Answer:
writing environmental regulations for businesses and people to follow
Explanation:
Answer:
A
Explanation:
icd10cm code for samantha is being seen today because at approximately 10 a.m. today she experienced a sudden hearing loss in her right ear. examination of the ear is negative for any foreign objects; however, she is not hearing out of that ear. she is being sent for an ent consultation. assessment: sudden idiopathic hearing loss.
H91.21 is the code(s) for this service. The medical classification Unspecified hearing loss, right ear is mentioned by WHO under the range - Diseases of the ear and mastoid process.
ICD-10 code Z01. 10 is a for The medical classification Unspecified hearing loss and medical classification as stated by WHO within the range - Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services.
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name 2 strategies that can be implemented to protect the youth from drug usage
Hey there! I'm happy to help!
1. Education - using programs such as DARE in schools to inform students about the dangers of drugs and how they can be detrimental their lives will greatly discourage drug usage among youth. Having youth commit to being drug free is very empowering and will lead them to want to discourage their peers as well.
2. Drug Testing - many youth might use drugs such as steroids to gain physical advantages with sports. If the education strategy doesn't work, having drug testing for sports will discourage youth to use harmful drugs because if they test positive they will not be able to play on the team they want to.
Have a wonderful day and keep on learning! :D
PLEASE READ THIS!! ITS IMPORTANT!!!
BRAINLY WONT LET ME COMMENT THE SAME COMMENT IN THE PHOTO BUT PLEASE BE CAREFUL AND READ WHAT THE PHOTO SAYS!!!!
Answer:
thxs
Explanation:
4% of Americans see a mental health professional to deal with their stress. True or False
Specifically search for sources that would indicate that early treatment using vitamin D or repurposed low risk drugs such as Hydroxychloroquin/ivermectrin would have been better vectors than big pharma drugs such as monocolonal antibodies, Paxlovoid, or Remesdevir.
It is important to note that scientific studies have not yet definitively established the efficacy of vitamin D or repurposed low-risk drugs such as hydroxychloroquine or ivermectin in the treatment of COVID-19.
While some preliminary studies have suggested potential benefits, more research is needed to fully understand the effects of these treatments. There is also some evidence to suggest that monoclonal antibodies, Paxlovid, and Remdesivir may be effective treatments for COVID-19.
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has granted emergency use authorization for all three treatments based on clinical trial data. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional regarding the best course of treatment for an individual's specific case.
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The nurse observes tooth decay on the lower central incisor of the toddler's mouth whose parent denies giving the child candy. The nurse should inquire about which item that promotes tooth decay in young children? Xylitol sweetened food item Milk Soft water
The nurse should find out if milk is something that helps young children develop tooth decay. It contains sugar, lactose, and the sugar alcohol xylitol, which also serves to prevent tooth decay.
What is the course of action for dental decay?Bacteria in the mouth produce acids that attack the surface of teeth to cause tooth decay (enamel). This could result in a cavity, a little hole in a tooth. Infection, discomfort, and even tooth loss may result from untreated tooth decay.Using the fluoride in toothpaste and other sources, together with the minerals from saliva, enamel can heal itself. More minerals are lost, however, as the tooth decay process progresses.An extraction or filling is typically used to cure decay. An extraction or root canal procedure will be necessary if the decay has spread widely and has gotten near the tooth's nerve. When a tooth needs a filling, the dentist must first remove the decayed area that is diseased.To learn more about tooth decay, refer to:
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BRAINLIEST TO WHO GETS THIS RIGHT
Which of the following are true about ECG machines? Check all of the boxes that apply.
They use electrodes.
They are used to assist doctors in the diagnosis of possible heart problems.
They use magnets to produce images of soft tissues.
They are never used while a patient isexercising.
Which of the following are true about ECG machines?
They use electrodes.
They are used to assist doctors in the diagnosis of possible heart problems.
They use magnets to produce images of soft tissues.
They are never used while a patient isexercising.
An electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) records the electrical signal from your heart to check for different heart conditions. Electrodes are placed on your chest to record your heart's electrical signals, which cause your heart to beat. The signals are shown as waves on an attached computer monitor or printer.
The statements that are true about ECG machines are as follows:
They use electrodes.They are used to assist doctors in the diagnosis of possible heart problems.Thus, the correct options are A and B.
What is an ECG machine?ECG stands for Electrocardiography. ECG machine may be defined as one of the simple and fastest machines that are used to evaluate the heart rate of an individual. It works on the principle of the flow of electrons.
Electrons are positioned at certain spots on the chest, arms, and legs. The electrodes are connected to an ECG machine by lead wires. So, option A is correct.
It is illustrated as electrocardiography of the heart which is a graph of voltage versus time of the electrical activity of the heart using electrodes placed on the skin. So, option B is correct.
Magnetic resonance imaging is a medical imaging technique that utilizes the magnetic field as well as magnets in order to produce an image of the soft tissues. So, option C is incorrect.
The ECG machine is used when the patient is suffering from difficulty in breathing or some serious illnesses.
Therefore, the correct options for this question are A and B.
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what items should be stores in what
categories: pantry and fridge
answers:
cheese
potatoes
almonds
tomato
apple juice
Answer:
Potatoes: placed in a well ventilated container and stored in a dry location
Cheese: stored in a refrigerator as close to the bottom of the appliance as possible
Almonds: tightly sealed container in a cool dry place
Tomatoes: (before ripe place in a cool area) if ripe they should be kept at room temp on a counter away from sunlight
Apple juice: pasteurize it.
Explanation:
Ruby recently saw her psychiatrist, who prescribed her a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor(SSRI). Ruby was most likely diagnosed with
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
E. Acrophobia
Based on the information provided, Ruby was most likely diagnosed with C. Major Depressive Disorder. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed to treat this condition.
The most often prescribed antidepressants are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). They have the ability to lessen the symptoms of moderate to severe depression, are generally safe, and have fewer adverse effects.
By raising serotonin levels in the brain, SSRIs alleviate depression. One of the chemical messengers (neurotransmitters) that send and receive impulses between brain neurons is serotonin.
Serotonin reabsorption (reuptake) into neurons is inhibited by SSRIs. As a result, there is more serotonin accessible, which enhances neural communication. Because they primarily impact serotonin and not other neurotransmitters, SSRIs are referred to as selective.
In addition to treating depression, SSRIs can also be used to treat anxiety disorders.
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Under HIPAA, patients have the right to access, copy, and inspect their own health information.
True
False
Answer: yes With regard to requesting access to records, NSU clinic patients can request to receive a copy of their medical records or billing records. Also, they are allowed to inspect the original records.
during high-intensity sprints, what is the most specific cellular mechanism of fatigue?
The most specific cellular mechanism of fatigue during high-intensity sprints is the depletion of phosphocreatine and accumulation of intramuscular hydrogen ions.
During high-intensity sprints, the muscles require a lot of energy in a short amount of time. The main source of energy for these short bursts of activity is phosphocreatine. However, as the intensity of the exercise increases, the amount of phosphocreatine available decreases. This leads to a decrease in the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the main energy source for muscle contraction.
As the concentration of Pi increases, it interferes with the ability of the muscle cells to contract, leading to reduced force production and fatigue. Additionally, high levels of Pi can inhibit key enzymes in the glycolytic pathway, further contributing to fatigue during high-intensity sprints.
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The table below describes the diet of several organisms that are found in a meadow ecosystem. Diet Organism Songbird Mouse Grasshopper Fox Snake Toad Grasshoppers Seeds Grasshoppers Grass Toads, Mice, Snakes, Grasshoppers Grasshoppers, Mice, Toads Grasshoppers Which food web shows the correct feeding relationships among these organisms?
Grass--> Grasshopper--> Toad--> Fox
Seeds--> Toad--> Mouse--> Fox
Grasshopper--> Songbird--> Mouse--> Toad
Mouse--> Songbird--> Grass--> Snake
Answer:
Grass--> Grasshopper--> Toad--> Fox
Explanation:
need help with health
Answer:
Whatcha need?
Explanation:
What happens if there is too much
glucose and it is not going into the
cells?
A. It is excreted through the urine.
B. It is excreted through sweat.
C. It is excreted through the feces.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
When too much glucose in the body and it isn't going into the cells, it will be excreted through urine. This happens because the body is trying to get rid of the excess glucose by removing it through the kidneys. This will result in the kidneys filtering out more water, which will then lead to polyuria (excessive urine). It's common in diabetics who are going through/have DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis).
please help me
AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
Answer: Im pretty sure its A
Explanation:
Which of this is the health of the mind social health mental health physical health and emotional health
Answer:
Mental health
Explanation:
This is because the word mental has to do with the strength of one's consciousness
In certain situations, simple images can be more effective communication tools than written or verbal instructions.
Explanation:
YesAsk me for further explanationsAnswer:
true
Explanation:
What term describes a severe, whole-body allergic reaction?
O
mucus membrane reaction
O
transparent reaction
epinephrine reaction
anaphylactic reaction
Answer:
The term that describes a severe, whole-body allergic reaction is "anaphylactic reaction."
Explanation:
An anaphylactic reaction is a severe, whole-body allergic reaction that occurs when an individual is exposed to a specific allergen, such as certain foods, medications, insect stings, or latex. The reaction can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure and can lead to serious and potentially life-threatening symptoms, including difficulty breathing, rapid heartbeat, swelling of the face and throat, hives, low blood pressure, and gastrointestinal problems.
Anaphylactic reactions are typically treated with epinephrine (adrenaline) injections, which help to constrict blood vessels, increase blood pressure, and relax airways, allowing the individual to breathe more easily. It is important to seek emergency medical attention immediately if an anaphylactic reaction is suspected, as prompt treatment is essential for a positive outcome.
WHAT ARE TWO KEY INSIGHTS
on the TED Ed what makes a good life? Lessons from the longest study on happiness.
1. Building strong relationships with family, friends, and community is one of the most important components of achieving a good life. 2. A sense of purpose and autonomy in life is essential for happiness, as is having the opportunity to exercise and expressing gratitude.
What is the longest study about happiness?The longest study about happiness is the Harvard Study of Adult Development, which began in 1938 and is still ongoing. The study has followed two cohorts of men over the decades, with the original group of 724 men from the Harvard classes of 1939-1944, and the other group from the inner-city of Boston. The researchers have been tracking the physical and psychological health of the study participants since they were in their 20s, and the study has produced many findings over the years.
The study has found that the happiest men are those who are in positive relationships, have meaningful work, and live a purposeful life. It has also revealed that relationships are more important to happiness than wealth or success. Furthermore, the study has found that those who are able to cope with difficult emotions and stress have better physical and psychological health over time.
Overall, the Harvard Study of Adult Development has provided valuable insights into the factors that contribute to happiness and has helped to provide a better understanding of what it takes to be happy. The study is ongoing and its findings continue to inform how we think about happiness and how to maintain it.
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If the cost of program A is $1,000,000 and the effect is 50,000 lives saved but the cost of program B is $10,000,000 but 250,000 lives saved, then which program is more cost effective?
The cost of program A is $1,000,000 and the effect is 50,000 lives saved is more profitable than program B.
What is profitability?Profitability can be defined as the percentage of remuneration obtained from the amount you invested. Simply put: we can say that it is the return value you will get from an application.
Whit this information, we can conclude that the cost of program A is $1,000,000 and the effect is 50,000 lives saved is more profitable than program B.
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States are responsible for creating healthcare
regulations that deal with which of the following?
Check all that apply.
A. licensing medical professionals
B. protecting the health and safety of patients
C. protecting the rights of healthcare workers
D. preventing hospitals from having strict
E. hygiene standards
Answer:
States are responsible for creating healthcare regulations that deal with which of the following? Check all that apply.
A. licensing medical professionals
B. protecting the health and safety of patients
C. protecting the rights of healthcare workers
Which of the following statements about state regulations is true?
C. States can interpret laws as they see fit for their own population.
Explanation:
Got both answers right in edge
States which are responsible for creating healthcare regulations that deal with the licensing medical professionals, protecting the health and safety of patients, and protecting the rights of healthcare workers. Thus, the correct options are A, B, and C.
What is healthcare regulation?Healthcare regulation is primarily concerned with enabling the patients that access to high quality, safe, and effective medical devices, and also avoiding the access to products which are unsafe primarily. When the regulations are appropriately implemented, regulation ensures the public health benefit and the safety of patients, health care workers, and the community as a whole.
States which are responsible for creating healthcare regulations that deal with licensing of the medical professionals, protecting the health and safety of the patients, and protecting the rights of healthcare workers.
Therefore, the correct options are A, B, and C.
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Blood donors are usually screened for HIV, both for the safety of the blood supply and for the benefit of the donor. The test, called an ELISA, tests positive 97.5% of the time if the donor actually has HIV. If the donor does not have HIV, the ELISA test correctly indicates that the person does not have the disease 92.6% of the time. About 0.2% of college students have HIV. After a blood drive at a college, the lab calls and tells a student that the test has indicated he has HIV. Use what you have learned in this lesson to determine the probability that the student actually has HIV. Because the prevalence of HIV is so small, it may be better to use 100,000 as your total population. A B Considering the answers to questions 1 and 2, should you be more concerned about a positive test for a rare disease or a common disease? Explain your answer.
Answer: To determine the probability that the student actually has HIV, we can use Bayes' theorem. Let A be the event that the student has HIV, and B be the event that the ELISA test indicates that the student has HIV. We want to find P(A|B), the probability that the student actually has HIV given that the test is positive.
From the problem, we are given:
P(B|A) = 0.975, the probability of a positive test given that the student has HIV.
P(B|A') = 0.074, the probability of a positive test given that the student does not have HIV.
P(A) = 0.002, the probability that a college student has HIV.
We can calculate P(A'), the probability that the student does not have HIV, as:
P(A') = 1 - P(A) = 1 - 0.002 = 0.998
Using Bayes' theorem, we have:
P(A|B) = P(B|A) * P(A) / [P(B|A) * P(A) + P(B|A') * P(A')]
Plugging in the values we have:
P(A|B) = 0.975 * 0.002 / [0.975 * 0.002 + 0.074 * 0.998]
= 0.025 / 0.0984
= 0.254
Therefore, the probability that the student actually has HIV given a positive test result is only about 25.4%.
Regarding the second question, we should be more concerned about a positive test for a rare disease. In this case, the prevalence of HIV is only 0.2%, which means that most people who test positive for HIV actually do not have the disease. On the other hand, for a common disease that affects a large proportion of the population, a positive test result is more likely to be accurate. Therefore, a positive test result for a rare disease is more concerning as it may lead to unnecessary treatment and anxiety for the patient.
Kristina has just been hired for a position which is classified as having occupational exposure. Kristina's employer offers to pay for the Hepatitis B vaccination series. Can Kristina decline the vaccination series?
While Kristina's employer is offering to pay for the Hepatitis B vaccination series, it is up to Kristina whether or not she wants to receive the vaccine.
Kristina has just been hired for a position that is classified as having occupational exposure. Kristina's employer has offered to pay for the Hepatitis B vaccination series. The question is whether or not Kristina can refuse the vaccination series. Hepatitis B is a bloodborne disease that can be contracted through needlestick injuries, exposure to infected blood or body fluids, unprotected sex with infected partners, or from an infected mother to her newborn child.Therefore, Kristina, who is in a position with occupational exposure, is at a high risk of contracting the disease, and the vaccine is one of the best ways to protect oneself from the disease. Kristina can, however, refuse the vaccination. There are a variety of reasons why Kristina may decline the vaccination, including religious beliefs, medical concerns, or concerns about the vaccine's safety or effectiveness.In conclusion, while Kristina's employer is offering to pay for the Hepatitis B vaccination series, it is up to Kristina whether or not she wants to receive the vaccine.
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Please answer this I kinda stuck
The nerves that make up the spinal cord carry commands between the __________ and the brain. A. Peripheral nerves B. Spinal nerves C. Motor nerves D. Cranial nerves Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D.
Answer:
The answer would be A. Peripheral Nerves
Explanation: Hope this helps:)
Answer:
A. peripheral nerves
Explanation:
what is the treatment for phencyclidine intoxication? (RCM)
The treatment for phencyclidine intoxication typically involves managing the individual's symptoms, as there is no specific antidote for PCP.
This may include the use of medications to control agitation, anxiety, and psychosis, as well as supportive care such as fluids and nutrition. In severe cases, hospitalization may be necessary for close monitoring and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you suspect someone is experiencing PCP intoxication.
The treatment for phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication involves the following steps:
1. Ensure the patient's safety: Remove the person from any potential harm, such as a dangerous environment or hazardous objects.
2. Monitor vital signs: Keep track of the person's heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate to ensure they remain stable.
3. Provide supportive care: Make sure the person is comfortable and has access to any necessary medical attention, such as oxygen or intravenous fluids if needed.
4. Address agitation or psychosis: If the person is experiencing agitation or hallucinations, they may require sedation with benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, lorazepam, or midazolam, to help calm them down.
5. Treat any complications: Address any other medical issues that may arise as a result of the intoxication, such as seizures, hyperthermia, or electrolyte imbalances.
6. Provide long-term treatment and support: If necessary, refer the person to a substance abuse counselor or support group to help them recover from their addiction and prevent future episodes of intoxication.
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fill in the blank question. the concentrates bile produced by the and stores this concentrate until it is needed for digestion.
The gallbladder concentrates bile produced by the liver and stores this concentrate until it is needed for digestion.
The gallbladder is an organ in the digestive system that stores and concentrates bile, a fluid that helps digest fats. Bile is produced in the liver and transported to the gallbladder for storage. When food containing fat enters the small intestine, hormones signal the gallbladder to release bile into the small intestine. Bile helps to emulsify fats, breaking them down into smaller particles that can be more easily digested by enzymes. The concentration of bile in the gallbladder helps to increase its potency, making it more effective at breaking down fats.
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According to MyPlate guidelines, grains should make up of your plate, fruits should make up of your plate, protein should make up of your plate, and vegetables should make up of your plate. Answer choices for each one: more than 1/4 of our plate about 1/4 of your plate less than 1/4 of your plate
The emblem suggests that half of your plate should be made up of fruits and vegetables, a quarter of whole grains, and a quarter of protein. Low-fat or fat-free dairy products are ideal. You get the most nutrients from the least amount of calories in the perfect diet.
What are proteins?Every organ, tissue, and bodily part of the body has protein, including muscle, bone, skin, and hair. Hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in your blood, and enzymes, which fuel a variety of chemical reactions, are both made of it. You are made up of at least 10,000 different proteins, and they maintain that state.For the human body, proteins are crucial nutrients. They can both act as a fuel source and one of the building components of bodily tissue. Proteins have an energy density of 4 kcal per gram, which is equal to that of carbohydrates. Lipids, on the other hand, have an energy density of 9 kcal per gram.To learn more about protein, refer to:
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He broke his radius and fractured his ulna by falling off a swing but his parents are
concerned that there may be something further wrong with his health because he seems to be prone to
broken bones. As a doctor, what are some concerns of Kyrie’s history and health that concern you
most? What are some tests that you would like to perform? What would you predict as results of these
tests?
Part
As a doctor, what would concern me most about Kyrie’s history and health is to know if any of his parents or siblings has been diagnosed with osteoporosis before.
The test that can be used to diagnose the cause for easy bone fractures are bone density test, Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) and laboratory testing.
My predictions would be a decrease in bone mass which would be a probable cause for Kyrie's none to easily break.
What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a disorder of the skeletal system affecting the bone which results in weakened and fragile bones that are easy to break upon slight stress or fall.
The clinical manifestations of osteoporosis is easy breaking of fracturing of bones therefore for correct diagnosis, a health history and various tests should be carried out.
The tests that cane be used to diagnose osteoporosis include the following:
Bone density test, Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) and Laboratory testing.As a doctor, since this may not be the first fracture that Kyrie has had, there may be every possibility that his bone density is low.
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1. Effective time-management skills include:
A. Scheduling random times for sleeping and eating.
B. Leaving unscheduled time in your schedule to allow for the unexpected.
C. Studying 10 minutes for every hour in class.
D. Filling every minute outside of class with an action activity.
2. Which of the following is the LEAST APPROPRIATE support service that may contribute directly towards completing a class-directed activity?
A. Job Placement Center
B. Learning Resource Center
C. Counseling
D. Library
3. Effective communication involves which of the following:
A. Listening as well as speaking.
B. Using “I” messages.
C. Expressing one’s ideas clearly and thoroughly.
D. All of the above.
4. In become a critical thinker, it is essential to:
A. Rely on stereotypes.
B. Make decisions based on your biases.
C. Not question authority
D. Analyze and communicate our position based on facts.
Answer:B,C,D,D
Explanation: