transporting the neurotransmitter back into the postsynaptic cell for reuptake. Which results in neurotransmitter molecule release an action potential that has reached the axon's terminus.
Neurotransmitters that are excitatory promote the transmission of an action potential, whereas those that are inhibitory prevent it axon. Vesicles join the plasma membrane when an action potential reaches the end of an axon, releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.
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Which of these is FALSE?
a
Cells use ATP for cell work
b
Breaking down glucose gives off energy
c
Breaking down ATP gives off energy
d
1 ATP has more energy than 1 glucose
Answer:
D is false
Explanation:
D is false because after breaking down 1 glucose, around 36-38 ATP will be produced from ADP
A is true because cells use ATP for work
B is true, as breaking glucose makes ATP, which is just stored energy
C is true too, since ATP is an ADP connected to a phosphate. This bond contains energy and detaching the phosphate will power parts of the cell, for instance active transport systems.
connective tissue structures that attach bone to muscle are called
Answer:
those connective tissues are called Tendons.
Explanation:
A tendon is a fibrous connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone. Tendons may also attach muscles to structures such as the eyeball. tendons are often confused with ligaments, ligaments are fibrous connective tissue that attaches bone to bone, and usually serves to hold structures together and keep them stable
PLEASE HELP!
A. What kind of weather is associated with a low-pressure area?
B. What happens to the air of the low pressure areas that leads to this type of weather?
Answer:
A.) Low-pressure systems are usually associated with clouds and precipitation that minimize temperature changes throughout the day
B.) The slightly inward moving air in low pressure causes air to converge and since it can’t move downward because of the surface, the air is forced upward, leading to condensation and precipitation
Explanation:
Archaea and eukaryotes can regulate cellular processes posttranslationally by using
Multiple Choice
regulatory transcription factors.
feedback inhibition and covalent modifications.
feedback inhibition and regulatory transcription factors.
compaction of chromatin and DNA methylation.
antisense RNA and alternate splicing.
Archaea and eukaryotes can regulate cellular processes post translationally by using "feedback inhibition and covalent modifications." These mechanisms allow them to control protein activity and maintain proper cellular function after protein synthesis has occurred.
Archaea and eukaryotes can regulate cellular processes posttranslationally through feedback inhibition and covalent modifications. Feedback inhibition involves the inhibition of enzymatic activity by the end product of a metabolic pathway, which helps regulate the overall rate of the pathway. Covalent modifications refer to chemical modifications of proteins, such as phosphorylation, acetylation, and methylation, which can affect their structure, function, and interaction with other molecules.
Regulatory transcription factors play a role in gene expression by binding to DNA and controlling the transcription process, but they are not specific to posttranslational regulation. Compaction of chromatin and DNA methylation are involved in gene regulation at the level of transcription, but they are not specific to posttranslational regulation either. Antisense RNA and alternate splicing are mechanisms related to gene expression and mRNA processing but are not directly associated with posttranslational regulation.
The correct answer is "feedback inhibition and covalent modifications."
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How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? (A) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. (B) The cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. (C) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. (D) The cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
Cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I is (A) The cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
The correct option is (A).
The cells produced at the end of meosis cell division have half the number of chromosomes (termed as Haploid), so they will have half the number of chromosomes but same DNA as that of the parent cell as DNA divides and makes a copy of the parent cell DNA.Meiosis is a form of cell division of germ cells that creates gametes such as sperm or egg cells in sexually reproducing animals. It consists of two rounds of division that result in four cells with just one copy of each chromosome (haploid). Prior to division, genetic material from the paternal and maternal copies of each chromosome is crossed across, resulting in novel code combinations on each chromosome. During fertilisation, the haploid cells generated by meiosis from a male and female will unite to form a zygote, a cell with two copies of each chromosome.To learn more about Meiosis.
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Said adenine=thymine and guanine=cytosine
I need help for a crossword
Which of the following is the best definition of a scientific theory?
Answer:
C. a broad, well-supported explanation of related observations or events
Explanation:
A theory is a carefully thought-out explanation for observations of the natural world that has been constructed using the scientific method, and which brings together many facts and hypotheses.
Answer:
a broad, well-supported explanation of related observations or events
Explanation:
this the answer
The Tasty Beef Processing Plants are located in Alabama. There are 10 locations and both the slaughterhouse and processing plants are located on-site. Production for each plant is 12 million pounds per year. Each plant has 50 meat grinders. The product is provided to 3,000 customers at 10,000 locations. One of the key risks is E. Coli contamination. What is the objective of this audit? Group of answer choices
To maximize revenue and operating efficiencies.
To ensure employee safety.
To ensure controls are in place and working effectively to prevent beef tainted with E. Coli.
To optimize the production process.
The objective of this audit is to ensure controls are in place and working effectively to prevent beef tainted with E. Coli. Therefore option 3 is correct.
This means the main focus of the audit is on food safety and ensuring that the processing plants are implementing appropriate measures to prevent E. Coli contamination in the beef products they produce.
The audit will assess the effectiveness of controls, such as sanitation practices, employee training, quality assurance procedures, and monitoring systems, to ensure that the risk of E. Coli contamination is minimized and that the beef products meet safety standards.
While other objectives like maximizing revenue, employee safety, and optimizing the production process are important, the primary objective of this audit specifically relates to E. Coli contamination prevention and food safety.
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Need help plspspl pls pls pls guys o need help pls pls pls pls
Answer:
sure what the question
Explanation:
Answer:
نام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده است
Explanation:
نام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده استنام من باب سازنده است
Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk?
a) Chronic wasting disease
b) Scrapie
c) Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
d) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
The prion disease that is found in deer and elk is Chronic wasting disease (CWD). Chronic wasting disease is a prion disease found in deer, elk, and moose that results in degeneration of brain cells, causing emaciation, abnormal behavior, loss of bodily functions, and ultimately death.
CWD has been identified in deer in many states and provinces across the United States and Canada, as well as in South Korea and Europe. The infected animals lose weight rapidly, have trouble maintaining their balance, appear listless, and exhibit tremors. Chronic wasting disease (CWD) is a prion disease that occurs in deer, elk, and moose that results in degeneration of brain cells, causing emaciation, abnormal behavior, loss of bodily functions, and ultimately death.
The disease has been identified in deer in many states and provinces across the United States and Canada, as well as in South Korea and Europe. The prions are resistant to extreme heat, ultraviolet light, radiation, and disinfectants that kill bacteria and viruses. Chronic wasting disease (CWD) spreads through the contamination of the environment, with healthy deer and elk exposed to prions from the excrement, urine, and saliva of sick animals.
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Within the food web provided, look at all the ABIOTIC and BIOTIC factorsHow do they work together to create an ecosystem?
Biotic factors in an ecosystem are the living organisms or the participants in the foob web. They count on each other for their survival. The biotic factors in the foob web provided are the producers, consumers and decomposers. Abiotic factors in an ecosystem are rocks, soil, and water that collaborate with biotic factors to provide them with the nutrients they needed to survive. Sunlight, air, soil, and minerals are also examples of abiotic factors. Sunlight gives energy so that plants may use them i order to grow. This ultimately holds up the whole community of an ecosystem. Air also connects with plants to help them grow by providing an origin of CO2 and other nutrients.
Which term refers to a solution with a higher solute concentration outside the cell than inside the cell?
Answer:
Hypertonic
Hypertonic-the environment outside of the cell has a higher concentration of solutes than the cell itself has.
What is the average cropland fraction for the small farms?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
The average cropland fraction for the small farms is option B) 25%.What is cropland fraction? the correct option is B) 25%.
Cropland fraction is the percentage of land used for crops or agriculture. Cropland fraction is calculated as follows: Cropland fraction = (cropland area/total land area) × 100%.Cropland fraction for small farmsCropland is land that is mainly used for agricultural production. The average cropland fraction for small farms varies according to the size of the farm. Small farms usually have a higher percentage of cropland. The average cropland fraction for small farms is around 25%.
The average cropland fraction for small farms can vary depending on the specific region and agricultural practices. However, without further information or context, it is not possible to provide an accurate average cropland fraction for small farms.
The percentage of cropland can be influenced by factors such as farm size, location, climate, crop types, and farming techniques. It can range widely from less than 10% to more than 75%, depending on these variables.
Therefore, without specific information or a defined context, it is not possible to determine the average cropland fraction for small farms.
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Where have you noticed gene expression lately in the media? What
are recent advancements? Have you had any personal experience with
this technology?
One of the most interesting and revolutionary fields of scientific study is gene expression. Gene expression is the process by which information encoded in genes is used to direct the synthesis of functional gene products such as proteins. Gene expression is essential for all biological processes in an organism.
In recent years, advancements in technology have allowed for more sophisticated and detailed studies of gene expression, leading to breakthroughs in many fields of research.In the media, gene expression is frequently discussed in the context of health and disease. Researchers are using gene expression analysis to identify genetic variations associated with specific diseases, such as cancer and Alzheimer's disease. This has the potential to lead to new treatments and cures for these and other diseases. In addition, gene expression is also being used in forensics, where it can be used to identify suspects or victims of crime.
Recent advancements in technology have greatly improved our ability to study gene expression. For example, microarray technology allows researchers to examine the expression of thousands of genes at once. This technology has revolutionized our understanding of gene expression and has led to the discovery of many new genes and their functions. Another recent advancement is RNA sequencing, which allows researchers to identify all the RNA molecules in a sample. This technology has greatly improved our ability to identify and study gene expression patterns.
Personal experience with gene expression technology may vary depending on one's field of study or career. However, as a question answering bot, I do not have personal experiences to share.
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Why must DNA replication have to occur before a cell can divide by mitosis?
A. to cause one of the cells produced to have double the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
B. to allow crossing over to occur in each of the cells produced
C. to maintain the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as in the parent cell
D. to cause all of the cells produced to have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
Answer:
C
Explanation:
DNA replicates because the second set of DNA will move into the new cell during telophase. double-check in your text but C is the most accurate answer given. A doesn't happen unless there's a breakdown in cell division, and D is for meiosis when a diploid cell divides into a haploid cell. B could be correct but it's not entirely accurate.
Ferns, such as the one in the picture, can be found today. They are usually found
growing in warmer climates. However, fossils of ferns have been found in places with
cold climates where it often snows today. What can we conclude about the places
where the fossils of ferns have been found?
A. Ferns used to live in cold climates.
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
C. Someone tried to grow ferns in cold climates.
D. These places once had a colder climate.
Answer:
B. These places once had a warmer climate.
Explanation:
They're fossils meaning they're extremely old therefore the climate they once grew in was suitable for its needs until the climate changed causing them to die.
the most likely reason for colloidal dispersion is ________________.
The most likely reason for colloidal dispersion is the presence of particles or substances at the colloidal scale.
Colloidal dispersions occur when solid particles or liquid droplets, typically ranging in size from about 1 nanometer to 1 micrometer, are dispersed within a continuous medium, such as a liquid or a gas.
The particles or droplets in a colloidal dispersion are small enough to remain suspended or dispersed throughout the medium due to various factors, including Brownian motion, electrostatic repulsion, and van der Waals forces.
These interparticle forces help to stabilize the dispersion and prevent the particles from settling or aggregating.
The formation of a colloidal dispersion can occur through various processes, such as condensation, emulsification, or precipitation. Examples of colloidal dispersions include sols (liquid dispersed in a liquid), aerosols (liquid or solid dispersed in a gas), and gels (solid dispersed in a liquid).
Therefore, the primary reason for colloidal dispersion is the presence of particles or droplets at the colloidal scale and the interparticle forces that maintain their dispersion within a continuous medium.
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What captures light energy in a plant? A. pigments like chlorophyll B. mitochondria C. flowers
Answer:
A. Pigments like chlorophyll
Explanation:
In the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy.
True
False
______, necessary for photosynthesis in plants, is stored in the thylakoids.
Select one:
a.
The nucleus
b.
Mitochondria
c.
Vacuoles
d.
Chlorophyll
Answer: Chlorophyll
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
D, chlorophyll
Explanation:
chlorophyll is one of the most process of making their own food.
select all of the following that occur in prophase i of meiosis. multiple select question. sister chromatids separate. nuclear envelope breaks up. spindle forms from microtubules. dna replicates. crossing over occurs. chromosomes condense.
Answer:
During prophase 1 of meiosis, the below-selected processes occur.
The nuclear envelope breaks up The spindle forms microtubulesChromosomes condense crossing over occursExplanation:
During the First phase of the meiotic division called prophase I, all the following occur;
The nuclear envelope breaks up The spindle forms microtubulesChromosomes condense crossing over occursAdditionally, the homologous chromosomes pair up before the crossing-over occurs.
During this process, segments of the DNA chromosomes might be interchanged too, making this an important step in gene formation. Prophase I of meiosis is the longest meiotic division stage. read more about meiosis at; https://brainly.com/question/13648146?referrer=searchResults
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the sympathetic division of the ans causes ___________ airway dilation relaxation of the diaphragm decreases in breathing rates contraction of smooth muscles lining the bronchioles
The sympathetic division of the ANS causes B) airway dilation.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response, which is triggered in times of stress, danger, or excitement. This response prepares the body for immediate action by activating certain physiological changes.
When the sympathetic division is activated, it causes the dilation or widening of the airways in the lungs. This is achieved through the relaxation of the smooth muscles that line the bronchioles, which are the small air passages in the lungs. By relaxing these smooth muscles, the diameter of the bronchioles increases, allowing for improved airflow and increased oxygen delivery to the body's tissues.
Airway dilation is an important response during the "fight or flight" response because it enhances the individual's ability to take in more oxygen and deliver it to the muscles, enabling them to respond quickly and effectively in a potentially threatening or demanding situation.
The other options listed are not accurate:
A) Contraction of smooth muscles lining the bronchioles would result in the narrowing of the airways, reducing airflow.
C) Relaxation of the diaphragm is not a direct effect of the sympathetic division. The diaphragm is primarily controlled by the somatic nervous system.
D) Decreases in breathing rates are not a direct effect of the sympathetic division. The sympathetic division generally increases physiological responses, including breathing rates, to prepare the body for action.
In summary, the sympathetic division of the ANS causes airway dilation by relaxing the smooth muscles lining the bronchioles, allowing for increased airflow and improved oxygenation of the body's tissues.
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The correct question is:
The sympathetic division of the ANS causes
A contraction of smooth muscles lining the bronchioles
B airway dilation
C relaxation of the diaphragm
D decreases in breathing rates
A protein that is found in the Golgi apparatus was synthesized:
a. in the nucleus.
b. on ribosomes located in the smooth ER.
c. on ribosomes bound to the rough ER.
d. on ribosomes located in the chloroplast.
e. on ribosomes located in the cytoplasm..
The Golgi apparatus processes and sorts proteins from the ER for transport to lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
What are golgi apparatus?Proteins obtained from the ER are further processed and sorted in the Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, where they are eventually transported to lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. As was already mentioned, the Golgi also produces sphingomyelin and glycolipids.
The flattened cisternae and related vesicles make up the Golgi apparatus. The Golgi apparatus' cis face is where proteins and lipids from the ER enter, and its trans face is where they leave.
The transport, sorting, and modification of both protein and lipid are the three main tasks performed by the Golgi apparatus, and these tasks are reflected in the protein makeup of the organelle.
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genes for which disorders are coded on the y chromosome?​
The Y chromosome contains the SRY gene, which initiates embryonic development as a male. Other genes required for normal sperm production can be found on the Y chromosomes of humans and other mammals. There are, however, exceptions.
The SRY gene on the Y chromosome is a "male-determining gene" that causes testes to form in the embryo and results in the development of external and internal male genitalia. If the SRY gene is mutated, the embryo will develop female genitalia despite having XY chromosomes.
The Y chromosome is the one size of the X chromosome and contains approximately 55 genes, whereas the X chromosome contains approximately 900 genes.
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there are less than 10 species of insects that are pests in michigan lawns
it is true that there are less than 10 species of insects that are considered pests in Michigan lawns. These pests include grubs, chinch bugs, sod webworms, billbugs, and cutworms.
It's important to note that there are indeed several insect pests that can cause damage to lawns in Michigan. Some common ones include grubs, chinch bugs, sod webworms, and billbugs. To effectively manage these pests, it's essential to correctly identify them, monitor their populations, and apply appropriate control measures when necessary. Remember to maintain a healthy lawn through proper mowing, watering, and fertilization to reduce the likelihood of pest infestations.
While there may be other insects that can cause damage to lawns, these are the most common and destructive pests. It is important for homeowners to regularly monitor their lawns for signs of insect damage and to take action if necessary to prevent further damage. This can include using insecticides or implementing cultural practices such as proper watering and mowing to promote a healthy lawn that is less susceptible to pest infestations.
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Which joint moves only by a uniaxial movement around its own axis? A-Interphalangeal B-Radioulnar C-Thumb D-Knuckle. E.Radioulnar.
The radioulnar joint is the only joint that moves by a uniaxial movement around its own axis. This joint connects the radius and ulna bones in the forearm and allows for rotation of the forearm, allowing for pronation and supination.
What is radioulnar joint?The radioulnar joint is the joint between the radius and ulna bones in the forearm. It allows for movements such as pronation and supination. Pronation is the movement of the forearm and hand from the palm facing up to facing down, and supination is the opposite movement. This joint is composed of the radial notch of the ulna and the head of the radius. It is a synovial joint, meaning it is surrounded by a joint capsule that contains synovial fluid. This fluid helps to lubricate the joint and reduce friction during movement. The joint is stabilized by the annular ligament, which encircles the head of the radius. The radioulnar joint is important for fine motor control of the hand, and injury to this joint can cause pain, instability, reduced range of motion, and difficulty with gripping and manipulating objects.
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which organism is both a primary consumer and a secondary consumer in this web
Answer:
Omnivores
Explanation:
Omnivores, which feed on both plants and animals, can be considered as being both primary and secondary consumers.
Answer:
An organism cannot serve as both a main consumer and a secondary consumer at the same time in an ecological food web.
Explanation:
A primary consumer, usually referred to as a herbivore, consumes other producers such as plants directly. In a food chain or web, they are located on the second trophic level.
While a secondary consumer feeds on primary consumers. In a food chain or web, they are located on the third trophic level.
Each creature normally resides in a certain trophic level, which indicates its place in the movement of nutrients and energy through the ecosystem. An organism cannot occupy the primary consumer and secondary consumer levels at the same time, even if it can travel up or down the food chain/web by consuming other creatures
So, no organism can serve as both primary consumer and secondary consumer.
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examine the electropherogram below each 15 DNA markees list the numbers of STR repeats for each allele table 1
Another name for an electropherogram is an electrophoregram, or EPG or e-gram.
Thus, When electrophoresis is employed as an analytical technique, it creates a record or chart that is typically used in the fields of forensic biology, molecular biology, and biochemistry.
The technique uses data points that represent a DNA profile by fluorescence intensity at different light wavelengths and time scales.
An electropherogram is a visualization of DNA fragment sizes used in genetics, typically for genotyping processes like DNA sequencing. Base pairs (bps), which represent time, are shown on the x-axis of the data plot, while fluorescence intensity is given on the y-axis and e gram.
Thus, Another name for an electropherogram is an electrophoregram, or EPG or e-gram.
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if the temperature outside is 100 f, what is that temperature in celsius?
Answer:
37.78 degrees Celsius
Explanation:
Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?
A one enzyme can work with any substrate
B they can be used extracellularly
C they are made of only protein
D they are used entirely in the reaction
Answer:
C .they are made of only protein
Enzymes can be used extracellularly. Therefore option B is correct.
Enzymes are biological catalysts that facilitate chemical reactions in living organisms.
While enzymes are highly specific in their action, option A is incorrect because each enzyme typically works with a specific substrate or group of related substrates.
Option C is also incorrect because enzymes can be composed of both protein and non-protein components, such as cofactors or coenzymes.
Finally, option D is incorrect because enzymes are not used up entirely in the reaction but rather can be reused multiple times, making them efficient catalysts.
Therefore option B they can be used extracellularly is correct.
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