What are 2 examples Natural selection?
Answers
Answer:
Here are some examples of natural selection: In a habitat there are red bugs and green bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red bugs, so soon there are many green bugs and few red bugs. The green bugs reproduce and make more green bugs and eventually there are no more red bugs.
Explanation:
Related Questions
What are pathogens?
Please help me
Answers
Explanation:
Any organism or substance, especially a microorganism, capable of causing disease, such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa or fungi is pathogen.
Hope it will help :)❤
Answer:
Explanation:
^^shoyo hinata here!!!!!
(/^-^(^ ^)/
biology, a pathogen in the oldest and broadest sense, is any organism that can produce disease
which of the following in not a characteristic of enzymes? group of answer choices enzymes can bind to other compounds. enzymes can break bonds between compounds. enzymes are catalysts. enzymes participate in reactions only once. enzymes can create new compounds.
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Enzymes tend to denature at high temperatures thus they cannot operate under a wide range of temperature and work efficiently at optimum temperature. Option (b)
Enzymes are proteins that function as biological catalysts, speeding up chemical processes. Substrates are molecules on which enzymes can function, and the enzyme changes the substrates into various molecules known as products. Almost all metabolic activities in the cell require enzyme catalysis to occur at fast enough rates to support life. Enzymes catalyze individual stages in metabolic processes.
Enzymology is the study of enzymes, and pseudoenzyme analysis acknowledges that certain enzymes have lost their capacity to carry out biological catalysis over evolution, which is often reflected in their amino acid sequences and strange 'pseudocatalytic' features.
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Please help! skin melanocytes produce the protein melanin, which gives the skin pigment. muscle cells do not produce melanin. which statement explains this difference between skin melanocytes and muscle cells?
A. muscle cells rely on rna, while melanocytes rely on dna.
B. melanocytes and muscle cells express different genes.
C. muscle cells destroyed the gene for melanin, but melanocytes did not.
D. melanocytes contain different genes from muscle cells
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is B. "Melanocytes and muscle cells express different genes."
Although all cells in an organism (such as a human) contain the same DNA, different cell types express different sets of genes. Gene expression is the process by which specific genes are activated to produce a needed protein. In this case, the gene responsible for melanin production is expressed in melanocytes, but not in muscle cells.
This does not mean that muscle cells have destroyed the gene for melanin (as stated in option C) or that melanocytes contain different genes from muscle cells (as stated in option D). All cells within an organism contain the same genes, but not all genes are expressed in every cell. The process of gene expression is regulated by the cell to ensure that each cell type functions properly.
Option A is also incorrect because all cells, including both muscle cells and melanocytes, rely on both DNA (for storing genetic information) and RNA (for transmitting that information and producing proteins). DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into proteins. This process occurs in all cells.
The statement explains the difference between skin melanocytes and muscle cells is - melanocytes and muscle cells express different genes. So option b is correct.
Melanocytes are dark, dendritic-shaped, highly differentiated cells that secrete melanin, a pigment found in melanosomes, which is the primary function of melanocytes.
Melanocytes are a type of cell derived from the neural crest. They form a synapse with keratinocytes through their dendrites in the epidermis. Melanocytes play an important part in skin pigmentation and their role in the generation and distribution of melanin has been extensively studied.
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In an experiment, a researcher prepares a reaction mixture by dissolving a substance in a buffered solution. The substance is the substrate of a certain enzyme. The researcher adds a small amount of the enzyme to the reaction mixture and measures the amount of product that is formed over time. Which of the following best predicts the immediate result of adding more substrate to the reaction mixture at the point indicated by the arrow in Figure 1?
answer choices
The amount of product will decrease until the reaction rate goes to zero.
The amount of product will increase until the reaction reaches its equilibrium point or until the substrate is used up by the reaction.
The amount of product will increase without stopping because the enzyme will be unchanged by the reaction.
The amount of product will decrease until the reaction reaches its equilibrium point or until the enzyme is been used up by the reaction
Answers
Until equilibrium is reached or all of the substrate has been eaten, the amount of product will continue to increase.
How can the rate at which an enzyme-catalyzed reaction occurs be determined?It is possible to identify enzyme catalysis by measuring the appearance of the product or the disappearance of the reactants. The same reactants may be used in a reaction, but a different catalyst may produce different results.
Which of the following would speed up how quickly reactants turn into products in a chemical reaction?The more the temperature rises, the more crashes occur. As a reactant's concentration rises, the likelihood of reactant collisions increases as well, accelerating the rate of the reaction.
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What type of blood cells are involved in the immune response?
Answers
Answer:
white blood cells
Explanation:
as a result of any natural process, the total entropy of any system plus that of its environment
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The total entropy of any system plus that of its environment is Never Decreases.
What is meant by Environment ?Everything in our immediate surroundings including both living and nonliving objects like soil, water, animals, and plants adapts to its environment. This encompasses both living and nonliving things. The earth's natural bounty supports life on the planet. The term "environment" refers to the whole of all the factors, both living and non-living, and their effects on human life. Water, land, sunlight, rocks, and air are examples of non-living or abiotic components, whereas all biotic or life elements are animals, plants, forests, fisheries, and birds. The natural surrounds that support life's ability to develop, flourish, and perish on this globe we call earth are known as an environment. The natural world is vital to the continuation of life on Earth and provides assistance to people, animals, and other living things.
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Question 21(Multiple Choice Worth 4 pollies)
[0.04H]Nick made the chart below to show the future impact of four energy production technologies on the environment.
Tidal Power
Name of
energy
production
technology
Wave power
Current power
Ocean thermal
Energy
Impact on
environment
Emission of
greenhouse
gases into the
atmosphere
Decrease in Destruction of
the number animal habitats
of migratory because of change
birds
in coastline
Increase in fish
population because
of decrease in
current strength
For which of these energy production technologies did Nick write correct future impacts on the environment?
O ocean thermal energy and wave power
O wave power and tidal power
O tidal power and current power
O current power and ocean thermal energy
![Question 21(Multiple Choice Worth 4 pollies)[0.04H]Nick made the chart below to show the future impact](https://i5t5.c14.e2-1.dev/h-images-qa/contents/attachments/f2rEb5W40ztyT95teFaMGPrrZIZnEyVD.png)
Answers
Answer:
I don't unerstand the question
Explanation:
I think it's B
Answer:
Tidal power and current power
Explanation:
First, we can determine that A and B are obvoiusly wrong. Ocean thermal energy produces zero carbon emissions, as most forms of hydroelectric power do. Secondly, wave energy might affect aquatic life, but it wouldn't affect the migration of birds. After reviewing the 3rd and 4th answers, they do look reasonable. Therefore, your answer is tidal power and current power.
during the first two weeks after conception, the developing offspring is known as
Answers
During the first two weeks after conception, the developing offspring is known as a zygote.
After fertilization occurs, when the sperm and egg fuse, the resulting single-celled organism is called a zygote. The zygote undergoes a series of cell divisions through a process called cleavage, forming a ball of cells known as a blastocyst.
The blastocyst then implants into the wall of the uterus, and further development progresses. At this early stage, the developing offspring have not yet differentiated into distinct tissues and organs, and it is still in the early stages of embryonic development.
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How are soluble food molecules absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine
Answers
Soluble food molecules are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine through the process of diffusion and active transport.
what concentration of radioactive glucose did the researchers find in the red blood cells of a 15-day-old guinea pig after an incubation time of 30 minutes?
Answers
85 mM red blood cells of a 15-day-old guinea pig after an incubation time of 30 minutes
A blood cell, also known as a hematopoietic cell, hemocyte, or hepatocyte, is a type of cell that is formed through the process of hematopoiesis and is mostly found in the blood. The three main types of blood cells are platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, or red blood cells (thrombocytes). Together, these three types of blood cells make up 45% of the blood tissue's total volume, with plasma, blood's liquid component, making up the remaining 55%. Erythrocytes, sometimes known as red blood cells, function largely to transport oxygen and to bind carbon dioxide. The protein hemoglobin, which contains iron, provides red blood cells their colour and helps carry oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs for exhalation. "Red blood"
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A student wanted to determine what concentration low, medium, or high of a chemical released from brown algae prevented coral larvae from settling and growing on the algae. Each concentration level of the chemical from one brown alga was added to the water Percent of Larvae Settled of each tank. Tank size, water temperature, and algae species were held constant. A different number and species of larvae were dropped into each tank. After three days, the percent of settled larvae for each concentration of inhibiting chemical was found.
1. Evaluate What are the design flaws in this experiment?How would you change the experiment to make the results more valid?
2. Analyze The student concluded that at all levels the inhibiting chemical affected the rate of settlement of marine larvae. Is this an accurate conclusion based on the data collected? Explain.
Answers
The described experiment contains a number of design issues. The key problems are a lack of a control group, a small sample size, limited replication, and lack of randomization in 0ther words, the experiment should include a control group, be replicated, have the assignment be random, and have a larger sample size to ensure the results are more reliable.
The flaws in the experiment and the analysisThe experiment described has several design flaws that impact the validity of the results. The major flaws include the absence of a control group, limited sample size and replication, lack of information about the inhibiting chemical, and no randomization. To improve the validity of the results, the experiment should include a control group, increase the sample size and replication, randomize the assignment of larvae, provide information about the chemical, and follow standardized protocols.
Based on the information provided, it is not possible to accurately conclude whether the inhibiting chemical affected the settlement rate of marine larvae at all concentration levels. Without a control group and proper statistical analysis, it is difficult to determine the specific impact of the inhibiting chemical.
A comparison between the settlement rates observed in the presence of the inhibiting chemical and those in the control group, along with appropriate statistical tests, is necessary to make an accurate conclusion. Further analysis, such as effect sizes and confidence intervals, would provide a more comprehensive understanding of the relationship between the inhibiting chemical and larval settlement rates.
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A student is performing research on familial genetics. The student notices that certain traits are found only on the mother's side of the family while other traits seem to be common in the father's side of the family. Which explanation BEST identifies why freckles may be common on one side of the family while baldness is common on another side of the family?
Answers
Answer: A
This is the right answer because I said so #Believeinme
Male pattern baldness may have developed to improve the production of vitamin D because it expands the area of skin that is exposed to sunshine, according to a study. Thus, option A is correct.
What are the genetic trait of baldness affect?Men do receive the major baldness gene from their mothers on the X, or feminine, chromosome.
A 2005 study from the German university of Bonn, which also contributed to the mother myth, backed up this claim. And it is accurate to say that the mother's side has a stronger hereditary influence.
Men don't get fully bald for 15 to 25 years on average. At any age, this process can start. By the age of 60, around two thirds of men are either bald or have a balding pattern. In conclusion, there is no specific age at which you should anticipate experiencing hair loss.
Therefore, Prostate cancer, which disrupts reproduction and may cause early death, is prevented by this vitamin.
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How to balance.
NH3+NO---->N2+H2O
Answers
Answer:
4NH3+6NO---->5N2+6H2O
Explanation:
What happens inside your body as you an oral report in front of your class? URGENT I need it quick, I will give brainliest!
Answers
Answer:
If you get nervous (which could happen alot) it feels like your body temperature is rising but really its not , and your face starts to turn red. And when you do an oral report you use your brain to read off the work and to show your knowledge.
Explanation:
Two centriole pairs establish a bridge of microtubules which form the ___ ___ during prophase.
Answers
Answer: Spindle Apparatus
The shown rock is classified as what type of rock?
•foliated metamorphic rock
•non foliated metamorphic rock
• extrusive igneous rock
•clastic sedimentary rock
Answers
Clastic sedimentary rock is the type of rock that is displayed. Conglomerates comprise clastic sedimentary rocks made primarily of rounded clasts the size of pebbles.
What sort of sedimentary rocks are clastic?Rock fragments (clasts) from older rocks make up clastic sedimentary rocks. Weathering causes rock fragments to become loose, which are subsequently moved to a basin or depression were sediment is trapped. Sediment becomes sedimentary rock when it is deeply buried, crushed, and cemented.
What is clastic and non clastic?Clastic rocks are composed of fragments of other rocks which were worn, eroded, and deposited. Rock and mineral pieces make up clasts. Sandstone and mudstone are clastic rock types. When water is evaporated or from plant remnants, non-clastic rocks are formed.
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Match the enzymes on the left with the functions on the right:
DNA polymerase i
DNA polymerase iii
Helicase
DNA ligase
Primase
RNA polymerase ii
topoisomerase
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
snRP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein)
nucleas
Enzyme that removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA nucleotides Enzyme that synthesizes a strand of nucleotides during transcription Enzyme that breaks, swivels, and rejoins DNA strands to relieve the strain caused by untwisting the double helix Enzyme that adds short strands of RNA primers to DNA during DNA replication Enzyme that joins with others to cut out introns during post-transcriptional modification Enzyme that replicates the ends of linear chromosomes in eukaryotic germ cells Enzyme that binds to a stop codon on mRNA, causing hydrolysis Enzyme that aids a protein in folding correctly Enzyme that helps bring together the small and large subunits of the ribosome Enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments together Enzyme that untwists the double helix during DNA replication Enzyme that matches tRNA with the correct amino acid during translation Enzyme that synthesizes a new strand of nucleotides by adding nucleotides to a 3' end of an RNA primer
Answers
DNA polymerase I: Enzyme that removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA nucleotides. DNA polymerase III: Enzyme that synthesizes a strand of nucleotides during replication
Helicase: Enzyme that untwists the double helix during replication. DNA ligase: Enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments together. Primase: Enzyme that adds short strands of RNA primers to DNA during replication. RNA polymerase II: Enzyme that synthesizes a new strand of nucleotides by adding nucleotides to a 3' end of an RNA primer
Topoisomerase: Enzyme that breaks, swivels, and rejoins DNA strands to relieve strain during replication. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase: Enzyme that matches tRNA with the correct amino acid during translation. snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein): Enzyme that binds to a stop codon on mRNA, causing hydrolysis. Nucleas: Enzyme that joins with others to cut out introns during post-transcriptional modification
1. DNA polymerase I is responsible for removing RNA primers during DNA replication and replacing them with DNA nucleotides.
2. DNA polymerase III is the primary enzyme involved in synthesizing a new DNA strand during replication.
3. Helicase unwinds and separates the two strands of DNA, allowing replication to occur.
4. DNA ligase joins the short DNA fragments called Okazaki fragments together, forming a continuous strand.
5. Primase synthesizes short RNA primers that are necessary for DNA polymerase to initiate replication.
6. RNA polymerase II is involved in transcription, synthesizing a new RNA strand by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of an RNA primer.
7. Topoisomerase relieves the strain caused by untwisting the DNA helix during replication by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining the DNA strands.
8. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase ensures the correct matching of tRNA molecules with their corresponding amino acids during translation.
9. snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoprotein) complexes bind to stop codons on mRNA, leading to the hydrolysis of the mRNA molecule.
10. Nucleas is responsible for joining with other enzymes to remove introns and splice together exons during post-transcriptional modification.
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I don't understand any of it. I really need some help. Don't mind the answers on there, they're probably wrong. I know you have to use Hardy Weinberg but exactly how do I do that? Completely lost
Answers
Answer: I have done this work in the pass same answers as mine to so your correct.
Explanation:
hoped this helped have a mathtastic day
The Hardy-Weinberg theory states that a population in equilibrium expresses the same allelic and genotypic frequencies generation after generation. 1) F = 9.4%, fch = 29.6%, fh = 43.3%, f= 17.7%, FF = 0.88%, Ffch = 3.3%, Ffh = 5.5%, Ff = 8.1%, fchfch = 3.13%, fchfh = 10.5%, fchf = 15.3%, fhfh = = 8.8%, fhf = 25.6%, ff = 18.8%. 2) FF = 30.6, Ffch = 114.8, Ffh = 191.3, Ff = 281.8, fchfch = 108.9, fchfh = 365.3, fchf = 532.3, fhfh = 306.2, fhf = 890.6, ff = 654.
What is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a theory that describes a population that is not evolving, it is in equilibrium. The allelic and genotypic frequencies in this population remain the same generation after generation.
Assuming a multiallelic gene, there are different equations we can use to determine the frequencies.
Assuming 4 alleles,
Allelic frequencies
prqsGenotypic frequencies
p² ⇒ Homozygousq² ⇒ Homozygousr² ⇒ Homozygouss² ⇒ Homozygous2pq ⇒ Heterozygous2pr ⇒ Heterozygous2ps ⇒ Heterozygous2qr ⇒ Heterozygous2qs ⇒ Heterozygous2rs ⇒ HeterozygousEquations,
p + q + r + s = 1p² + q² + r² + s² + 2pq + 2pr + 2ps + 2qr + 2qs + 2rs = 1Available information,
Alleles Frequency
F p = 0.094fch q = ?fh r = ?f s = ?Genotypes Frequencies
FF p² = ?Ffch 2pq = ?Ffh 2pr = ?Ff 2ps = ?fchfch q² = ?fchch 2qr = ?fchf 2qs = ?fhfh r² = 0.088fhf 2rs = ?ff s² = 0.188Now, let us first take allelic frequencies,
p = 0.094
r = √r² = √0.088 = 0.296
s = √s² = √0.188 = 0.433
q = ?
We can clear the equation p + q + r + s = 1 to get the value of the q allele
p + q + r + s = 1
0.094 + q + 0.296 + 0.433 = 1
q = 1 - 0.094 - 0.296 - 0.433
q = 0.177
So,
p = 0.094 = 9.4%r = 0.296 = 29.6%s = 0.433 = 43.3%q = 0.177 = 17.7%Now, let us get the genotypic frequencies,
p² = 0.094² = 0.0088 = 0.88%2pq = 2 x 0.094 x 0.177 = 0.033 = 3.3%2pr = 2 x 0.094 x 0.296 = 0.055 = 5.5%2ps = 2 x 0.094 x 0.433 = 0.081 = 8.1%q² = 0.177² = 0.0313 = 3.13%2qr = 2 x 0.177 x 0.296 = 0.105 = 10.5%2qs = 2 x 0.177 x 0.433 = 0.153 = 15.3%r² = 0.088 = 8.8%2rs = 2 x 0.296 x 0.433 = 0.256 = 25.6%s² = 0.188 = 18.8%If these calcs are right, then the addition of all these genotypic frequencies should equal one.
p² + q² + r² + s² + 2pq + 2pr + 2ps + 2qr + 2qs + 2rs = 1
Now, to get the number of individuals with each genotype, you just need to multiply the genotypic frequency by the total number of individuals.
Number of individuals with each genotype,
p² = 0.0088 x 3479 = 30.6 2pq = 0.033 x 3479 = 114.82pr = 0.055 x 3479 = 191.32ps = 0.081 x 3479 = 281.8q² = 0.0313 x 3479 = 108.92qr = 0.105 x 3479 = 365.32qs = 0.153 x 3479 = 532.3r² = 0.088 x 3479 = 306.22rs = 0.256 x 3479 = 890.6s² = 0.188 x 3479 = 654You can learn more about Hardy Weinberg equilibrium at
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an individual muscle fiber which contracts with equal force in response to each action potential is often referred to as the
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An individual muscle fiber which contracts with equal force in response to each action potential is often referred to as the MUSCLE TWITCH.
When an movement ability travels down the motor neuron, it'll bring about a contraction of all the muscle fibers related to that motor neuron. The contraction generated with the aid of using a single movement ability is known as a muscle twitch. A single muscle twitch has 3 components.
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Please help !!! (Will mark as brainlist) (Punnett Problems) fill in the blanks
Answers
Explanation:
cross: FF X Ff
off spring look like: FF,Ff
All of the genotype will be: FF,Ff,FF,Ff
Describe the similarities and differences between the chromosomes of a male and a female human. (3 marks)
Answers
The chromosomes of a male and a female human share many similarities, but they also have some distinct differences. Both males and females have 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes. Among these pairs, 22 pairs are autosomes, which are the same in males and females, and one pair is the sex chromosomes, which determine the individual's sex.
The key difference lies in the sex chromosomes. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, denoted as XY, while females have two X chromosomes, denoted as XX. The presence of the Y chromosome in males determines their male characteristics and development. The X chromosome is responsible for many traits unrelated to sex determination and is present in both males and females.
In terms of size and structure, the autosomes are similar between males and females. They carry the majority of the genetic information and govern various aspects of an individual's traits and characteristics. The sex chromosomes, however, exhibit some structural differences due to the presence of the Y chromosome in males.
Overall, while the majority of the chromosomes are shared between males and females, the presence of the Y chromosome in males and the absence of it in females result in the primary distinction between the sexes in terms of chromosomal composition.
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Explain how scientific knowledge develops through making observations about the natural world.
Answers
Answer:
Scientific knowledge develops through making observations about the natural world. An observation may generate a scientific question, which may lead to a hypothesis. The hypothesis can be tested through experimentation. The results of experimentation lead to changes in scientific knowledge.
Explanation:
Explain how scientific knowledge develops through making observations about the natural world. my answers are never wrong trust me
A plant has red flowers. In this species, a red flower color is the dominant trait over a white flower color.
What can you say about this plant?
Answers
Answer:
This plant is heterozygous for the red flower color.
Explanation:
Heterozygous means that you have both traits, but since white is recessive it is being dominated by the red flower trait, so it isn't noticed.
Answer:
If the genotype is Rr, the phenotype will be red-flowered.
Explanation:
What does the process of post-translational control refer to?
a. regulation of gene expression after transcription
b. regulation of gene expression after translation
c. period between transcription and translation
d. control of epigenetic activation
Answers
The process of post-translational control refer to regulation of gene expression after translation. It is the process by which the genetic information encoded in messenger RNA is used to synthesize proteins.
Once the protein is synthesized, post-translational control mechanisms come into play to modify and regulate the activity, stability, localization, or function of the protein.
There are numerous post-translational modifications that can occur, including phosphorylation, acetylation, methylation, glycosylation, ubiquitination, and many others. These modifications can affect the structure, function, and interactions of proteins, thereby regulating their activity and cellular processes.
Post-translational control allows cells to fine-tune gene expression and respond to various internal and external signals. It provides an additional layer of regulation beyond transcriptional control, which occurs during gene expression before translation.
In contrast, options a and c are not correct. Regulation of gene expression after transcription refers to processes such as alternative splicing, mRNA processing, and mRNA stability, but not post-translational control.
The period between transcription and translation is known as the translation process itself, not post-translational control.
Option d, control of epigenetic activation, refers to a broader aspect of gene regulation involving modifications to DNA and histones that can affect gene expression but is not specific to post-translational control.
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A bat wing, an alligator leg, and a human arm are homologous structures. Which fact about those structures best supports one aspect of the theory of evolution? Question 14 options: a. The fact that the bone structures are similar supports the concept that the animals shared a common ancestor. b. The fact that the bone structures are similar supports the concept that birds evolved from mammals. c. The fact that the bone structures are completely different supports the concept that those organisms evolved from each other.
Answers
Answer:
A - The fact that the bone structures are similar supports the concept that the animals shared a common ancestor.
Explanation:
Homologous structures refer organs which are similar in structure which are derived from ancestors of similar species.
In the US, there are existing state laws to protect individuals from genetic discrimination in what areas? Select all that
apply.
insurance companies
in the work place
criminal investigations
in the hospital or clinic
kids sport teams
government agencies
Answers
All of the above.
Brainliest would be appreciated.
Plz Help! Will Name Brainliest!!
Answers
You would have to post a picture of the thing that you read
the most recent common ancestor of all eukaryotes had mitochondria, which evolved from bacteria. group of answer choices true false
Answers
It is widely accepted that the most recent common ancestor of all eukaryotes had mitochondria
The idea that the most recent common ancestor (MRCA) of all eukaryotes had mitochondria that evolved from bacteria is widely accepted in the scientific community. This idea is based on evidence from molecular biology, comparative genomics, and phylogenetic analysis.
Mitochondria are the organelles responsible for energy production in eukaryotic cells. They are thought to have evolved from a free-living aerobic bacterium that was engulfed by an ancestral host cell in an endosymbiotic event. This process is believed to have occurred over a billion years ago.
The evidence supporting this theory comes from several sources. Firstly, mitochondria have their own DNA, which is circular like that of bacteria and is similar in size to the DNA of some bacterial species. Additionally, the DNA of mitochondria is more similar to that of bacterial DNA than to the DNA of eukaryotic nuclei.
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which of the following would be true concerning a small sample of a bacterial culture that was transferred into a favorable growth medium one to two minutes ago? a. the cells of this transferred culture would immediately begin dividing. b. the culture would be nutrient limited. c. the culture would enter stationery phase. d. cells in this culture would be undergoing changes in gene expression, turning on certain genes and turning off others. e. two of the above are true statements.
Answers
Changes in gene expression, including the activation of some genes and the suppression of others, would occur in these cells while they were in this culture.
In a multicellular organism, the various cell types exhibit striking structural and functional diversity. For instance, the distinctions between mammalian neurons and lymphocytes are so great that it is hard to believe that both types of cells have the same DNA. Because of this and the fact that cell differentiation is frequently irreversible, biologists first hypothesized that genes may be selectively lost during cell differentiation. However, as of late, it has become clear that variations in gene expression, rather than alterations in the nucleotide sequence of the cell's genome, are the main drivers of cell differentiation.
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For each genotype shown in the table below indicate whether the Z and Y genes of the lac operon will produce functional protein in the presence or absence of the inducer. (Use YES or NO to indicate if there will be functional protein or not; assume no glucose is present) Explain your reasoning (clearly and neatly) here if you want; if you make a mistake, I can provide feedback.
Answers
Based on the given table, the Z and Y genes of the lac operon will produce functional protein in the presence of the inducer for genotypes I+ P+ O+ and I+ P- O+. However, there will be no functional protein produced in the absence of the inducer for all genotypes mentioned in the table.
The lac operon is a genetic system found in bacteria that regulates the production of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism. It consists of three structural genes: Z, Y, and A, along with regulatory elements. The Z gene encodes for β-galactosidase, which is responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into glucose and galactose. The Y gene encodes for lactose permease, which is a transporter protein that facilitates the entry of lactose into the bacterial cell.
In the presence of the inducer, which is typically the molecule allolactose, the lac operon is activated. The inducer binds to the lac repressor protein, preventing it from binding to the operator region. This allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter region and initiate transcription of the Z and Y genes.
For genotypes I+ P+ O+ and I+ P- O+, the lac operon will produce functional protein in the presence of the inducer. In these genotypes, the regulatory elements are intact. The I+ allele refers to a wild-type inducer gene, which produces a functional inducer. The P+ allele indicates a wild-type promoter region, which allows RNA polymerase to bind and initiate transcription. The O+ allele represents a wild-type operator region, which is not mutated and allows for the binding of RNA polymerase.
However, in the absence of the inducer, there will be no functional protein produced for all genotypes mentioned in the table. This is because without the inducer, the lac repressor protein binds to the operator region, preventing RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and initiating transcription. As a result, the Z and Y genes remain inactive.
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