Answers
A registered nurse is instructing a nursing student in the leadership skills necessary to resolve disputes amicably. If my initial efforts fail to resolve the disagreement, I will start trying again right away.
Which of the nursing student's statements demonstrates the need for additional instruction?Nursing students are being taught by a qualified nurse the proper way to administer medications. Which of the following remarks made by a nursing student calls for more instruction? "The medication needs to be labeled after preparation."The newly recruited registered nurse (RN) is being instructed by the charge nurse on how to assign work to unlicensed nursing staff (UNPs). Which of the new RN's comments suggests that more instruction is required? "I shouA nursing student is being instructed by a registered nurse on the numerous elements that influence drug absorption. Which of the following statements made by nursing student calls for more instruction? Assist the staff in comprehending "Patients having malnutrition and liver illness are at risk for drug toxicity."To learn more about Nurse refers to"
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Related Questions
What does the nutrition facts label tell you about vitamin C content of this cereal?a. the main source of vitamin C is the whole grain wheat in the cerealb. vitamin C has been added to the cereal because whole grains are low in vitamin Cc. a natural form of vitamin has been added to the cereald. the source of vitamin C is the added milk
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The nutrition facts label on a food product typically provides information about the nutrient content of the food, including vitamin C. Option c is Correct.
In the case of the cereal, the nutrition facts label will tell you whether the cereal is a good source of vitamin C, and if so, how much vitamin C is in the cereal. If the cereal is fortified with vitamin C, the nutrition facts label will also indicate the amount of vitamin C that has been added to the cereal. It will not tell you the source of the vitamin C, such as whether it is from whole grain wheat or added milk.
If a food is a good source of a particular nutrient, such as vitamin C, the nutrition facts label will indicate this by displaying the amount of vitamin C per serving. For example, the label might indicate that the food is a good source of vitamin C, and that there are 10% or more of the daily value (DV) of vitamin C in one serving. If the food is fortified with vitamin C, the label will also indicate the amount of vitamin C that has been added to the food.
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Drugs that are similar to the male hormone testosterone are called.
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A 50-year-old woman has had easy fatigability and noted a dragging sensation in her abdomen for the past 5 months. Physical examination reveals that she is afebrile. She has marked splenomegaly, but no lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show her total WBC count is 250,000/mm3 with WBC differential count showing 64% segmented neutrophils, 11% band neutrophils, 7% metamyelocytes, 5% myelocytes, 4% myeloblasts, 3% lymphocytes, 2% basophils, 2% eosinophils, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, and karyotypic analysis of the cells reveals a t(9;22) translocation. Medical treatment with a drug having which of the following modes of action is most likely to produce a complete remission in this patient?
Answers
Note that in the above scenario, involving Chronic Myeloid Leukemia(CML) the medical treatment with a drug having the above-described modes of action that is likely to produce a complete remission in this patient are:
Inhibiting tyrosine Kinase activityChronic myelogenous leukemia; translocation causes uncontrolled nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity of BCR-ABL fusion of gene.What is Translocation?Chromosomal translocation is a genetic condition that causes atypical chromosome rearrangement. Balanced and unbalanced translocation are included, with two primary types: reciprocal- and Robertsonian translocation.
Translocations can be discovered with high sensitivity and specificity by targeted hybrid-capture-based DNA sequencing panels, although this needs intron sequencing. By utilizing off-target coverage, capture-based targeted sequencing may detect all translocation partners of a captured gene.
Note that while these drugs do not cure CML, they can induce complete remission in a significant proportion of patients and have significantly improved the outlook for individuals with this cancer.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
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Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
Chronic migraine sufferers should
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Answer:
People who suffer from chronic migraines should consult their doctor to get their opinion and a potential diagnosis. Migraine can be formed by pinched nerves, stress, or a potential disorder. If you have a migrain, in order to self treat it you should lay down in a dark room with a cool rag over your eyes. Too much movement can cause dizziness and in worse cases hallucinations.
The root word "cephal-" refers to the head, and the suffix "-y" refers to a condition. Which is a condition in which a person has a larger than normal head?
a. Neocephaly
b. Exocephaly
c. Macrocephaly
d. Hypocephaly
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c. Macrocephaly is a condition in which a person has a larger than normal head.
What inherited condition has a big head?Smith-Kingsmore syndrome is a neurological condition characterised by seizures, an intellectual handicap, and an extremely big head (macrocephaly). Some persons who have this disease never learn to talk or just learn to speak slowly.
Cephalohematoma: What is it?An accumulation of blood under the scalp is known as a cephalohematoma. Small blood veins on the fetus's head are damaged as a consequence of slight trauma during delivery.
What does subgaleal mean?The term "subgaleal" alludes to the condition's position on the head, between the scalp's skin and the skull. Any bleeding that is evident or continuous in the subgaleal region of the head is considered to as a haemorrhage.
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The last korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to:_________
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The last Korotkoff sound occurs when the blood pressure is equal to the diastolic pressure.
Korotkoff sounds refer to the sounds that health care providers hear through the stethoscope when they measure blood pressure manually. When blood flow through the arteries is restricted, Korotkoff sounds occur.
The brachial artery of the arm is the most frequent site for measuring blood pressure by this method.
Blood pressure is the force with which blood flows through the blood vessels. It is measured in millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) and given as two numbers, the systolic and diastolic pressures.
The systolic pressure, or the first number, indicates the force at which the heart beats and pushes blood through the arteries.
The diastolic pressure, or the second number, indicates the force at which the heart rests between beats. The ideal blood pressure for an adult is 120/80 mm Hg.
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How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.
Answers
Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).
What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.To learn more about fatty acids refer
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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
What is fatty acids?Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.
Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.
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How old do you need to be to sign up for Medicare in Oregon?
Answers
Answer:
65
Explanation:
People who are younger than 65 may also be Medicare eligible if they've been receiving Social Security disability check for at least 24 months or have end-stage renal disease. Medicare enrollment in Oregon accounts more than 830,000 Oregonians currently enrolled in Medicare.
Medicare eligibility starts at age 65. Your initial window to enroll is the seven-month period that begins three months before the month of your 65th birthday and ends three months after it. Seniors are generally advised to sign up on time to avoid penalties that could prove quite costly over the course of retirement.
What are the requirements when checking in C3-5 products
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Handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on are required.
What are C3-5 and pse?The C3-5 and Pse are certificates that give the products a grade. Using CFRX, all Cill-Vs should be checked into the electronic delivery check-in screen.
Each page of the invoice contains a signature. Each page of the invoice must include the date received.
The date when the Ciii-v and Pse products were obtained must be documented on each page of the invoice.
As a result, the prerequisites are handwritten marks such as circles, checkmarks, slashes, and so on.
Thus, these are the basic requirements when checking in C3-5 products.
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Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease? A) lifestyle. B) genetic background. C) climate. D) occupation
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None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.
Predisposing factors are those that increase a child's likelihood of experiencing a problem (in this case, high anticipatory distress). These could include temperament, life experiences, or genetics. A specific incident or trigger that led to the current issue's emergence is referred to as a predisposing factors. There are various anatomical, genetic, general, and disease-specific risk factors for getting infectious illnesses. People can be more vulnerable to infectious agents due to the climate and weather, as well as other environmental elements that are impacted by them.
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A boy jumps into a cold lake, causing his body temperature to decrease. As a result, his muscles, blood vessels, and nervous system work together to restore his body temperature
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Answer:
I think it is homeostasis
Name the solid device used to crush or grind material in a mortar
Answers
Answer:
A pestle...?
Explanation:
what is a major difference between private commercial insurers and hmo's?
Answers
The major difference between private commercial insurers and HMOs is that private commercial insurers offer a wider choice of providers, whereas HMOs restrict choice of providers.
Private commercial insurers are businesses that provide coverage for a wide range of medical services to individuals or groups in exchange for monthly or yearly payments known as premiums. These services are available from a large network of medical providers such as physicians, hospitals, and clinics.
HMOs are healthcare organizations that provide coverage for a wide range of medical services to individuals or groups in exchange for monthly or yearly payments known as premiums. These services are only available from medical providers who are members of the organization's network. In an HMO, patients must choose a primary care physician who is responsible for managing their overall care and referring them to specialists as needed. HMOs are designed to offer affordable, high-quality healthcare services by providing preventive care and managing chronic conditions.
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Do you think DUN messages are important?
Answers
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
DUN messages refer to "do not use" messages that aim to warn clinicians about potential safety issues with medications.
When providing care to a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, which actions could the RN complete rather than delegating to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
1. Explain the purpose of the vanillylmandelic acid test.
2. Remove caffeinated beverages from the client's meal tray.
3. Remind client not to smoke.
4. Instruct the client on activity restrictions
5. Monitor hydration status.
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When providing care to a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, the RN could complete the following actions rather than delegating to the licensed practical nurse (LPN):Explain the purpose of the vanillylmandelic acid test.Instruct the client on activity restrictions. Remove caffeinated beverages from the client's meal tray.
Remind client not to smoke. Monitor hydration status. Pheochromocytoma is a rare tumor of adrenal gland tissue. It causes excessive production of adrenaline and noradrenaline hormones. The RN may complete tasks that require nursing judgment or that have a potential for high risk to the patient because of its significance. Removing caffeinated beverages from the client's meal tray, reminding the client not to smoke, and monitoring hydration status are some of the essential nursing interventions that can be performed by the RN without delegating to LPN.
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Modeling by health leaders demonstrates the ______________ expected by everyone in the organization.
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Answer:
Modeling by health leaders demonstrates the all of these are correct expected by everyone in the organization.
Hope this helps you!
Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
the filtering of blood cells in the spleen
The systemic veins function by:
returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.
The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the:
arterioles.
Hypoperfusion is another name for:
shock.
Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the:
circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs.
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours?
skeletal muscle
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.
20%
The ability of a person’s cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to:
how rapidly he or she bleeds.
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control?
femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct?
Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be:
weakness or dizziness.
A 67-year- old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:
gastrointestinal bleeding.
Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year- old female complains of left upper quadrant abdominal pain with referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the:
Spleen.
A 39-year- old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should:
follow appropriate standard precautions.
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
applying local direct pressure.
If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply:
tourniquet proximal to the injury.
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
air splint
Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:
is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped.
The _____ only require(s) a minimal blood supply when at rest.
muscles
You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write _____ and _____ on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patient's forehead.
the letters "TK"; the exact time applied
Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _____ has been managed.
Controlling major external bleeding is always the priority.
Answers
The filtering of blood cells in the spleen is the body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body.
What part of the blood does the spleen filter out?Red blood cells , Red blood cells that are diseased, outdated, or misshaped are also removed from circulation by the spleen. The body's red blood cells transport oxygen and eliminate carbon dioxide (a waste product). The spleen filters these disc-shaped cells according to their physical properties.Spleen serves as filter. It helps regulate the quantity of blood and blood cells that circulate in the body by removing outdated and damaged cells. The spleen aids in the elimination of bacteria. It comprises lymphocytes and macrophages, two types of white blood cells.To learn more about blood cells refer to:
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pomies
(03.02 MC)
You are helping your family make better grocery shopping choices. Which
A. new grocery store your family hasn't heard of before
B. A popular local market that is well established
C. small market that needs more customers to stay open
D. A food truck that sells expensive pastries and sandwiches
Answers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Better to shop where you know and be sure you'll get the best quality no matter how the market looks like
If it's known that a service may not be covered, a
may be performed.
A. preauthorization
B. prepermission
C. preapproval
D. preconsent
Answers
Answer:
A. pre-authorization
Explanation:
Is it an authorization or a precertification?
Per Healthcare.gov, a decision by your health insurer or plan that a health care service, treatment plan, prescription drug or durable medical equipment is medically necessary. Sometimes called prior authorization, prior approval or precertification. Your health insurance or plan may require preauthorization for certain services before you receive them, except in an emergency. Preauthorization isn’t a promise your health insurance or plan will cover the cost. This concept is not the easiest to understand. It would make sense that a notification and “approval” from an insurance company would then mean services will be paid. This is not the case and is precisely where the predetermination of benefits come into play, in addition to understanding reimbursement policies set up by payers themselves.
a pharmacy technician is compounding an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment. it should be 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine. when the 40g order is complete how much of the solution will be the inactive solvent?
a. 2 g
b. 5 g
c. 38 g
d. 39.2 g
Answers
Answer:
When a pharmacy technician is preparing an order for 40 g of hydrocortisone ointment containing 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, the amount of ointment that corresponds to the inactive solvent is 38 g.
Explanation:
If a pharmaceutical preparation of hydrocortisone ointment contains 2% hydrocortisone and 3% calamine, it will contain only 2 g of these active compounds in 40 g of preparation. This means that the amount of inert or inactive solvent is 38 g.
1. Hydrocortisone 2% + calamine 3% = 5%.
40 g ------------------ 100%
X ------------------ 5%
Active components = (40 X 5) / 100 = 2g
2. Inactive solvent = Total amount - active components
Inactive solvent = 40 g - 2 g = 38 g
2% hydrocortisone ointment composition
Hydrocortisone ........ 0,8 g
Calamine ................. 1,2 g
Inert excipient ..... 38 g
Total ......................... 40 g
You are missing a layer of the epidermis on your palms and soles of your feet. However, you do have a clear layer called the _________________.
Answers
A person is having trouble breathing and is rushed to the hospital. Which body cavity will the doctors most likely check first to find the problem?
Answers
Explanation:
1.Chest X-ray. It can show the
doctor signs of conditions such
as pneumonia or other heart
and lung problems. ...
2.Oxygen test. Also called pulse
oximetry, this helps your
doctor measure how much
oxygen is in your blood. ...
3.Electrocardiography (EKG).
I hope it will help....
Answer:
the thoracic cavity
Explanation:
Word parts that are followed with a dash (-) like gastro- in gastrointestinal are
Answers
Answer:
called combining forms or combining words. They are word parts that are used to create compound words, often in the field of medicine and biology. These word parts are typically derived from Greek or Latin roots and are used to describe various body parts, diseases, conditions, and procedures.
The word "gastro-" is a combining form that refers to the stomach. For example, "gastrointestinal" means "relating to the stomach and intestines." Other examples of combining forms that are used in medical terms include "cardio-" (relating to the heart), "neuro-" (relating to the nerves), "hepat-" (relating to the liver), and "renal" (relating to the kidneys).
Combining forms are also used in other fields, such as chemistry, geology and other sciences to create compound words, and they are an important tool in building new terms in the field of medicine and biology, and many other fields.
Help me please !!!!!
Answers
Answer:
( 1)250 mg every 6 hours, or 500 mg every 12 hours.
list 2 legislative failures of the department of environment,food and rural affairs
Answers
\(\huge \text{Answer:}\)
The Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs (Defra) is the government department responsible for environmental protection, food production and standards, agriculture, fisheries and rural communities in the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. Concordats set out agreed frameworks for co operation, between it and the Scottish Government,Welsh Government and Northern Ireland Executive, which have devolved responsibilities for these matters in their respective nations.
Perceptions that do not correspond to anything in the real world are called
Answers
Answer:
illusions sorry for the late answer
Perceptions that do not correspond to the perceptions of other members of the community are called delusion.
what is delusion ?Delusion can be shortly referred strongly held belief despite evidence that the belief is false.
Delusion usually occurs due to neurological problem or a mental illness whereas delusion is not associated with any specific disease in particular and has been found to manifest as a feature of various different physical and mental illnesses.
Delusion show typical clinical feature in psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and paraphrenia.
delusion is A false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly sustained despite what almost everyone else believes.
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B r a i n l y e s t ?
Answers
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Answer:pogchamp am i right
Explanation:
6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answers
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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When I am presenting something in class, I can't help to shake really badly and feel light-headed for no reason. Like I could feel so confident and prepared but still have really bad anxiety. How do I control my nerves when presenting??
Answers
this is something that will never completely go away. however, there are things you can do to help keep nerves under control.
try and focus on your material, instead of the audience. the audience is there to hear about your material, and their job is not to critique you. make sure you can't see the audience.
speak slowly. if you feel yourself starting to speak quickly, try to slow down and think clearly about word pronunciation.
another thing to try is to practice going over your material. this will make it easier to seem natural when presenting.
Answer:
There are several things you can do to control your nerves when presenting:
Practice: Practicing your presentation in front of a mirror or friends can help you become more comfortable and confident with the material.
Deep breathing: Take deep breaths before you begin to calm your nerves and slow your heart rate.
Visualization: Visualize yourself giving a successful presentation, and imagine yourself feeling confident and in control.
Positive self-talk: Remind yourself of your strengths and that you are well prepared.
Relaxation techniques: Try progressive muscle relaxation or other relaxation techniques to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety.
Stay hydrated and well-fed: Dehydration and low blood sugar levels can make you feel light-headed and anxious.
Focus on your audience: Remember that your audience wants you to succeed and is there to hear what you have to say.
Get enough sleep: Adequate sleep can help reduce anxiety levels.
Explanation:
Remember, everyone gets nervous at some point, but it's important to focus on your strengths and the message you want to convey, rather than your anxiety.
ALLEN