Translate: half a number decreased by 12

A congruent polygon refers to two or more polygons that have the same shape and size. There must be an equal number of sides between two polygons for them to be congruent.

Congruent polygons have parallel sides of equal length and parallel angles of similar magnitude. When two polygons are congruent, they can be superimposed on one another using translations, rotations, and reflections without affecting their appearance or dimensions. Concluding about the matching sides, shapes, angles, and other geometric properties of congruent polygons allows us to draw conclusions about them.

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Answer:

5,14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

43.1

Step-by-step explanation:

2.5 % = .025    look for this value on the z-score table to find this corresponds to z = - 1.96   Standard Deviations

72.5      - 1.96 * 15    = 43.1  

Answer:

Hey there the correct answer to your question will be below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Work: 300/68 x 60 will give you 264.7 which will round to 265*

1/68 x 3,600 will be 52.94 and if you round that you will get 53*

So the answer will be

ABOUT: 265 words per minute

ABOUT: 53 in one hour

EXACT: 264.7 words per minute

EXACT: 52.94 in one hour

Hope this helps!

By: xBrainly

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a rectangular prism = l x w x h

I am reading the width as 12 1/2 ft

Treat the depth of the ball pit as height

Vol = l x w x h

875 = (20)(12 1/2)(h)

875 = 250(h)

875/250 = 250h/250

3 1/2 = height

depth of the ball pit is 3 1/2 ft

The ball pit is 3.5 feet deep. This can be answered by the concept Surface area.

To find the depth of the ball pit, we can use the equation: Volume = length x width x depth.

The volume of the ball pit is given as 875 cubic feet, the length is 20 feet and the width is 12.5 feet. Let d be the depth of the ball pit. Therefore, the equation we can use is:

875 = 20 x 12.5 x d

To solve for d, we can divide both sides of the equation by (20 x 12.5):

d = 875 / (20 x 12.5)

d = 3.5 feet

Therefore, the ball pit is 3.5 feet deep

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Answer:

pls report for spam

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of 8% liquid polymer to make 55 gallons of a 0.5% polymer solution is around 3.4 gallons.

The relationship between concentration and volume will be used to find the volume of liquid polymer. The formula to be used is -

\( C_{i}\) \( V_{i}\) = \( C_{o}\) \( V_{o}\), where \( C_{i}\) and \( C_{o}\) are initial and final concentration and \( V_{i}\) and \( V_{o}\) are initial and final volume.

Keep the values in formula -

\( C_{i}\) × 8% = 55 × 0.5%

Rearranging the equation

\( C_{i}\) = 55 × 0.5%/0.8%

Performing multiplication and division on Right Hand Side of the equation

\( C_{i}\) = 3.4375 gallons

Hence, the volume of liquid polymer is around 3.4 gallons.

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The volume is 1088.64 cm^2 of a rectangular prism with 7.2cm,8.4cm,18cm.

What is volume?

In mathematics, volume is the space taken by an object. Volume is a measure of three-dimensional space. It is often quantified numerically using SI derived units or by various imperial or US customary units. The definition of length is interrelated with volume.

here, we have,

a rectangular prism with 7.2cm,8.4cm,18cm

we know,

the volume is

V= l.b.w

here,

l= 7.2 cm

b= 8.4 cm

w= 18cm

i.e. V= 1088.64 cm^2

Hence, The volume is 1088.64 cm^2 of a rectangular prism with 7.2cm,8.4cm,18cm.

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Problem 1 (3 pts). The nearest neighbor method is used with the following labeled training data in a two class, two feature problem. Show clearly the decision boundaries obtained. Indicate all break points and slopes correctly Class1={(0,0)^T,(0,1)^T}. Class2={(1,0)^T,(0,0.5)^T}.

The decision boundary is the line that separates the two classes. When it comes to the nearest neighbour method, the boundary of a class is determined by the closest data point in the other class.What is the nearest neighbour method?The nearest neighbour method (NNM) is a type of lazy learning method in which the data is stored and the computation is deferred until the classification phase.

The goal of the nearest neighbor technique is to use the pattern of the closest data point to classify a new sample. It's also one of the simplest non-parametric classification methods, and it's based on the assumption that the feature spaces used by each class are continuous regions.For Class 1, there are two labeled training data points: (0, 0)T and (0, 1)T. Similarly, for Class 2, there are two labeled training data points: (1, 0)T and (0, 0.5)T.

To generate decision boundaries, follow the steps below:Step 1: Plot the given labeled training data. They are shown in the figure below. Step 2: Label the data points according to their class: Class 1 and Class 2.Step 3: Now, we need to find the nearest neighbors. Find the nearest neighbor for each of the labeled training data points from the opposite class. The distances are calculated as follows:For the Class 1 data points, the nearest neighbor is Class 2's (1, 0)T data point.

For the Class 2 data points, the nearest neighbour is Class 1's (0, 1)T data point.Step 4: Connect the nearest neighbour's labeled training data points with a line. These are the decision boundaries. The red line represents the decision boundary between Class 1 and Class 2. The green line represents the decision boundary between Class 2 and Class 1. The slopes of the decision boundaries are -1 for the red line and 1 for the green line. These slopes are the result of the negative reciprocal of the nearest neighbour's slope. The break point for the red line is 0.5, while the break point for the green line is 0. A break point is the point at which the decision boundary intersects the y-axis.

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Answer:

Eight times ten plus six times one plus two times one-tenth plus seven times one-thousandth.

Step-by-step explanation:

(8 x 10) = eight times ten

(6 x 1) = six times one

(2 x 0.1) = two times one-tenth

(7 x 0.001) = seven times one-thousandth

I am not always the best with the equations to words stuff, so please comment if I am wrong!

Step-by-step explanation:

The line representing the equation 7x1 + 4x2 = 28 goes through the points (4,0) and (0,7).

Answer:

the last option hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

+ 45 - 45 < 16 - 45 is answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hence the greatest number of books that could be on the shelf is 30.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:-

Here the given number of books is m,  

m < 45.  

If they are arranged into piles of five books, each no books would remain.  

m is divisible by 5.  

The last digit of m would be 5 or 0.    

The same number of books, when arranged with piles of 7 books each, two books remain.  

m-2 is divisible by 7.  

Step 2:-  

The last digit of m is 5 or 0.  

m-2 will have the last digit 3 or 8.    

Multiples of 7 are 7,14,21,28,35, 42;  

among which only number 28 has the last digit 8 or 3.    

m - 2 = 28  

m = 30  

The greatest number of books that could be on the shelf is 30.

Answer:

2x+2y=60

Step-by-step explanation:

The 5th value of the 60% percentile is 47 when for each test score in the data set is 12, 28, 35, 47, 49, 50.

Given that,

For each test score in the data set, the percentile rank is determined. 12, 28, 35, 42, 47, 49,  

We have to find what number represents the 60% of the population.

We know that,

So,

Percentile rank =[(Number of values below x)+0.5]/ total number of values × 100

For 12,

Percentile rank = [0 +0.5]/7×100

= 7th

For 28,

Percentile rank = [1 +0.5]/7×100

= 21st

For 35,

Percentile rank = [2 +0.5]/7×100

= 36th

For 42,

Percentile rank = [3 +0.5]/7×100

= 50th

For 47,

Percentile rank = [4 +0.5]/7×100

= 64th

For 49,

Percentile rank = [5 +0.5]/7×100

= 79th

For 50,

Percentile rank = [6 +0.5]/7×100

= 93rd

Now,

n = 7

60th percentile = 60% of n

So,

60% of n = 60/100×7

= 0.6×7

= 4.2

Therefore, The 5th value of the 60% percentile is 47 when for each test score in the data set is 12, 28, 35, 47, 49, 50.

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Answer:

x = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

A segment joining the midpoints of 2 sides of a triangle is

Parallel to the third side

then the 2 angles are same- side interior angles and sum to 180° , that is

16x - 33 + 8x - 3 = 180

24x - 36 = 180 ( add 36 to both sides )

24x = 216 ( divide both sides by 24 )

x = 9

Answer:

155,588

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r)^n

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = growth rate

N = number of years 2021 - 2014 = 7

130,000(1.026)^7 = 155,587.6

rounding off to the nearest whole  number is 155,588

To round off to the nearest whole number, look at the first number after the decimal, if it is less than 5, add zero to the units term, If it is equal or greater than 5, add 1 to the units term.

The monthly mortgage payment for a $100,000 loan with a 5% annual interest rate and a 30-year fully amortizing term is approximately $536.82.

To calculate the monthly mortgage payment, we can use the formula for calculating the fixed monthly payment for a fully amortizing loan. The formula is: M = P * (r * (1 + r)^n) / ((1 + r)^n - 1)

Where:

M = Monthly mortgage payment

P = Principal balance

r = Monthly interest rate (annual interest rate divided by 12 and converted to a decimal)

n = Total number of monthly payments (loan term multiplied by 12)

Plugging in the given values into the formula:

P = $100,000

r = 0.05/12 (5% annual interest rate divided by 12 months)

n = 30 years * 12 (loan term converted to months)

M = 100,000 * (0.004166667 * (1 + 0.004166667)^(3012)) / ((1 + 0.004166667)^(3012) - 1)

M ≈ $536.82

Therefore, the monthly mortgage payment for a $100,000 loan with a 5% annual interest rate and a 30-year fully amortizing term is approximately $536.82.

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The domain of a function {(x, y): x and y are real and 2x + 5y ≠ x}

The domain of a function represents the set of all possible input values for which the function is defined. In this case, the function is defined as z = (8x - y)/(2x + 5y - x).

To determine the domain, we need to consider any restrictions on the variables x and y. Looking at the given options, we can see that the correct answer is {(x, y): x and y are real and 2x + 5y - x ≠ 0}.

The expression 2x + 5y - x represents the denominator of the fraction in the function.

The denominator cannot be equal to zero, as division by zero is undefined.

Therefore, the domain excludes any values of x and y that make the denominator zero.

The given option {(x, y): x and y are real and 2x + 5y - x ≠ 0} captures this restriction and represents the correct domain for the function.

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Answer:

68/100*92= 62.56

No abbi does not pass exam.

Answer:

Yes that is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation is log_2 (3x - 5) = 9 There are no real solutions to this equation because the logarithm of a negative number is undefined. The left side of the equation would require the argument to be negative, thus making the equation impossible to solve.

This equation cannot be solved because the logarithm of a negative number is undefined. The left side of the equation is of the form log_2 (N), where N is some real number.For the equation to have any real solutions, N needs to be greater than 0. However, in this equation, N is equal to 3x - 5, which can be negative for certain values of x. This means that there is no real number x that can be substituted into the equation to make it true, since the logarithm of a negative number is not defined. Therefore, this equation has no real solutions.

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The probability of guessing the correct answer for each question is 1/4, while the probability of guessing incorrectly is 3/4.

To calculate the probability of answering at most one correct answer, we need to consider two cases: answering zero correct answers and answering one correct answer.

For the case of answering zero correct answers, the probability can be calculated as (3/4)^5, as there are five independent attempts to answer incorrectly.

For the case of answering one correct answer, we have to consider the probability of guessing the correct answer on one question and incorrectly guessing the rest. Since there are five questions, the probability for this case is 5 * (1/4) * (3/4)^4.

To obtain the probability of answering at most one correct answer, we sum up the probabilities of the two cases:

Probability = (3/4)^5 + 5 * (1/4) * (3/4)^4.

Therefore, by calculating this expression, you can determine the probability of answering at most one correct answer among five questions when guessing randomly.

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Answer:

10/12

Step-by-step explanation:

36 divided by 3 is 12 so you would have to divide 30 by 3 to make it equivalent and you would get 10/12.

Hope this helped!

The values of the missing sides are;

a.  x = 35. 6 degrees

b. x = 15

c. x = 22. 7 ft

d. x = 31. 7 degrees

To determine the values, we have;

a. Using the tangent identity;

tan x = 5/7

Divide the values

tan x = 0. 7143

x = 35. 6 degrees

b. Using the Pythagorean theorem

x² = 9² + 12²

find the square

x² = 225

x = 15

c. Using the sine identity

sin 29= 11/x

cross multiply the values

x = 11/0. 4848

x = 22. 7 ft

d. sin x = 3.1/5.9

sin x = 0. 5254

x = 31. 7 degrees

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The probability that the team will experience a pulled hamstring muscle between the 15th and 25th minute of the game is 0.0196. 

We know that the normal time between pulled hamstring muscles is 342 minutes. Subsequently, the rate parameter λ for the exponential dissemination is:

λ = 1/342

(a) To discover the likelihood that the group will drag a hamstring muscle within the next amusement, we got to discover the likelihood that a pulled hamstring muscle happens within 90 minutes.

Let X be the time (in minutes) until the following pulled hamstring muscle. At that point, X takes after an exponential dispersion with rate parameter λ = 1/342.

P(X < 90) = 1 - \(e^\)(-λ * 90) = 1 - \(e^\)(-90/342) ≈ 0.2638

Subsequently, the likelihood that the group will drag a hamstring muscle within another amusement is roughly 0.2638.

(b) To discover the likelihood that the team will involve a pulled hamstring muscle between the 15th and 25th miniature of the diversion, we got to discover the likelihood that a pulled hamstring muscle happens between 15 and 25 minutes.

Let Y be the time (in minutes) until the another pulled hamstring muscle.

P(15 < Y < 25) = \(e^\)(-λ * 15) - \(e^\)(-λ * 25) =\(e^\)(-15/342) - \(e^\)(-25/342) ≈ 0.0196

In this manner, the likelihood that the group will involve a pulled hamstring muscle between the 15th and 25th diminutive of the amusement is roughly 0.0196. 

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Answer:

8.373

Step-by-step explanation:

Cone

Find the volume of the cone

V = 1/3 pi r^2 h

r = d/2

r = 4/2

r = 2 inches

h = 6 inches

pi = 3.14

V = 1/3 * 3.14 * 2^2 *  6

V = 25.12

Half sphere

V = 1/2 (4/3) pi r^3

r = 2 from above calculation

pi = 3.14

V = 2/3 * 3.14 * 2^3

V = 2/3 * 3.14 * 8

V = 16.74

Nothing spills out so I scoop must be a whole sphere. The sphere is 2 times what I calculated it to be or

V = (4/3) * 3.14 * 2^3

V = 33.49 cubic inches

The difference in volume is 33.49 - 25.12 = 8.373

Banach Fixed Point Theorem, we can prove that the integral equation I1ƒ(x) = ₁ (1+s)(¹+ƒ(s))² * ds has a unique solution f in RI([0, 1]).

1. First, we define a mapping T: RI([0, 1]) → RI([0, 1]) as follows:

  T(ƒ)(x) = I1ƒ(x) = ₁ (1+s)(¹+ƒ(s))² * ds

2. To prove the existence and uniqueness of a solution, we need to show that T is a contraction mapping.

3. Consider two functions ƒ₁, ƒ₂ in RI([0, 1]). We can compute the difference between T(ƒ₁)(x) and T(ƒ₂)(x):

  |T(ƒ₁)(x) - T(ƒ₂)(x)| = |I1ƒ₁(x) - I1ƒ₂(x)|

4. Using the properties of integrals, we can rewrite the above expression as:

  |I1ƒ₁(x) - I1ƒ₂(x)| = |∫[0, x] (1+s)(¹+ƒ₁(s))² * ds - ∫[0, x] (1+s)(¹+ƒ₂(s))² * ds|

5. Applying the triangle inequality and simplifying, we get:

  |I1ƒ₁(x) - I1ƒ₂(x)| ≤ ∫[0, x] |(1+s)(¹+ƒ₁(s))² - (1+s)(¹+ƒ₂(s))²| * ds

6. By expanding the squares and factoring, we have:

  |I1ƒ₁(x) - I1ƒ₂(x)| ≤ ∫[0, x] |(1+s)(ƒ₁(s) - ƒ₂(s)) * (2 + s + ƒ₁(s) + ƒ₂(s))| * ds

7. Since 0 ≤ s ≤ x ≤ 1, we can bound the term (2 + s + ƒ₁(s) + ƒ₂(s)) and write:

  |I1ƒ₁(x) - I1ƒ₂(x)| ≤ ∫[0, x] |(1+s)(ƒ₁(s) - ƒ₂(s)) * K| * ds

8. Here, K is a constant that depends on the bounds of (2 + s + ƒ₁(s) + ƒ₂(s)). We can choose K such that it is an upper bound for this term.

9. Now, we can apply the Banach Fixed Point Theorem. If we can show that T is a contraction mapping, then there exists a unique fixed point ƒ in RI([0, 1]) such that T(ƒ) = ƒ.

10. From the previous steps, we have shown that |T(ƒ₁)(x) - T(ƒ₂)(x)| ≤ K * ∫[0, x] |ƒ₁(s) - ƒ₂(s)| * ds, where K is a constant.

11. By choosing K < 1, we have shown that T is a contraction mapping.

12. Therefore, by the Banach Fixed Point Theorem, the integral equation I1ƒ(x) = ₁ (1+s)(¹+ƒ(s))² * ds has a unique solution f in RI([0, 1]).

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Answer:

\(-5xy -13xy=-18xy\)

\(m^8n^1 * m^3n^5=m^{11} n^6\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(-5xy -13xy=-18xy\)

\(m^8n^1 * m^3n^5\)

\(m^{8+3} =m^{11}\)

\(n^{1+5} =n^6\)

\(m^{11} n^6\)

Hope this helps!

Answer:

x=-2.01970690

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes it is a factor

Answer:

Yes, x+2 is a factor of f(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

-2 | 1   -3   -3    9   -4    12

   ___-2_ 10_-14_10  -12

     1   -5    7    -5   6  | 0

Since \(\frac{x^5-3x^4-3x^3+9x^2-4x+12}{x+2}=x^4-5x^3+7x^2-5x+6\) with no remainder, then x+2 is a factor