the medical team runs blood tests to confirm the patient's diagnosis. in addition to the presence of chickenpox antibodies, what result in a complete blood count would be supportive of the initial diagnosis?

Answers

Answer 1

In addition to the presence of chickenpox antibodies, a supportive result in a complete blood count (CBC) for the initial diagnosis of chickenpox could include an increased number of white blood cells (leukocytosis).

Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, can be diagnosed through blood tests that detect the presence of chickenpox antibodies. However, to further support the diagnosis, a complete blood count (CBC) may reveal certain abnormalities. In the case of chickenpox, an increased number of white blood cells, known as leukocytosis, is often observed. This increase is primarily due to the body's immune response to the viral infection. The elevation in white blood cells, particularly lymphocytes, can help confirm the diagnosis of chickenpox. It is important to interpret the CBC results in conjunction with the clinical presentation and other diagnostic findings to make an accurate diagnosis.

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Related Questions

QUESTION 3
Which veins deliver blood to the right atrium?
O A. superior vena cava
O B. inferior vena cava
C.coronary sinus
OD. both A&B
E. All of the above

Answers

Answer:

Blood enters the heart through two large veins, the inferior and superior vena cava, emptying oxygen-poor blood from the body into the right atrium. The pulmonary vein empties oxygen-rich blood, from the lungs into the left atrium. So both A & B .

Explanation:

The answer is D , A and B

all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?

Answers

All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.

Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.

While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.

Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.

It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.

On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.

Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.

Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.

Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.

So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.

The complete question is -

All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?

a. Hypoglycemia

b. Emphysema

c. Active tuberculosis

d. Asthma

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calculate the number of moles of aspirin in a 325 mg aspirin tablet.

Answers

Answer:

There are 1.80 × 10 − 3 mol of aspirin.

To calculate the number of moles of aspirin in a tablet, we need to know the molar mass of aspirin. The chemical formula of aspirin is C9H8O4.

The term "number of moles" is a concept in chemistry that refers to the amount of a substance. It is used to quantify the quantity of atoms, molecules, or ions in a sample.

A mole (symbol: mol) is a unit of measurement in the International System of Units (SI) that represents a specific quantity of a substance. One mole is defined as the amount of substance that contains the same number of entities (atoms, molecules, or ions) as there are atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12.

To calculate the molar mass, we add up the atomic masses of all the atoms in the formula:

(9 * atomic mass of carbon) + (8 * atomic mass of hydrogen) + (4 * atomic mass of oxygen)

The atomic masses are:

Carbon (C): 12.01 g/mol

Hydrogen (H): 1.008 g/mol

Oxygen (O): 16.00 g/mol

Molar mass of aspirin:

(9 * 12.01 g/mol) + (8 * 1.008 g/mol) + (4 * 16.00 g/mol) = 180.16 g/mol

Now, we can calculate the number of moles using the formula:

moles = mass / molar mass

Given that the mass of the aspirin tablet is 325 mg (or 0.325 g), we can substitute the values into the formula:

moles = 0.325 g / 180.16 g/mol ≈ 0.00180 moles

Therefore, there are approximately 0.00180 moles of aspirin in a 325 mg aspirin tablet.

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1. Compare the practice of medicine in the ancient river civilizations, including ancient Africa. 5 marks

Answers

The ancient river civilizations practiced medicine based on spiritual beliefs, natural remedies, and surgery for emergencies. Ancient Africa used herbal medicine and circumcision as a rite of passage.


The practice of medicine in the ancient river civilizations was a combination of spiritual beliefs, natural remedies, and surgical procedures. In Mesopotamia, the oldest recorded medical documents, the Diagnostic Handbook, were created in 2600 BCE. In Ancient Egypt, medical practice was highly advanced, as evidenced by mummification techniques. Doctors were known as swnw and were highly respected, able to perform various surgeries, from amputations to brain surgeries.  

Ancient African medicine was primarily based on herbal remedies. One of the most famous remedies, aspirin, was discovered by ancient Africans and used for pain relief. Circumcision was a rite of passage and also performed for medical reasons such as preventing the spread of sexually transmitted diseases. In conclusion, ancient civilizations in Africa and Mesopotamia had their unique medical practices, but their common goal was to prevent and treat ailments through their respective methods.

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what are the three categories of hospital laundry

Answers

Answer:

The handling of soiled, foul and infected linen at hospitals

Linen is normally classified into main three categories: Soiled linen: normal used linen. Foul linen: linen requiring sluicing before laundering (such as babies' nappies) Infected linen: linen that may require sluicing and disinfection before final laundering

After the nurse counsels a primiparous, breastfeeding client about diet and nutritional needs during the lactation period, which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."

Explanation:

For the breastfeeding patient, drinking  8 to 10 glasses of liquid daily is suggested anyhow. Breastfeeding ladies need an increased level of nutrient D intake for calcium absorption.

A breastfeeding lady requires an additional 500 cal/day over the prescribed nonpregnancy admission to deliver quality breast milk. Breastfeeding ladies need sufficient calcium for blood coagulating and solid bones and teeth.

Thus, the correct answer or statement would be - "I should drink at least five glasses of fluid daily."








External barriers to clinical practice guideline implementation include all of the following except:

Answers

The correct option that does not fit as an external barrier to clinical practice guideline implementation is option  A. Lack of familiarity with the guideline.

Lack of familiarity with the guideline does not fit as an external barrier to clinical practice guideline because healthcare providers need to be aware of and understand the recommendations in order to effectively implement them.

The other options listed as potential external barriers include:

B. Cost to patient: If patients are unable to afford the recommended treatments or interventions, it can hinder guideline implementation.

C. Increased malpractice liability: Providers may be hesitant to follow guidelines if they fear increased malpractice risk for deviating from customary practices.

D. Insufficient staff, consultant support: Inadequate resources and support can hinder the successful implementation of guidelines.

E. Lack of reimbursement: If healthcare providers are not adequately reimbursed for following guideline recommendations, it can act as a barrier to implementation.

Therefore, the correct answer is  Option A. Lack of familiarity with the guideline, as it is an external barrier to clinical practice guideline implementation.

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The Question was Incomplete, Find the full content below :

External barriers to clinical practice guideline implementation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Lack of familiarity with the guideline

B. Cost to patient

C. Increased malpractice liability

D. Insufficient staff, consultant support

E. Lack of reimbursement.

nurse mark is caring for ms. hall, who is taking furosemide (lasix) and spironolactone (aldactone). mark would be most concerned that the medications were not working if he noted

Answers

This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia. correct option(2)

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; furosemide is a potassium-losing diuretic. Giving these together minimizes electrolyte imbalance.

Spironolactone is a diuretic that reduces potassium levels (water pill). It maintains your potassium levels from falling too low and prevents your body from absorbing too much salt. This medication is also employed in the treatment and prevention of hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

If you have a sluggish or irregular heartbeat, tingling sensations, muscular weakness, or shortness of breath, your potassium levels may be too high. If you're urinating less than usual or have black, strong-smelling pee, are thirsty, or feel dizzy or light-headed, you may be dehydrated.

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Full Question: The nurse is providing education to a patient on why spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) are prescribed together. What information does the nurse provide to the patient?

1) Moderate doses of two different types of diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one type.

2) This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia.

3) This combination prevents dehydration and hypovolemia.

4) Using two drugs increases osmolality of plasma and the glomerular filtration rate.

Which type of drug classification are addictive drugs that have an extremely relaxing effect on the central nervous system? a) depressant b) stimulant c) narcotic d) hallucinogens

Answers

The type of drug classification are addictive drugs that have an extremely relaxing effect on the central nervous system---- narcotic

What is a narcotic and what does it do?

A substance won't to treat moderate to severe pain. Narcotics are like opiates like morphine and codeine, but aren't made from opium. They bind to opioid receptors within the central nervous system. Narcotics are now called opioids.

Does narcotic mean drugs?

Narcotics are drugs like opium or heroin which make you sleepy and stop you feeling pain. you'll also use narcotics, especially in American English , to mean any quite illegal drug.

What narcotic is employed for severe pain?

Opioids, powerful pain medications that diminish the perception of pain, could also be given after surgery. Intravenous opioids may include fentanyl, hydromorphone, morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone and tramadol.

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how could kidney stones cause an increase in epithelial tissues present in the urinalysis?

Answers

When kidney stones are present in the body, they can cause an increase in the amount of epithelial tissues present in the urinalysis.

Kidney stones can cause an increase in epithelial tissues present in the urinalysis due to the following reasons:
1. Irritation: Kidney stones can cause irritation to the urinary tract, including the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. This irritation can lead to an increased shedding of epithelial cells from the urinary tract lining, resulting in a higher number of these cells present in the urine sample.
2. Inflammation: As the kidney stones pass through the urinary tract, they can cause inflammation and damage to the surrounding tissues. This inflammatory response can lead to an increase in the production and release of epithelial cells into the urine.
3. Infection: Kidney stones may obstruct the flow of urine, creating a favorable environment for bacterial growth and infection. This infection can cause damage to the epithelial lining of the urinary tract, leading to the presence of more epithelial cells in the urine sample.
To sum up, kidney stones can lead to an increase in epithelial tissues present in urinalysis due to irritation, inflammation, and infection in the urinary tract.

This is because kidney stones can cause damage to the urinary tract, leading to inflammation and the shedding of epithelial cells. In addition to the increased presence of epithelial tissues, kidney stones can also cause an increase in the amount of protein, red blood cells, and white blood cells present in the urine. This is due to the damage that the stones can cause to the urinary tract, as well as the body's response to the injury.

The presence of kidney stones can also cause pain and discomfort in the lower abdomen, back, and groin areas. Treatment options for kidney stones include pain management, fluid intake, and surgery to remove the stones if they are too large to pass on their own.

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Is it necessary to verify the benefits for Ms. Hilbert because she has the same insurance company as Mr. Campbell and they work for the same company? Why or why not

Answers

Yes, because they could have different jobs which can come with different benefits.

The answer for this question is,Yes it is necessary to do that because they could each have a unique job with a unique set of perks. It is important to follow the guidelines positively so that everyone gets equal and good opportunities to everyone so that everyone could get benefits.

What is Insurance?

An organisation that offers Insurance is referred to as an underwriter, insurer, insurance business, or insurance carrier.

A person or company that purchases Insurance is referred to as a policyholder, while someone or anything that is protected by the policy is referred to as an insured.

Despite the fact that the terms policyholder and insured are usually used synonymously, they are not necessarily the same since, occasionally, additional insureds who did not purchase the Insurance may be protected.

In exchange for the insurer's pledge to reimburse the insured in the case of a covered loss, the policyholder accepts a predictable, limited, and guaranteed loss in the form of premium payment to the insurer. The loss may or may not be quantifiable in dollars, but it must be.

So with this we can conclude that in exchange for a certain premium, a corporation or the government agrees to give a guarantee of reimbursement for specified loss, damage, disease, or death which is again known as Insurance.

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for Aspiration Pneumonia mention its
1.MCC?
2. symptoms

Answers

Aspiration pneumonia is a type of lung infection that occurs when food, liquids, saliva, or vomit are breathed into the lungs instead of being swallowed into the digestive system.

The most common cause of aspiration pneumonia is dysphagia, which is difficulty swallowing due to various conditions such as stroke, Parkinson's disease, or dementia. Symptoms of aspiration pneumonia include coughing, wheezing, fever, chest pain, shortness of breath, rapid breathing, and fatigue. Individuals with aspiration pneumonia may also experience confusion, delirium, or changes in mental status. In severe cases, aspiration pneumonia can lead to sepsis, respiratory failure, or death. Prompt recognition and treatment of aspiration pneumonia are essential to prevent complications. Treatment may involve antibiotics, bronchodilators, or oxygen therapy. It is important to address any underlying conditions that may cause dysphagia to prevent future episodes of aspiration pneumonia.

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Pls pls pls pls I need help and pls right it out

Pls pls pls pls I need help and pls right it out

Answers

Answer:

Water ,Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Amino Acids, Glucose, Proteins, Starch

Explanation:

I am a bit confused about Amino acids and Glucose.

Regards

Graph the function
g(x) = 8x2 – 24x +9

Answers

Answer:

x = 25/24

Explanation:

Answer : x = 8x2 - 24x plus 9

There are more full-time U.S employees who are current illicit-drug user than there are heavy users of alcohol
a. true
b. false

Answers

The statement that "There are more full-time U.S employees who are current illicit-drug users than there are heavy users of alcohol" is false.

According to the 2019 National Survey on Drug Use and Health, an estimated 20.4 million adults aged 18 or older (7.9% of this age group) reported illicit drug use within the past month in the United States. In comparison, heavy alcohol use (defined as binge drinking on 5 or more days in the past month) was reported by approximately 16.1 million adults, representing 6.3% of the same age group.
Therefore, the data indicates that there are more individuals who engage in heavy alcohol use than those who are current illicit-drug users among full-time U.S employees.

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Why do persons with dementia gradually loss the ability to communicate?

Answers

Persons with dementia gradually lose the ability to communicate due to the progressive degeneration and damage to the brain, which directly affects their cognitive and linguistic abilities.

Several factors contribute to this communication decline:

Cognitive Impairment: Dementia affects memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. As the disease progresses, individuals struggle to retrieve and organize words, follow conversations, and express thoughts coherently.

Language Processing Issues: Dementia can disrupt language processing centers in the brain, impairing comprehension and expression. Difficulty understanding spoken or written language further hampers communication.

Decline in Verbal Skills: Dementia may lead to aphasia, a condition that affects language production and comprehension. Individuals may struggle to find the right words or substitute with incorrect or nonsensical words, making communication challenging.

Social and Emotional Impairment: Dementia impacts social skills and emotional regulation, hindering the ability to engage in meaningful conversations, understand social cues, and express emotions effectively.

Motor Impairment: As dementia progresses, individuals may experience motor difficulties, including problems with articulation and swallowing, leading to slurred speech or difficulty enunciating words.

It is important to note that even though individuals with dementia may have difficulty communicating verbally, non-verbal communication, such as gestures, facial expressions, and body language, can still play a crucial role in maintaining connections and understanding their needs and emotions. Providing supportive and patient communication, using visual cues, and utilizing alternative communication methods, such as picture boards or technology-based solutions, can help facilitate communication with individuals with dementia as their verbal abilities decline.

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Khalil has a flock of sheep that he has just paid the vet a huge amount of money to deworm. Within just a few months, Khalil's sheep are once again infested with them. What can Khalil do to hopefully prevent the sheep from picking up worms after they are treated this time?

Answers

Answer: Khalil can use the practice of 'DOSE AND MOVE' method.

Explanation:

A parasite can be defined as an organism that depends on another organism, usually referred to as it's host, for all or part of its life cycle while obtaining it's metabolic requirements. These organisms are capable of infesting both man and animals. The most common parasite that infests sheep includes:

--> lung worms

--> stomach worms

--> liver fluke and

--> Intestinal parasites.

The parasitic infections of these worms has caused alot of economic loss for sheep producers that is why they often at times DEWORM their sheep. Deworming is a process by which anthelmintic drugs are given to animals to get rid of intestinal worms.

To ensure an effective deworming treatment is carried out, farmers like Khalil as advised to practice 'DOSE AND MOVE' method.

This method ensures that once the sheep is treated, it is moved to a new area for pasture to minimize them from being reinfested rapidly again. Reinfection usually occurs when these animals pick up the larve of the parasite while grazing, therefore moving them to a new location can minimize it. Also deworming at regular basis is equally advised after moving the cattle to a new pasture location.

Identifying Customer Service Tasks
According to O*NET, which Pharmacy Technicians tasks require customer service skills?

a. receiving written prescriptions or refilling requests and verifying customer service skills?
b. establishing or maintaining patient profiles, including lists of medications taken by individual patients.
c. maintaining proper storage and security conditions for drugs.
d. answering telephones and responding to questions or requests.
e. prepackaging bulk medicines, filling bottles with prescribed medications and typing and affixing labels.
f. mixing pharmaceutical preparations according to written prescriptions.

Answers

Answer:

B. Establishing or maintaining patient profiles, including lists of medications taken by individual patients.

D. Answering telephones and responding to questions and requests.

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

A health care provider prescribes morphine for a client being treated for myocardial infarction. Which physiological response will occur if the client experiences the intended therapeutic effect of morphine

Answers

Morphine is a potent painkiller that is commonly prescribed to treat myocardial infarction (MI) clients. The physiological response that occurs when a client experiences the intended therapeutic effect of morphine is a reduction in the client's heart rate and blood pressure.

Morphine is a medication that belongs to the class of narcotic pain relievers. It is derived from the opium poppy and is highly effective in relieving moderate to severe pain. Morphine can also be used to treat various conditions, including myocardial infarction, severe pain, and cancer pain, among others.

Morphine works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, spinal cord, and other organs. These receptors are responsible for regulating pain, mood, and other physiological functions. When morphine binds to these receptors, it blocks the transmission of pain signals to the brain, resulting in pain relief. When a healthcare provider prescribes morphine for a client being treated for myocardial infarction, the intended therapeutic effect is to reduce the client's pain. The reduction in pain is achieved by blocking the transmission of pain signals to the brain.

Additionally, morphine also reduces heart rate and blood pressure by slowing down the client's breathing rate and relaxing the blood vessels. This reduction in heart rate and blood pressure allows the client's heart to pump more efficiently and reduces the workload on the heart. In conclusion, the physiological response that occurs when a client experiences the intended therapeutic effect of morphine is a reduction in the client's heart rate and blood pressure.

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Phenylketonuria (PKU) can cause damage to the central nervous system, developmental delays, hyperactivity, and seizures, but it can be diagnosed shortly after birth with a simple ______ test.
allergy
IQ
muscle
blood

Answers

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a genetic disorder that can lead to severe consequences such as damage to the central nervous system, developmental delays, hyperactivity, and seizures if left untreated.

Fortunately, PKU can be diagnosed shortly after birth with a simple blood test. This test checks the levels of phenylalanine in the baby's blood, which is an amino acid that can build up and cause damage in individuals with PKU. The test is usually done within the first few days after birth, and early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for preventing the severe consequences of the disorder. Once diagnosed, treatment involves strict adherence to a low-phenylalanine diet, which can help prevent further damage to the central nervous system and promote healthy development. Therefore, it is important for parents to ensure that their newborns undergo this screening test to detect PKU early and start treatment as soon as possible.

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In what respects does epidemiology differ from clinical medicine?

Answers

Answer:

Epidemiology and clinical medicine are both fields of study related to health and disease, but they differ in several key respects:

Scope and Population-level Focus: Epidemiology is the study of health and disease patterns in populations, typically at the community, regional, national, or global level. It focuses on understanding the distribution, determinants, and patterns of health and disease in populations, including factors such as risk factors, prevalence, incidence, and outcomes. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and management of individual patients at the level of the individual or small groups of patients.

Study Design and Methods: Epidemiology typically employs observational study designs, such as cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies, to investigate the relationships between exposures (such as risk factors) and health outcomes in populations. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, often involves randomized controlled trials (RCTs), systematic reviews, and other experimental designs to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions or treatments in individual patients.

Emphasis on Population Health and Prevention: Epidemiology places a strong emphasis on population health and disease prevention. Epidemiologists study patterns of disease occurrence and work to identify and understand risk factors and determinants of health in populations, with the goal of informing public health policies and interventions to prevent disease and promote health at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, focuses on diagnosing, treating, and managing diseases in individual patients, with the goal of improving the health outcomes of individual patients.

Role in Public Health and Policy: Epidemiology plays a critical role in public health practice, as it provides evidence for the development of public health policies and interventions to improve population health. Epidemiologists work closely with public health agencies and policymakers to identify and mitigate health risks, monitor disease trends, and develop strategies for disease prevention and control. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, is primarily concerned with providing individual patient care and is typically not directly involved in the development of public health policies.

Data and Analysis: Epidemiology often involves the analysis of large datasets, such as population-based surveys, health records, and other epidemiological databases, to identify patterns and trends in health and disease at the population level. Clinical medicine, on the other hand, primarily relies on individual patient data, including medical history, physical examinations, and laboratory tests, to diagnose and treat diseases in individual patients.

Overall, while both epidemiology and clinical medicine are important fields of study related to health and disease, they differ in their scope, study designs, methods, emphasis on population health, role in public health and policy, and data analysis approaches. Understanding these differences is crucial for accurately interpreting and applying findings from both fields in healthcare practice and public health interventions.

Explanation:

A patient with actinic keratoses has received a prescription for fluorouracil [Carac]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of this medication?
a. "Healing should occur 6 weeks after beginning treatment."
b. "I will apply this drug twice daily."
c. "Severe inflammation is an indication for stopping treatment."
d. "Tissue ulceration and necrosis are desired effects."

Answers

The patient should not consider tissue ulceration and necrosis as desired effects thus healing should occur 6 weeks after beginning treatment, option (a) is correct.

Tissue ulceration and necrosis are not desired effects of fluorouracil (Carac) treatment. Fluorouracil is a topical chemotherapy medication used to treat actinic keratoses, a precancerous skin condition. The goal of treatment is to induce controlled skin reactions, such as erythema and inflammation, to eliminate abnormal cells.

However, severe inflammation is not an indication for stopping treatment as it is an expected side effect. Patients are usually instructed to apply the medication once or twice daily, depending on the specific treatment regimen prescribed, and healing typically occurs within a few weeks, option (a) is correct.

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Which are lung conditions? Check all that apply.
silicosis
Obyssinosis
anthracosis
sleep apnea syndromes
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
dyspnea

Answers

Answer:

all of the above

Explanation:

your welcome my dawg

Answer:

1 silicosis

2 byssinosis

3 anthracosis

Explanation:

Please give me the answer

Please give me the answer

Answers

Answer:

I think the answer is true.(?)

The ability for a muscle to work against a resistance for an extended period of time is.

Answers

A muscle's endurance is its capacity to contract repeatedly against a fixed resistance over an extended length of time.

Tearm endurance:

The capacity for enduring difficulty or adversity, especially the capacity for long-term stress-inducing effort or exercise, such as a marathon runner's endurance. 2: the act of enduring many sufferings or an instance of doing so. 3: persistence of the play's significance, permanency.

Types:

The types of endurance are aerobic endurance,

anaerobic endurance : Anaerobic exercise is a type of exercise that breaks down glucose in the body without using oxygen; anaerobic means "without oxygen".

speed endurance :is the ability to prolong the amount of time where a near maximal speed can be maintained.

strength endurance :Strength endurance is the specific form of strength displayed in activities which require a relatively long duration of muscle tension with minimal decrease in efficiency"

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T/F The scientific basis for patient care constantly changes

Answers

The given statement "The scientific basis for patient care constantly changes" is True.

The scientific basis for patient care is constantly changing as new research and discoveries are made in the medical field. This is why it is important for healthcare professionals to stay up to date on the latest developments and continue their education throughout their careers. By doing so, they can provide the best possible care for their patients based on the most current and accurate information available.

The acts and procedures involved in giving medical treatment and assistance to patients, including physical and emotional care, are referred to as patient care. In addition to guaranteeing patient safety, respecting patient privacy and confidentiality, and promoting patient education and self-care, patient care entails encouraging patient education and self-care.

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The principal purpose of the National Institutes of Health is to:

The principal purpose of the National Institutes of Health is to:

Answers

Hello! I’m pretty sure the answer is B since national health institutes are used to help conduct research and study sustainability and human health as well as reduce illness.

can a consumer who qualifies for low income subsidy receive financial assistance for their part of medicare part d cost?

Answers

Answer:

Individuals with incomes up to 150 percent of the federal poverty level can receive help with their Part D costs for premiums, deductibles and co-pays through the Part D Low Income Subsidy (known as “LIS” or “Extra Help”), which is administered by the Social Security Administration.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:Through subsidies that offer lower or no cost monthly premiums and lower or no cost copays

an 8-year-old child, diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder, is admitted by the nurse to a psychiatric facility. during the admission assessment, which behaviors would be characterized as compulsions? select all that apply.

Answers

During the admission assessment, the behaviors that would be characterized as compulsions includes:

checking and rechecking that the television is turned off before going to school.repeatedly washing the handsroutinely climbing up and down a flight of stairs three times before leaving the houseWhat is admission assessment?

The nursing admission assessment includes gathering information concerning the patient's individual physiological, psychological, sociological, and spiritual needs. It is usually the first step in the successful evaluation of a patient. Subjective and objective data collection are an integral part of this process.

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The full question is below:

An 8 year-old child, diagnosed with obsessive -compulsive disorder, is admitted by the nurse to a psychiatric facility. During the admission assessment, which behaviors would be characterized as compulsions? Select all that apply

1. checking and rechecking that the television is turned off before going to school.

2. repeatedly washing the hands

3. brushing teeth three times per day

4. routinely climbing up and down a flight of stairs three times before leaving the house

5. feeding the dog the same meal every day.

6. wanting to play the same video game each night.

What are the advantages and disadvantages of early and late maturation in males and females?

Answers

Answer:

males

Explanation:

They found that girls who matured earlier than their peers had increased rates of depression that persisted over the course of the study. Among adolescent girls, early puberty is associated with more depressive disorders, substance use disorders, eating disorders and disruptive behavior disorders. Make me the brainliest and give me a heart ❤️ thank you
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