Answer: Petri dishes and sterile droppers
Explanation:
Experimenters arranged for participants to experience subliminal recordings designed
to help them lose weight. According to the research, the recordings will
a. interfere with the participants' capacity for sensory adaptation
O b. have no more impact on participants' weight than a placebo
O c. improve participants' capacity for auditory transduction
O d. have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits
An experiment is a scientific procedure aimed at testing a hypothesis. The hypothesis is a plausible explanation of some aspect of the real world that must be confirmed or rejected by using the scientific method.
According to the research, the recordings will have a positive and long-lasting impact on participants' eating habits (Option d).In this case, the hypothesis is that recordings will have a positive impact on eating habits.An experiment is a scientific procedure that is used for the collection of empirical evidence.Subsequently, this empirical evidence is then used to test (either support or reject) the working hypothesis.Learn more in:
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which of the following is the least preferable way to refuse when someone offers you drugs at a patty?
Answer:
B."What? Drugs are illegal and you know it. If you ask me to try it again, I'll call the police."
Explanation:
Umm b/c u sound like a snitch if u say dis
What is the similarity seen between sprains and strains?
Answer:
The symptoms of a sprain and strain are much alike, due to the fact that the injuries are very similar in nature. You may experience swelling, muscle spasm, difficulty with range of motion, limited flexibility, or pain around the affected joint.
Explanation:
hope this helps u!
Which test do physicians use to monitor the insulin dose for a diabetic patient?
A) urinalysis
B) postprandial blood sugar test
C) fructosamine test
D) radioiodine uptake assay
(answer is B for edmentum)
Answer:
My answer is ;
C) fructosamine test
Explanation:
This test measures the average blood glucose level of the patient for over two to three weeks.
Shea is a registered nurse. Which of the given roles would come under her scope of work?
A. Clean the patient’s house regularly
B. Provide emotional and physical support to the patient
C. Purchase groceries for the patient
D. Ensure esthetic requirements are met on client’s request
Answer:
B
Explanation:
I took the test on Plato/edmentum and got it right
Describe the parts of an electrocardiogram and explain how these electrical events are related to the mechanical events of the cardiac cycle.
An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is a diagnostic tool used to record the electrical activity of the heart. It consists of several components that represent different electrical events occurring during the cardiac cycle.
The main parts of an electrocardiogram include:
1. P wave: The P wave represents atrial depolarization, which is the electrical activation of the atria as they contract to pump blood into the ventricles.
2. QRS complex: The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, which is the electrical activation of the ventricles as they contract to pump blood out of the heart. It consists of three waves: Q, R, and S.
3. T wave: The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, which is the recovery of the ventricles as they prepare for the next cardiac cycle.
These electrical events are closely related to the mechanical events of the cardiac cycle:
- The P wave corresponds to atrial contraction (atrial systole), which occurs just before ventricular contraction. As the atria contract, they help fill the ventricles with blood.
- The QRS complex represents ventricular contraction (ventricular systole). As the ventricles contract, blood is ejected into the pulmonary artery and aorta, causing blood to circulate throughout the body.
- The T wave corresponds to ventricular relaxation (ventricular diastole) and recovery. During this phase, the ventricles refill with blood in preparation for the next contraction.
By examining the ECG waveform and its different components, healthcare professionals can assess the electrical activity of the heart, detect any abnormalities or arrhythmias, and evaluate the overall function of the cardiac cycle.
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a toddler who has been hospitalized for vomiting due to gastroenteritis is sleeping and difficult to wake up. assessment reveals vital signs of a regular heart rate of 230 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 30 per minute, bp of 84/52, and capillary refill time of 3 seconds. which dysrhythmia does the nurse suspect in this child?
A toddler who has been hospitalized for vomiting because of gastroenteritis is slumbering and difficult to awaken Supraventricular tachycardia.
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is usually not existence-threatening until we got heart harm or other heart conditions. but, in severe instances, an episode of SVT might also motivate unconsciousness or cardiac arrest.
Most people with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) do not need remedy. but, if we have long or frequent episodes, our health care company may endorse the Carotid sinus rubs down. A healthcare company applies gentle stress at the neck in which the carotid artery splits into branches.
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what’s an example in how the government can improve air pollution what action can they do to help?
Air pollution is the contamination of the atmosphere by compounds that are dangerous to the health of people and other living things, or that impair the climate or materials. The government must take appropriate steps and actions to eradicate air pollution in order to ensure a better environment and sustainability. The following are the ways in which air pollution can be improved by the government:
1) Create awareness with proper education and programs.
2) Improving public transport facilities and making them easily accessible.
3) Implementation of proper law and punishment for those who cause air pollution on large scale.
4) Monitoring and regulating the pollution caused by industries and factories.
5) Introduce cleaner fuels like CNG and LPG.
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Describe three (3) ways that you can make sure you understand what your boss is asking for in his/her email or memo?
Which of the following is a focus of the APA Professional Code of Conduct for Psychologists?
They uphold professional standards of conduct, clarify their professional roles and obligations, accept appropriate responsibility for their behavior, and seek to manage conflicts of interest that could lead to exploitation or harm.
Answer:The APA (American Psychological Association) Professional Code of Conduct for Psychologists focuses on several areas, but one of its primary focuses is on promoting and maintaining ethical and professional standards in the practice of psychology. This includes guidelines for confidentiality, informed consent, competence, integrity, respect for people's rights and dignity, and responsible use of scientific and professional knowledge. Additionally, the code emphasizes the importance of continuous learning and self-reflection, as well as a commitment to social responsibility and cultural competence in working with diverse populations.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.
Answer:
Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.
Explanation:
Some modern types of graphic notation as well as other forms of notation (like waveform and MIDI styles) of the twentieth century owe their development to several modern innovations. Which of the following is NOT one of those innovations?
Answer: Mensural notation
Explanation:
a 28-year-old male is admitted to the burn unit 2 hours after receiving partial thickness and full thickness burns over 50% of his body surface in an industrial explosion. abnormal vital signs include low blood pressure and tachycardia. lab results show a high hematocrit due to:
According to test results, fluid flow out of the vascular region is what causes the elevated hematocrit.
What do doctors do for tachycardia?A heartbeat that is more over 100 beats a minute at rest is referred to as tachycardia. It can begin in either the lower or upper chambers of the heart and can be anything from minor to fatal. Medicines, an ablation operation, and the installation of an implanted cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) are all forms of treatment.
What causes tachycardia most frequently?Tachycardia can be brought on by a number of illnesses that affect the heart, such as high blood pressure (hypertension), coronary artery diseases (atherosclerosis), heart valve illness, heart failure, cardiac muscle illness (cardiomyopathy), tumors, or infections.
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What are the major products obtained upon treatment of ethyl methyl ether with excess HBr? A) Bromomethane and ethanol C) Bromoethane and bromomethane B) Bromoethane and methanol D) Ethanol and methanol
Bromomethane is the first product of the aforementioned reaction, and bromoethane is the second.
What is a Bromoethane?Ethyl bromide, sometimes referred to as bromoethane, is a substance belonging to the haloalkanes family of chemicals. Chemists tend to shorten it to EtBr. This volatile substance smells ether-like. Rats and cockroaches are among the pests that are killed by bromomethane. It also eliminates fungus. To extract oil from nuts, seeds, and wool, as well as to create other compounds, bromomethane is employed. To prevent evaporation and leaching into the soil and groundwater, bromomethane is often stored in sealed containers.Gases that are poisonous and caustic are produced. reacts aggressively with strong bases, oxidizers, magnesium, zinc, and aluminum. attacks rubber and plastic.Ethyl bromide, sometimes referred to as bromoethane, is a substance belonging to the haloalkanes family of chemicals.To learn more about Bromoethane, refer to:
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The major products obtained upon treatment of ethyl methyl ether with excess HBr are Bromomethane and ethanol. So, the correct option is A).
This reaction takes place through the cleavage of the ether bond by HBr. Ethyl methyl ether (CH3OCH2CH3) reacts with HBr, leading to the breaking of the C-O bond. HBr provides a source of H+ and Br- ions. The H+ ion (proton) reacts with the oxygen in the ether, creating a protonated ether (CH3OCH2CH3+). This intermediate species is more reactive and prone to nucleophilic attack by the Br- ion.
The Br- ion attacks the more substituted carbon (ethyl group) in the protonated ether, forming bromoethane (CH3CH2Br). Meanwhile, the methyl group is left with a positive charge, which is quickly quenched by another H+ from HBr, forming bromomethane (CH3Br).
In conclusion, the reaction of ethyl methyl ether with excess HBr leads to the formation of two products, bromomethane and ethanol, as the ether bond is cleaved by the acidic HBr.
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A person taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill would have ________ T3 and T4 and ________ TSH levels while taking the diet pill.
Answer:
A person taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill would have more than normal T3 and T4 and less than normal TSH levels while taking the diet pill.
Explanation:
If a person is taking exogenous thyroid hormone in an illegal diet pill, the T3 and T4 would be higher than usual since the body is receiving the thyroid hormone when it does not need it because it can produce it by itself. The TSH is the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone. This hormone stimulates the production of T3 and T4 in the thyroid gland. As the body receives an external dose of the thyroid hormone, the TSH levels are lower to try and balance the excess of T3and T4.
Which is a type of alternative dispute resolu-
tion where the final decision is legally binding?
a. Dereliction
b. Mediation
c. Arbitration
d. Summary judgment
Answer:
ARBITRATION: Arbitration, a form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR), is a technique for the resolution of disputes outside the courts, where the parties to a dispute refer it to one or more persons – arbitrators, by whose decision they agree to be bound.
The correct option is C.
What is Arbitration?
Arbitration, a form of alternative dispute resolution, is a way to resolve disputes outside the judiciary courts. The dispute will be decided by one or more persons, which renders the 'arbitration award'.
What is the process of arbitration?
The parties and arbitrators meet in person to conduct the hearing in which the parties present arguments and evidence in support of their respective cases. After the conclusion of the hearing, the arbitrators deliberate the facts of the case and render a written decision called an award.
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In a medical setting,what's done to whole numbers to minimize the chance of errors?
Unlike the discrete waveform from an electrocardiogram, which measures electrical activity traveling through the heart, the electromyogram waveform is irregular. Why do you suppose this is? think about how action potentials spread through skeletal muscle.
Action potentials spread through skeletal muscle by the electromyogram record data from the contraction of several motor units, which could cause the waveform to be erratic.
To check for various cardiac diseases, an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) measures the electrical signal from the heart. To record the electrical impulses that propel the heartbeat, electrodes are placed on the chest.
On a linked computer monitor or printer, the signals are shown as waves. The procedure of electrocardiography involves creating an electrocardiogram, a recording of the electrical activity of the heart.
It is a cardiac electrogram, which plots the voltage of the heart's electrical activity against time using electrodes placed on the skin.
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what is the avg pp size
Answer:
the average"PP" size is at least 5.16
Explanation:
On the first day of kindergarten Mrs. Rose's class appears nervous. Mrs. Rose allows
the children to have free time to color and play with clay. Each day during the first
week of school, Mrs. Rose allows the children free time. By the end of the first week,
the children appear calm and enter the room with happy faces. For the children, the
kindergarten classroom has become the
A)Reinforcer
B)Conditioned stimulus
C)Unconditioned response
C)Conditioned response
Answer:
b
Explanation:
have a great day
hope helpful
By the end of the first week, the children appear calm and enter the room with happy faces. For the children, the kindergarten classroom has become the conditional stimulus, which is in option B.
What are kindergarten settings?The children in Mrs. Rose's class were initially nervous when they entered the kindergarten classroom. However, as they continued to come to the classroom and engage in free-time activities, they became more comfortable and began to associate the classroom with positive experiences. This association between the classroom and positive experiences is an example of classical conditioning, in which a neutral stimulus (the classroom) becomes associated with a positive experience (free time activities), resulting in a conditioned response (happy faces) to the previously neutral stimulus.
Hence, by the end of the first week, the children appear calm and enter the room with happy faces. For the children, the kindergarten classroom has become the conditional stimulus, which is in option B.
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A nurse is caring for an older adult and suspects that the patient may be experiencing hypovolemia. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess the patient that supports this conclusion?
1. Distended neck veins
2. Bradycardia
3. Dilute urine
4. Weak pulse
A nurse should assess the patient for the following clinical indicator to support the conclusion that the patient may be experiencing hypovolemia is Weak pulse. (4)
Hypovolemia, which is a decreased volume of circulating blood, can result in a weak or thready pulse, as the heart struggles to pump sufficient blood to meet the body's needs.
A weak pulse can also be an indicator of dehydration, which is a common cause of hypovolemia.
Other indicators such as distended neck veins, bradycardia, and dilute urine can also indicate hypovolemia, but a weak pulse is the most direct and specific sign.
The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, including their blood pressure and pulse, and report any abnormalities to the healthcare team.
The healthcare team will then work to identify the cause of the hypovolemia and implement appropriate treatment to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications.
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A client is ordered 30mg of lovenox by subcutaneous injection. 5mg in 1ml of liquid for sq injection available. how many ml will you administer?
To administer 30mg of lovenox, you need to divide the total dose by the concentration of the liquid available. In this case, 5mg of lovenox is present in 1ml of liquid. Therefore, to get 30mg, we need to divide 30 by 5, which equals 6. This means that you need to administer 6ml of the liquid for the subcutaneous injection to deliver 30mg of lovenox to the client.
It's essential to be precise when measuring the liquid and following the correct procedure for subcutaneous injections to ensure the safe administration of medication. Before administering the injection, ensure you verify the prescription with a colleague or supervisor and confirm the client's identity. Remember to dispose of the needle and syringe correctly, following the healthcare facility's disposal guidelines.
To determine how many ml to administer for a client ordered 30mg of Lovenox by subcutaneous injection with 5mg in 1ml of liquid available, follow these steps:
1. Identify the ordered dose: 30mg of Lovenox.
2. Identify the available concentration: 5mg in 1ml of liquid for subcutaneous injection.
3. Use the formula: (Ordered dose) / (Available concentration) = (Volume to administer)
In this case: (30mg) / (5mg/ml) = (Volume to administer)
4. Divide the ordered dose by the available concentration: 30mg / 5mg/ml = 6ml
So, you will administer 6ml of Lovenox to the client by subcutaneous injection.
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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis
Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.
The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.
Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.
Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.
Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)
Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.
The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:
The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.
Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.
the 1st phalangy is made up of 2 phalanx
true
false
In Florida, insurance is regulated by how many different parties?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer:
Assuming since this was posted in medicine that this is just for medical insurance. You are looking at 4 parties.
I also assume this question comes from a state-related review guide since this was a question on the study guide before. I remember getting this one correct. The answer is certainly 4.
14. Thomas is 3 months old and weighs 15 lb 6 oz. Thomas is prescribed a medication q6h. The label states that there's 400 mg of the drug in 10 ml
suspension. The recommended dose of the medication for infants is 50 mg/kg/day. How much should Thomas receive per dose?
O A. 1.2 ml
OB. 4.2 mi
O C.3.2 ml
O D. 2.2 ml
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
Dosage
A dosage is the amount of a medicine or drug that someone takes or should take, and how ` they should take it.
1 oz = 0.0283495 kg; also 1 lb = 0.453592 kg.
Hence 15 lb 6 oz = (15 lb * 0.453592 kg/lb) + (6 oz * 0.0283495 kg/oz) = 6.97 kg
Since the dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Hence amount of mg given is:
Amount of mg = 50 mg/kg/day * 6.97 kg = 348.5 mg per day
Each 10 ml contains 400 mg; hence:
ml = 348.5 mg * 10 ml per 400 mg = 8.71 ml per day
Thomas should receive 8.71 ml per day
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what types of food do carnivores, herbivores, and omnivores eat?
Answer:
Herbivores are plant eaters. Carnivores are meat eaters. Omnivores eat plants and meat.
A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. He states that he forgot to depress the event marker when he was having chest pain due to extreme stress at the office, but he wrote this on the daily journal that he kept but forgot to note the time. Will the monitor tape be effective in this case?
Answer: yes
Explanation: it will
Answer:
A patient returns to the medical office after wearing a Holter monitor for 24 hours. The monitor tape is effective in this case because:
While you are gone from the doctor's office, it constantly records the electrical activity of your heart for up to 24 hours. A typical ECG, sometimes known as a "resting" ECG, is one of the most basic and quick diagnostics for evaluating the heart.
Explanation:
The Holter monitor is a type of portable electrocardiogram (ECG).
a nurse is preparing to obtain patient consent for a surgical procedure. which factor indicates the need for the nurse to refrain from obtaining the consent?
In all cases, the nurse should ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the procedure, the risks and benefits involved, and their right to refuse treatment. If any of the above factors are present, the nurse should consult with the patient's healthcare provider and seek guidance on how to proceed.
There are several factors that could indicate the need for a nurse to refrain from obtaining patient consent for a surgical procedure. Some of these factors include:
Lack of capacity: If the patient lacks the capacity to make informed decisions about their care, they may not be able to give valid consent. In such a case, the nurse should consult with the patient's legal representative or next of kin.
Coercion or duress: If the patient is being pressured or coerced into consenting to the procedure, the consent would not be considered valid. The nurse should ensure that the patient is fully informed about the risks and benefits of the procedure and is making the decision voluntarily.
Language barriers: If the patient does not speak the same language as the nurse or if there are communication barriers, obtaining valid consent may be difficult. The nurse should arrange for an interpreter or translator to be present to facilitate communication.
Lack of information: If the patient has not been provided with enough information about the procedure and its risks and benefits, they may not be able to make an informed decision. The nurse should ensure that the patient has access to all the information they need to make a decision.
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all of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for hypoglycemia. The correct answer is option a.
Air polishing is a dental procedure that uses a jet of air, water, and abrasive particles to remove stains and plaque from the teeth.
While it is generally safe and effective, there are certain situations or systemic conditions where air polishing may not be recommended.
Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar, is not directly related to the safety or suitability of air polishing.
Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood glucose levels, and it primarily affects the body's energy metabolism.
It does not have a direct impact on the respiratory system, lung function, or the risk of infection.
On the other hand, conditions such as emphysema, active tuberculosis, and asthma can be contraindications for air polishing.
Emphysema is a chronic lung disease that affects the air sacs in the lungs, impairing breathing and increasing the risk of lung complications.
Active tuberculosis is an infectious disease that primarily affects the lungs, and air polishing may increase the risk of spreading the infection.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and increased sensitivity, and the use of air polishing may trigger asthma symptoms or cause respiratory distress in some individuals.
So, the correct answer is option a. Hypoglycemia.
The complete question is -
All of the following medical conditions are considered contraindications for air polishing except for one. which is the exception?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Emphysema
c. Active tuberculosis
d. Asthma
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