and thinner in the middle and tend to curve inward
Explanation:
Hope this helps <33
Policies and procedures have been developed and implemented based on your organization’s?
Answer:
A policy is a set of general guidelines that outline the organization's plan for tackling an issue. Policies communicate the connection between the organization's vision and values and its day-to-day operations. A procedure explains a specific action plan for carrying out a policy.
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A 23 yo male presents for a work physical. His blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. and his waist measures 47 inches. A lipid panel reveals an LDL of 138 mg/dL, HDL of 35 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 237 mg/dL. When you call with his lab results, you recommend:CHOOSE ONE-Starting metformin at 500 mg/day• Starting simvastatin at 10 mg/day• Starting monthly visits for weight loss counseling-Starting the DASH diet
A 23 yo male patient presents for a work physical. His blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. and his waist measures 47 inches. A lipid panel reveals an LDL of 138 mg/dL, HDL of 35 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 237 mg/dL. I recommend starting the DASH diet.
Based on the patient's high blood pressure, large waist circumference, and unfavorable lipid panel, lifestyle modifications should be the first line of intervention. The DASH diet has been shown to improve blood pressure, lipid profile, and promote weight loss. This approach is preferred over starting medications such as metformin or simvastatin. Monthly visits for weight loss counseling can also be recommended in conjunction with dietary modifications.
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Piaget would say that during the concrete operations period, children develop abilities
relating to all of the following EXCEPT:
O abstraction
O conservation
O seriation
O classification
Answer:
Piaget would say that during the concrete operations period, children develop abilities relating to all of the following EXCEPT abstraction.
Explanation:
The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.
Answer:
3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.
Explanation:
All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.
Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.
Why is negative staining useful in transmission electron microscopy-based visualization of viruses?
Answer:
well you see, negative staining of viral suspensions provides detailed information of virus particles' structure. It is a technique that can be quickly performed and is able to accommodate the highest magnifications of virus particles.
A 70-year-old female presented to the hospital with fever, myalgia, arthralgia, tachycardia, and dehydration and was believed to be septic. This patient has a history of hypertension, CHF, and migraines. Routine medications include Lasix 40 milligrams by mouth each morning, if needed, for significant pedal edema and Isordil 20 milligrams by mouth four times a day.
A variety of studies were obtained to further delineate the source of her problem. Urine cultures were negative. Blood cultures grew Escherichia coli. The blood urea nitrogen level was 22, and a random glucose was 149. An anterior-posterior film of the chest taken at the same time showed acute pulmonary edema.
The patient received intravenous fluids. The patient's routine medications were continued, and she received intravenous antibiotics. On the fourth day of her hospital stay, it was believed that the patient had reached maximal hospital benefit and was therefore switched to oral antibiotics and was discharged. The patient left the hospital in good condition.
DISCHARGE DIAGNOSES:
Sepsis due to Escherichia coli:
Dehydration:
Hypertensive heart disease:
Left ventricular failure:
Escherichia coli-related septicaemia equals A.41.51, E86.0 Dehydration heart failure and hypertension together equal to 11.0 is the discharge diagnosis.
What does septic mean?
The body's severe response to an infection is sepsis. It's a medical emergency that could endanger life. When an infection you already have sets off a series of events throughout your body, it results in sepsis. Sepsis-causing infections typically begin in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, skin, or lungs.
What triggers septicaemia in a person?
The most frequent cause of sepsis is bacterial infections. Infections with viruses, parasites, or fungi can also result in sepsis. Any variety of locations throughout the body can serve as the infection's source.
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Which food was one of the first recognized for its ability to reduce blood cholesterol and the risk of heart disease
Answer: oatmeal
Explanation:
Which of the following amalgam types tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact? A. Admix B. Spherical C. Lathe-cut D. All of the aboveTerm
The amalgam type which tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut.
What is amalgam?Amalgam is a dental filling material that has been used for over 150 years to restore decayed teeth. It is made up of a mixture of metals, including silver, tin, copper, and mercury. When these metals are mixed together, they form a soft, pliable material that can be packed into a cavity in a tooth. Over time, the amalgam hardens and becomes a strong, durable filling material.Amalgam restorations are one of the most common types of restorations used to repair cavities.
They are durable, long-lasting, and relatively inexpensive. However, there are some disadvantages to using amalgam as a filling material. One of these is that it can be difficult to get a good proximal contact with the adjacent tooth, especially in class II restorations.
The type of amalgam that tends not to displace the matrix band in class II restorations, requiring a larger wedge to separate the teeth more for good proximal contact is Lathe-cut. Lathe-cut amalgam is made by grinding a mixture of metals into a powder. This powder is then compressed into a solid block and sliced into pieces. Lathe-cut amalgam tends to be more brittle than other types of amalgam, which makes it less likely to deform and displace the matrix band.
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