The registered nurse (RN) is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis and assesses the admission laboratory results. What laboratory value should the RN anticipate being elevated with this diagnosis?
A. Triglycerides.
B. Amylase.
C. Creatinine.
D. Uric acid.

Answers

Answer 1

With acute pancreatitis, diagnosis via blood tests should come back with elevated levels of pancreatic enzymes such as amylase option B, indicating their release into the blood (Marcin, 2023; Johns Hopkins, n.d.)

Answer 2

Option B) Amylase is the correct option.

When caring for a client with acute pancreatitis, the RN should anticipate an elevation in the laboratory value of amylase as a characteristic finding.

Acute pancreatitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the pancreas. When assessing the admission laboratory results of a client with acute pancreatitis, the registered nurse (RN) should anticipate an elevation in the laboratory value of amylase.

Amylase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas, and its levels increase when there is pancreatic inflammation or injury. In acute pancreatitis, the pancreatic cells are damaged, causing leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Therefore, elevated amylase levels in the blood are a characteristic finding in acute pancreatitis.

Triglycerides, creatinine, and uric acid are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Triglycerides are blood lipids and may be elevated in conditions such as hypertriglyceridemia but are not specific to pancreatitis. Creatinine is a marker of kidney function and is not directly affected by pancreatic inflammation. Uric acid is a waste product of purine metabolism and is not directly related to pancreatitis.

In summary, when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis, the RN should anticipate an elevation in the laboratory value of amylase as a characteristic finding.

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Related Questions

A 25 years old male presented to ER complaining of abdominal pain and diarrhea after ingesting one tablet of amoxicillin 500mg orally? What type of reaction the paramedic should assume? Select one: a. Type III immune complex reactions. b. Type II antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions. c. TypeIV delayed-type hypersensitivity - cell-medlated immunity d. Type l antibody-immediate reactions.

Answers

The paramedic should assume a type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity - cell-mediated immunity reaction.

Type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by a delayed immune response mediated by T cells. These reactions typically occur hours to days after exposure to the antigen and are commonly associated with symptoms such as inflammation, tissue damage, and skin reactions. In the given scenario, the abdominal pain and diarrhea experienced by the patient after ingesting amoxicillin suggest a delayed hypersensitivity reaction rather than an immediate allergic reaction. Therefore, the paramedic should consider a type IV hypersensitivity reaction as the most likely type of immune response in this case.

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What type of things should I be doing to prepare to go to college and eventually med school if I'm still in high school (freshman)? What are your tips?

Answers

Question: What types of things should I be doing to prepare to go to college and eventually medical school if I'm still in high school?

Answer: Study and take notes. Without a doubt, it's important you have things to reference back to if you're ever struggling. Make sure to read about the best colleges to go to, and ones that are in your limit. If you'd like to be closer to home, see if you can find a school nearby, but if you'd like to move away and go further out into the world, find a state school. Research is key, my friend. Another thing that's really beneficial to do is start taking online classes for whatever major/minor you're going for. Find some free ones, or for paying ones, see if you can get a little money from your parents; I'm sure they'd be happy to contribute! The last thing that I'll say, getting a job can really ease the amount of money you have to pay when you receive your college debt. As you are a freshman in high school, you are more than old enough to apply to some sort of job. Retail or the fast food industry is probably the places to strive for! There are a lot more things I can tell you, but I'm on a time schedule for each question, so I advise you to do more research on what else you can do.

Uplifting Note: Start your day with a smile! Let me help; you look amazing today, love the shirt! Now you have. :]

2. Which of the following features make
online pharmacies an appealing option to
patients?
O A. Avoiding sales tax
B. Being able to develop a personal
relationship with the pharmacist
O C. Privacy and convenience
D. Wider selection of brand-name
medications to choose from

Answers

The online pharmacy store offers   Privacy and convenience. Option C

What is an online pharmacy store?

We know that an online pharmacy store is the kind of pharmacy store where there is no physical contact between the pharmacist and the person that wants to purchase the drugs. In other words, the person that is buying the drugs only needs to meet with the store electronically.

This would offer a good convenience and privacy to the kind of patients that does not want to be seen or known due to the peculiarity of the kind of drugs that they are buying.

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Compare the duration of actions of warfarin (Coumadin) and Enoxaparin(Lovenox) and explain the reason the provider switched to Enoxaparin at this time

Answers

Answer:

The duration of the effect of Warfarin is prolonged for 2 to 5 days, while the effect of enoxaparin can be maintained for a maximum of 24 hours. The provider probably switched to Enoxaparin to better control the anticoagulant effect.

Explanation:

Warfarin (Coumadin) is an orally administered anticoagulant that indirectly interferes with the action of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IV and X. The effect as an anticoagulant can begin after 8 hours of administration, reaching a maximum effect in 72 hours, and an effect that can last up to five days.

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is an anticoagulant administered subcutaneously, whose effect is to inhibit the activity of coagulation factor Xa. Its effect is rapid after administration, and its half-life is relatively short —about 4 to 6 hours— so that the effect can remain for no more than 24 hours.

When a provider switchs the indication of warfarin to enoxaparin, it is to achieve better control of anticoagulation, use it for a limited time or without affecting other mechanisms of blood coagulation.

What is the most important action a nurse can take to help further the profession of nursing?.

Answers

Joining a specialized group just like the ANA. Nurses must be cognizant of several elements, like good communication and patient empathy, and adopt a person-centered approach altogether that they do in order to provide the greatest quality of care. Effective treatment and improved health outcomes are produced by the interaction of those factors.

What about nurses?According to the Merriam-Webster dictionary, nurses are trained in promoting and maintaining health and should work autonomously or under the supervision of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist.From the time of birth to the top of life, nurses are present in every community, big and little .Nurses do a spread of duties, from providing direct patient care and managing cases to setting nursing practice standards, creating internal control procedures, and managing intricate medical care systems.The majority of long-term care in the country is provided by nurses, who also structure the largest single group of the hospital personnel.The four-year Bachelor of Science in nursing (BSN) degree is the main route to professional nursing, as opposed to practicing at the technical level.Nursing includes providing independent and team-based care to people of all ages, families, groups, and communities, whether or not they are ill or not and regardless of the location.Health promotion, disease prevention, and therefore the care of the ill, disabled, and dying are all included in nursing.A RN  is a qualified healthcare provider who offers direct patient care in a variety of hospital and community settings.

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Choose the correct location and hand placement to perform abdominal thrusts on a choking child

Answers

Answer:Stand or kneel behind the child and wrap your arms around his or her waist.

Explanation:

kneel behind the child and place your fist on their chest with your other hand grabbing your fist

Which of the following is true of a living will? They allow patients to make decisions for themselves. The patient must agree to have invasive care. Health care facilities can choose to ignore them. They often ban the use of respirators.​

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Through a living will, a patient can make decisions for themselves.

They allow patients to make decisions for themselves is true about  living will. Hence option 1 is correct.

What are patients?

Patients are defined as a person who is receiving or has recently received medical attention. The word "patient" is not usually used to describe a person receiving medical attention due to issues with political correctness, human rights, and dignity.

A medical power of attorney is a legal instrument that enables a person to appoint a specific person known as an agent, surrogate, or proxy—to make health care decisions on their behalf in the event that they are unable to do so themselves. A decision you can make in advance to reject a particular kind of treatment at a later time is known as an advance decision.

Thus, they allow patients to make decisions for themselves is true about  living will. Hence option 1 is correct.

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What are the recommendations for when combining balance and moderation?
Make choices from all 5-food groups and choose the more nutrient dese option, and understand the recommending portions (some vegetables are the exception)
5 food groups: Grains, fruit, vegetables, dairy, and meats

Answers

When combining balance and moderation in your diet, the recommendations are:

1. Make choices from all 5 food groups: Incorporate a variety of foods from each food group in your diet. This will ensure that you are getting all the essential nutrients that your body needs to function properly.

2. Choose the more nutrient-dense options: Option for foods that are more nutrient-dense and contain a higher amount of vitamins, minerals, and other essential nutrients per serving. Examples include whole grains, fresh fruits and vegetables, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy products.

3. Understand the recommended portions: Be mindful of portion sizes when choosing foods from each food group. Use tools like measuring cups, food scales, or visual aids to help you understand appropriate serving sizes.

4. Make vegetables a priority: While all food groups are important, vegetables should be a priority in your diet as they provide essential vitamins and minerals, as well as fiber. Aim for a variety of colorful vegetables and include them in every meal.

5. Moderation is key: While it is important to incorporate all food groups into your diet, it is also important to practice moderation. This means being mindful of portion sizes and avoiding excessive consumption of foods high in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium.

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What is class ii occlusion ____ . group of answer choices A. is normal occlusion B. is mesioclusion C. occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the mandibular second premolar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular first molar
D. occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first permanent molar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular second permanent molar

Answers

The class II occlusion occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first permanent molar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular second permanent molar, the correct option is D.

Class II occlusion can lead to various dental problems, including difficulty in chewing, speech problems, and esthetic concerns. Treatment options for class II occlusion may include orthodontic treatment, tooth extractions, or corrective jaw surgery.

Early detection and treatment of class II occlusion can help prevent further complications and improve the patient's oral health and overall well-being. This type of occlusion is also known as dust occlusion or retrognathic occlusion, and it is commonly seen in patients with a retruded lower jaw or a protrusive upper jaw, the correct option is D.

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The complete question is:

What is class ii occlusion ____? group of answer choices

A. is normal occlusion

B. is mesioclusion

C. occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the mandibular second premolar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular first molar

D. occurs when the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the interdental space between the distal cusp of the mandibular first permanent molar and the mesial cusp of the mandibular second permanent molar

"Let it be a challenge!" This exhortation is intended to encourage one's friend's belief that they can handle a potential stressor—that is, it is aimed at influencing _____ appraisal.

Answers

"Let it be a challenge!" This exhortation is intended to encourage one's friend's belief that they can handle a potential stressor—that is, it is aimed at influencing personal appraisal.

What are beliefs?

A belief is described as an attitude that something is the case, or that some proposition is true.

Belief is a conviction that we generally accept to be true, especially without actual evidence or proof.

Personal appraisal refers to the self-judgment or self-analysis that a person does to evaluate or analyze their accomplishment or achievement. It can also relate to how a person places a worth or value on themselves.

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The doctor ordered Claforan 1400mg IM every 12 hours. The directions for the 2 gm vial state: Add 5 mL of diluent to yield an approximate concentration of 360mg/mL. How many mL will you give?

Answers

You will have to give 1200ml

the ordinary skill and care that medical practitioners must use is called

Answers

Answer:

Standard of care

Explanation:

Standard of care. is the ordinary skill and care that medical practitioners use and that is commonly used by other medical practitioners in the same locality when caring for patients; what another medical professional would consider appropriate care in similar circumstances.

Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.

Answers

Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10  times greater than the RDA.

What are vitamins?

Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.

Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.

Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.

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Jason studies Spanish for three years, and then switches to Pashto. When asked to remember Spanish vocabulary he can’t, instead he can only remember Pashto vocabulary. This is an example of ________ interference.



active



inactive



proactive



retroactive

Answers

Answer:

Inactive

Explanation:

he was not active in spanish

a nurse is preparing to administer ceftazidime 1 g by intermittent IV bolus every 12 hr. Available is ceftazidime injection 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride

Answers

The nurse should administer the ceftazidime 1 g by intermittent IV bolus every 12 hours as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

What should the nurse do before administering the medication?

Before administering the medication, the nurse should ensure that the patient does not have any allergies to ceftazidime or any other cephalosporin antibiotics.

The nurse should also verify the dosage and frequency of administration with the prescribing healthcare provider and assess the patient's renal function as ceftazidime is primarily eliminated by the kidneys.

To administer the medication by intermittent IV bolus, the nurse should follow these steps:

Wash hands thoroughly and put on gloves.Check the medication label for accuracy, including the expiration date and concentration of the solution.Use an alcohol swab to clean the rubber stopper on the medication vial.Withdraw 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride solution into a syringe.Inject the 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride solution into the medication vial.Gently swirl the vial to mix the medication with the solution.Withdraw 1 g of the reconstituted medication into the syringe.Choose a suitable injection site, such as the patient's upper arm or thigh.Clean the injection site with an alcohol swab.Administer the medication slowly over 3-5 minutes, observing the patient for any adverse reactions.Dispose of the syringe and needle in a sharps container.Document the medication administration in the patient's medical record.

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Which disease or disorder occurs when the pancreas stops producing insulin?

gestational diabetes
type 1 diabetes
hypothyroidism
hyperthyroidism

Answers

Answer:

type 1 diabetes.......

I think it is type 1 diabetes. I hope this helps :)

You are in the process of verifying and filling a prescription of Alprazolam for a patient, the patient has come into the store five times within the last six months. Knowing this is a schedule IV controlled drug, Federal law may restrict the amount of times it can be refilled after the original date of issue.
After the original date of issue, the prescription can only be refilled how many times?
A. Five times within six months from the date written.
B. Six times within 6 months from the date written.
C. Because Alprazolam is a highly diverted drug, it should not be refilled more than twice.
D. None of the above.

Answers

Federal law may restrict the amount of times it can be refilled after the original date of issue Five times within six month from the date written. The correct option to this question is C.

How often alprazolam prescription refilled? The total permissible quantity, including the initial prescription amount, does not exceed five refills and does not exceed six months from the date of issuing of the original prescription.Alprazolam is a Schedule II restricted drug. Prescriptions can only be refilled a certain number of times; consult your pharmacist if you have any questions.Depending on the individual, a single dose of Xanax can last anywhere from 31 hours to 134.5 hours (5.6 days) in the bloodstream. The calming, relaxing, and sedative effects of Xanax, on the other hand, normally wear off within eight to twelve hours.

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FILL THE BLANK.
Asynchronous form of telemedicine uses _____ technology. store and forward.

Answers

Asynchronous form of telemedicine uses store and forward technology.

Telemedicine is the provision of healthcare services using telecommunication and information technologies. It is also called telehealth or e-health. Telemedicine can improve the delivery of healthcare by eliminating geographic barriers to care, improving access to care, and reducing healthcare costs. Telemedicine technologies can be categorized into two main categories: synchronous and asynchronous.

Synchronous telemedicine technologies enable real-time interaction between healthcare providers and patients. Video conferencing, audio conferencing, and instant messaging are examples of synchronous telemedicine. Healthcare providers can use synchronous telemedicine technologies to consult with patients, diagnose illnesses, prescribe treatments, and monitor patients.

Asynchronous telemedicine technologies enable healthcare providers to send health-related information to other healthcare providers or patients. This information is stored and forwarded to the recipient. Store-and-forward technology is an example of asynchronous telemedicine. With store-and-forward technology, healthcare providers can send medical images, videos, or medical records to other healthcare providers for consultation, diagnosis, or treatment recommendations.

Asynchronous telemedicine is a popular method for providing specialty healthcare services, such as radiology, pathology, dermatology, and ophthalmology. This is because specialists can review health-related information in their own time and at their own pace. Also, asynchronous telemedicine is beneficial for patients who have mobility problems, live in rural or remote areas, or have difficulty accessing healthcare services.

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What diagnostic test is considered most accurate in terms of diagnosing hiv

Answers

Answer:

These tests can detect antibodies starting a few weeks after you're infected with the virus. Antibody tests can be done using:

Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 6 in Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting and use what you have learned to answer the following questions.

What errors did Susan make in preparing the injection?

What tests must be performed as a result of this needlestick?

Is Linda responsible for anything in this situation?

How would this pertain to OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standards?


Answers

Susan's errors were using non-safety needles and disposing into sharp containers, tests are HIV, Hepatitis B, and C, Linda should have used the safety needles and OSHA's standards indicate annual trainings.

What does safety needles mean?

The expression 'safety needles' makes reference to the use of suitable needles for injections in clinical settings, which must full fill appropriate hygiene conditions.

Moreover, the sharps container must be exclusively used for these types of devices since the combination may lead to cross-contamination and avoidable infections.

Under OSHA's bloodborne pathogen standards employees must be trained regarding potentially infectious objects/materials.

In conclusion, the errors are associated with using non-safety needles and disposing of them in sharp containers, the tests include HIV, Hepatitis B, and C, Linda's error might be the preparation of non-safe injections and bloodborne pathogens are addressed in OSHA standards.

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A patient has alzheimer's, what does the medical assistant do?o Encourage proper nutrition despite poor appetite. o Assess the patient's level of functioning for safety. o Encourage the use of memory games to support cognitive function. o Assess the patient's gait for safety.

Answers

Answer:

MEDICAL ASSISTANCE ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR: helping them obtain relief through respite care services.

Explanation:

B: Assess the patient's level of functioning for safety

quizlet what laboratory findings would you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with nephritic syndrome

Answers

The laboratory findings that you would expect to see in a patient diagnosed with nephritic syndrome include Hematuria: This refers to the presence of blood in the urine. It can be gross hematuria, where the urine appears visibly red or brown, or microscopic hematuria, where blood is only detectable under a microscope.

Proteinuria: This is the presence of excess protein in the urine. In nephritic syndrome, the proteinuria is usually mild to moderate compared to nephrotic syndrome, where it is typically severe. Red blood cell casts: These are cylindrical structures composed of red blood cells that are formed in the renal tubules. They are seen in the urine sediment of patients with nephritic syndrome and indicate damage to the glomeruli.

Elevated serum creatinine: Nephritic syndrome can impair kidney function, leading to an increase in serum creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys, so an elevation in its levels suggests decreased kidney function. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR): The GFR is a measure of how well the kidneys are filtering waste products from the blood. In nephritic syndrome, the GFR may be reduced due to glomerular damage, leading to decreased kidney function.

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please, l need search about histology of nervous system pdf??

Answers

Answer:

he nervous system consists of two major components: ... The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), composed of all the nervous tissue outside the CNS. The PNS is represented by cranial nerves from the brain, spinal nerves from the spinal cord, and nodules known as ganglia, that contain the neuronal cell bodies.

Explanation:

29. How are bloodborne disease being transmitted *

Answers

Answer:

Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.

Explanation:

Answer:

Bloodborne pathogens such as HBV and HIV can be transmitted through contact with infected human blood and other potentially infectious body fluids such as: semen. vaginal secretions. cerebrospinal fluid.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:O determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.O identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.O look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.O find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

Answers

Identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.

What should a patient’s initial assessment include?

Forming a general impression, assessing mental status, assessing airway, assessing breathing, testing circulation, and identifying the patient’s priority for treatment and transfer to the hospital are the six components of primary evaluation. The pulse check is conducted quickly during the main evaluation.

Assessment is an essential component of the teaching-learning process, encouraging student learning and improving instruction in a number of ways. There are three sorts of classroom assessments: assessment for learning, assessment of learning, and assessment as learning. WHEN PERFORMING A PHYSICAL EVALUATION, YOU WILL USE FOUR TECHNIQUES: INSPECTION, PAPPING, PERCUSSION, AND AUSCULTATION. Unless you’re doing an abdominal exam, use them in that order.

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Sam is prescribed a new drug, called Drug X that releases
higher than normal levels of renin into the blood stream.
Explain in detail how Drug X would work to increase Sam's
blood pressure.

Answers

When Sam is prescribed a new drug, called Drug X that releases higher than normal levels of renin into the bloodstream, it will work to increase Sam's blood pressure.

Here is how the Drug X works to increase Sam's blood pressure:

Drug X is a type of drug that triggers the release of renin into the bloodstream. The higher-than-normal levels of renin will increase the production of angiotensin II in the body. Angiotensin II is a hormone that causes the blood vessels to constrict or narrow. The narrowing of the blood vessels causes resistance to blood flow.

As the resistance to blood flow increases, it results in an increase in blood pressure.The increase in blood pressure will lead to an increase in the heart rate, which will in turn pump more blood to the body. Blood pressure is the force of the blood against the walls of the arteries. When the blood pressure is high, it puts a strain on the heart and the blood vessels. This can lead to various health problems such as heart attack, stroke, or kidney disease.

Therefore, it is important to monitor blood pressure regularly, especially if a person is prescribed a new drug such as Drug X.

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True or False: With the aid of IAFIS, it is possible to obtain a "match" within several hours.

Answers

True. With the aid of IAFIS, it is possible to obtain a "match" within several hours.

IAFIS (Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System) is a biometric identification system used by law enforcement agencies to match the fingerprints of individuals against a large database of fingerprints. With the aid of IAFIS, it is possible to obtain a "match" within several hours, depending on the size of the database and the quality of the fingerprint. The system is designed to quickly and accurately match fingerprints, making it a valuable tool for law enforcement in solving crimes and identifying suspects. The system can compare fingerprints against millions of records in a matter of hours.

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Elle takes anti-inflammatory drugs and analgesics to ease the pain and discomfort of rheumatoid arthritis. She knows these drugs will not cure the disease, yet her doctor prescribed them. Explain why.

Answers

Answer:

so she would feel a lot of pain

Explanation:

if she didn’t take those, she would have pain in her joints and it might be even hard for her to walk and get around since she has rheumatoid artgritis

3. A Medical Assistant's friend, who is a patient where she works, asks her to bring home some
antibiotics for her because she cannot afford to pay for them at the pharmacy. Is this a personal or
professional ethical conflict? Provide possible ways the Medical Assistant could reconcile this
conflict. What impact would this have?

Answers

Answer:This is a personal ethical conflict because not only would  The medical assistant may lose her his/her job but they can also be charged with a crime  the Medical Assistant could reconcile this by telling his/her friend that they would love to help but that is  against the law but he/she can go to the pharmacy and help the friend sign up

Explanation:

THIS CAME STRAIGHT FROM MY HEAD AND MY TEACHER SO I HOPE THIS HELPS

Which of the following codes report acute contact urticaria? a. L50.9 b. L50.8 c. L50.6 d. L50.4.

Answers

The code that reports acute contact urticaria is L50.9. The codes L50.8, L50.6, and L50.4 do not specifically represent acute contact urticaria.

Acute contact urticaria is a type of allergic reaction that occurs when the skin comes into direct contact with a substance to which an individual is allergic. The condition manifests as raised, itchy, and red hives or welts on the skin.

The ICD-10 code system classifies skin diseases and disorders, including urticaria, under category L50. The code L50.9 is used to report unspecified urticaria, which includes acute contact urticaria. However, it is always best to consult with a healthcare professional or medical coding specialist for accurate coding and documentation purposes.

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A classmate stated, "A concave polygon be can be regular because it can have all sides congruent." Is this student's claim valid?Why or why not? ATOMS WE LOVE ATOMS, answer this and get points , also thx for your help :) If business risk decreases for Megabucks, Inc., the P/E will __________, other things the same. a. increase b. stay the same c. decrease d. increase or decrease but not stay the same " should parents decide which career their children will pursue?" ...help me with this For the motion debate plz >- In a story about a doctor trying to treat a patient with mysterious symptoms,which scene would most likely be the climax?A. The doctor sends the patient home, wishing him well.B. The doctor introduces herself as Dr. Sonia Hernandez.C. The doctor realizes what the illness is and treats it.D. The doctor gets frustrated trying to diagnose the disease. a rectangle has a width that is 1/2 its length the perimeter of this rectangle is 42 inches what is the width of the rectangle...what is the width of the rectangle civil war within liberia in the first decade of the twentieth century also led to many deaths in: Can anyone help me with this question? Best answer will get brainliest! Which international health organization aims to improve people's lives by educating them on topics that they normally wouldn't know about? The area under the stress-strain curve is equal to... A. The total force applied B. The overall deformation achieved C. The work done in deforming the material D. The work done per unit volume in deforming the material Three identical units of Item K113 are purchased during July, as shown below. Item K113 Units Cost July 9 Purchase 1 164 17 Purchase 1 168 26 Purchase 1 188 Assume that one unit is sold on July 31 for $251. Determine the ending inventory on July 31 using the first-in, first-out (FIFO) method. Add your answer WHY IS FAST FOOD SO POPULAR? And how does this relate back to Human Geography? Please ANSWER BOTH PARTS! Tina has suffered several broken bones and stress fractures because herbones have become brittle. These are signs and symptoms of which of thefollowing?OA. OsteoporosisOB. ObesityOC. BulimiaOD. Anorexia nervosa The scale on a map reads 1/2 inch = 30 miles. If two cities on the map are 5 % inches apart, find the actual distance between the cities. true/false: transformations are mathematical operations that map 3d space to 2d space and so mathematics has standard ways to represent them. Expert Review is done by end users. In 2020, james incurred total qualified medical expenses of $6,650. His 2020 agi was $40,000. In 2021, he received a partial reimbursement of these expenses in the amount of $4,200 from his insurance company. He claimed the standard deduction in 2020. How much of this reimbursed amount must james report as gross income on his 2021 tax return? Under the neutral theory, we should observe a positive correlation between the amount of polymorphism in a species and the amount of divergence between species because: The timescales of divergence and polymorphism are very different The population size of a species predicts the rate of evolution The neutral mutation rate influences both polymorphism and divergence If a species has high polymorphism then a related species should also show high polymorphism which of the following is considered a biotic factor in the environement?1.sand2.bacteria3.wind4.water solving 2x^2+x-4=0 using the quadratic formula