What is the difference of 8 in the number listed below?
48,567,879
(explanation to)

-1 is less than 0, so you use the first equation:

3(-1) +2 = -3+2 = -1

f(-1) = -1

For 0 use the 2nd equation:

3(0) + 4 = 0+4 = 4

f(0) = 4

For 2 use the 2nd equation:

3(2) + 4 = 6+4 = 10

f(2) = 10

If the coefficient of determination for any data set is equal to 1, then the sample correlation coefficient for that same data set can be either -1 or +1

The coefficient of correlation is the “R” value which is given in the summary table in the Regression output. R square is also called the coefficient of determination. To find the value of R squared, multiply R by R. In other words, the square of the correlation coefficient is the coefficient of determination. The coefficient of determination is a statistical measurement that examines how differences in one variable can be explained by the difference in a second variable when predicting the outcome of a given event.

Given,

Coefficient of determination= 1

∴ Coefficient of correlation = \(\sqrt{1} = +1 or -1\)

To know more about the Coefficient of determination visit: brainly.com/question/28975079

#SPJ4

From the given number line, the variable "m" could take the values of -2, -3.5, 0, and -5

To determine which values the variable "m" could take from the given number line, we need to identify the points or intervals on the number line that correspond to the possible values of "m".

Looking at the number line, we can see the following values:

-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

From this list, the values that "m" could take are:

-2, -3.5, 0, -5

These values are present on the number line, indicating that they are possible values for "m".

Therefore, the variable "m" could take the values -2, -3.5, 0, and -5 from the given number line.

It's important to note that the values -7 and 4 are not present on the number line, so they are not possible values for "m" based on the information provided.

Know more about variable here:

https://brainly.com/question/28248724

#SPJ8

Answer:

$1.26 or $1.27 depending on whether you round up or down. The number in the thousandths is an 8 though

Step-by-step explanation:

You would divide 3.05 by itself to get one pound

and then 3.87 by 3.05. You have to divide both numbers so you get the number for one pound.

3.87÷3.05=1.268852459

Round up or down depending on what your teacher would want you to do so that the decimal is in the hundreths like money.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation is:

Simplify and solve for x to find the zero's:

The solution(s) is (are) the point(s) of intersection of the graph with the x-axis.

To solve the savings plan balance, we have to calculate the interest for 19 months. The formula for calculating interest for compound interest is given below:$$A = P \left(1 + \frac{r}{n} \right)^{nt}$$where A is the amount, P is the principal, r is the rate of interest, t is the time period and n is the number of times interest compounded in a year.

The given interest rate is 11% per annum, which will be converted into monthly rate and then used in the above formula. Therefore, the monthly rate is $r = \frac{11\%}{12} = 0.0091667$.

The monthly payment is $PMT = $250. We need to find out the amount after 19 months. Therefore, we will use the formula of annuity.

$$A = PMT \frac{(1+r)^t - 1}{r}$$where t is the number of months of the plan and PMT is the monthly payment. Putting all the values in the above equation, we get:

$$A = 250 \times \frac{(1 + 0.0091667)^{19} - 1}{0.0091667}$$$$\Rightarrow

A = 250 \times \frac{1.0091667^{19} - 1}{0.0091667}$$$$\Rightarrow

A =250 \times 14.398$$$$\Rightarrow A = 3599.99$$

Therefore, the savings plan balance after 19 months with an APR of 11% and monthly payments of $250 is $3599.99 (approx).

For such more question on months

https://brainly.com/question/5010192

#SPJ8

There exists a point c ∈ [0, 2π], therefore, f(c) =0, Hence cos x = x has at least one solution.

An equation is a combination of different variables, in which two mathematical expressions are equal to each other.

The given equation is,

cos(x) = x    (1)

For the given interval [0, 2π],

By intermediate theorem, for c ∈ [0, 2π], for which f(c) =0

Or we can say that, at x = 0, f(0) = 0

Therefore, cos(x) has at least one solution,  in the interval [0, 2π]

So, given equation cos(x) = x has one solution.

To know more about Equation on:

https://brainly.com/question/187506

#SPJ1

The period of the trigonometric function is -2π/3.

To determine the period of the trigonometric function based on the given information, we need to consider the pattern of the graph and identify the interval over which it repeats.

Given that the maximum point is at (-π, 7.7) and the minimum point is at (-1/3π, -6.7), we can observe that the graph completes one full oscillation between these two points.

The distance between the maximum and minimum points corresponds to half of the period. Therefore, the full period of the function can be found by doubling this distance.

The distance between (-π, 7.7) and (-1/3π, -6.7) can be calculated as follows:

Δx = -1/3π - (-π) = π/3π - π = -π/3

Since the full period is twice this distance, we multiply by 2:

2 * (-π/3) = -2π/3

Learn more on period of trigonometric function here;

https://brainly.com/question/23713359

#SPJ1

The y-intercept of the line of fit is approximately 43.94 fluid ounces.

What is Probability ?

Probability can be defined as ratio of number of favourable outcomes and total number of outcomes.

The answer is 35. If the theoretical probability of drawing two yellow socks is one fifth, then the experimental probability of drawing two yellow socks in one trial with replacement is also one fifth. Therefore, out of 175 trials, the number of times he will select two yellow socks can be predicted by multiplying the number of trials by the experimental probability: 175 * (1/5) = 35.

No, because for each input there is not exactly one output. The relation is not a function because for the input x = -5, there are two possible outputs: y = 1 and y = -1. Therefore, the relation violates the vertical line test, which requires that every vertical line intersects the graph at most once for the relation to be a function.

The y-intercept of the line of fit is approximately 43.94 fluid ounces. To find the y-intercept, we can look at the point where the line of fit intersects the y-axis (i.e., when x = 0). From the equation of the line of fit, we can see that the y-coordinate when x = 0 is approximately 43.94, which represents the initial amount of diet soda in the machine before it starts to be purchased.

Therefore,  The y-intercept of the line of fit is approximately 43.94 fluid ounces.

To learn more about Probability from given link.

https://brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ1

The inequality expression that corresponds to the solution of the inequality graph is x² + 3x - 3 < 0.

option B.

The inequality expression that corresponds to the solution of the inequality graph is determined by simplifying the equations as follows;

The solution of the graph,

x > -4 and x < 1

The first equation with "≥" is ruled out because the graph doesn't have a thick dot.

Let's simplify the second expression;

x² + 3x - 3 < 0

solve using quadratic formula;

x > -3.79 or x < 0.79

The third expression is ruled out since its solution will be complex.

For the last expression;

x² + 3x - 3 > 0

x < -3.79 or x > 0.79

Thus, the correct inequality expression is x² + 3x - 3 < 0.

Learn more about inequality expression here: https://brainly.com/question/25275758

#SPJ1

Answer:

51 or above

Step-by-step explanation:

He already averages more then 78. But he at least needs a 51 in order for him to average 78. For him to get more than that he just needs a 52 or higher.

78 x 5 = 390

95 + 92 + 84 + 68 = 339

339/ 4 = 84.75 ( just to let you know the average before #5 )

390 - 339 = 51

51 is that last score needed

Answer:60x+35x=95x

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that (secx+tanx)² = (cscx+1)/(cscx-1), we will start with the left-hand side (LHS) of the equation and simplify it step by step until it matches the right-hand side (RHS) of the equation.

LHS: (secx+tanx)²

Using the trigonometric identities secx = 1/cosx and tanx = sinx/cosx, we can rewrite the LHS as:

LHS: (1/cosx + sinx/cosx)²

Now, let's find a common denominator and simplify:

LHS: [(1+sinx)/cosx]²

Expanding the squared term, we get:

LHS: (1+sinx)² / cos²x

Next, we will simplify the denominator:

LHS: (1+sinx)² / (1 - sin²x)

Using the Pythagorean identity sin²x + cos²x = 1, we can replace 1 - sin²x with cos²x:

LHS: (1+sinx)² / cos²x

Now, let's simplify the numerator by expanding it:

LHS: (1+2sinx+sin²x) / cos²x

Next, we will simplify the denominator by using the reciprocal identity cos²x = 1/sin²x:

LHS: (1+2sinx+sin²x) / (1/sin²x)

Now, let's simplify further by multiplying the numerator and denominator by sin²x:

LHS: sin²x(1+2sinx+sin²x) / 1

Expanding the numerator, we get:

LHS: (sin²x + 2sin³x + sin⁴x) / 1

Now, let's simplify the numerator by factoring out sin²x:

LHS: sin²x(1 + 2sinx + sin²x) / 1

Using the fact that sin²x = 1 - cos²x, we can rewrite the numerator:

LHS: sin²x(1 + 2sinx + (1-cos²x)) / 1

Simplifying further, we get:

LHS: sin²x(2sinx + 2 - cos²x) / 1

Using the fact that cos²x = 1 - sin²x, we can rewrite the numerator again:

LHS: sin²x(2sinx + 2 - (1-sin²x)) / 1

Simplifying the numerator, we have:

LHS: sin²x(2sinx + 1 + sin²x) / 1

Now, let's simplify the numerator by expanding it:

LHS: (2sin³x + sin²x + sin²x) / 1

LHS: 2sin³x + 2sin²x / 1

Finally, combining like terms, we get:

LHS: 2sin²x(sin x + 1) / 1

Now, let's simplify the RHS of the equation and see if it matches the LHS:

RHS: (cscx+1) / (cscx-1)

Using the reciprocal identity cscx = 1/sinx, we can rewrite the RHS:

RHS: (1/sinx + 1) / (1/sinx - 1)

Multiplying the numerator and denominator by sinx to simplify, we get:

RHS: (1 + sinx) / (1 - sinx)

Now, we can see that the LHS and RHS are equal:

LHS: 2sin²x(sin x + 1) / 1

RHS: (1 + sinx) / (1 - sinx)

Therefore, we have proven that (secx+tanx)² = (cscx+1)/(cscx-1).

For more such questions on prove, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/30831725

#SPJ8

The given passage provides a proof that the Separation Axioms follow from the Replacement Schema.

The proof involves introducing a set F and showing that {a: e X : O(x)} is equal to F (X) for every X. Therefore, the conclusion is that the Separation Axioms can be derived from the Replacement Schema.In the given passage, the author presents a proof that demonstrates a relationship between the Separation Axioms and the Replacement Schema.

The proof involves the introduction of a set F and establishes that the set {a: e X : O(x)} is equivalent to F (X) for any given set X. This implies that the conditions of the Separation Axioms can be satisfied by applying the Replacement Schema. Essentially, the author is showing that the Replacement Schema can be used to derive or prove the Separation Axioms. By providing this proof, the passage establishes a connection between these two concepts in set theory.

Learn more about axioms here:

https://brainly.com/question/2857184

#SPJ8

Solving

Apply the exponent law

Rewrite the equation 2^x = u

then solve u

Therefore:

Answer1: A. the solution set is

Answer2: A. the solution set is

The first multiple of 2 greater than 100 is 102.

\(\therefore\) 102 the first multiple of 2 greater than 100.

First we have to know how to express, mathematically, what is a multiple of 2.

Any number multiplied by 2 is its multiple, that is, they are INFINITE.

If we want a multiple of 2 that exceeds the number 100, it is simple to add 2.

\( \bold{100 \: + \: 2 \: = \boxed{ \bold{102}}}\)

\(\therefore\) 102 the first multiple of 2 greater than 100.

The probability of getting 21, when first card is an ace and the second card is a queen = 0.024133.

The term blackjack means that you get a value of 21 with only two cards.

Number of cards in a deck of cards = 52

There are 4 types of cards in a deck of cards - spades, clubs, hearts, and diamonds, out of which spades and clubs are black in colour.

Given that first card is Ace and second one is a Queen.

Odds of getting an Ace are 4/52, odds of the next being Queen is 16/51.

P(blackjack)=4×16/(52/2).

where P is used for probability .

Probability: Probability is simply how likely something is to happen. Whenever we are unsure about the outcome of an event, we can talk about the probabilities of certain outcomes. The analysis of events governed by probability is called statistics.

Probability of getting an ace followed by a queen card: 4/52 * 16/51 = 0.024133.

To learn more about Probability of blackjack

visit : brainly.in/question/15842745

#SPJ9

Answer:

Can someone please help me on my last question

Sorry bro I’m desperate

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

first one a square , secound a rectangle , third a quadrilateral, fourth a rhombus, fifth is p

Step-by-step explanation:

a.The probability distribution table for the first six attempts is shown below:

X P(X=k)

1 0.44

2 0.56 ×0.44

3 0.56²×0.44

4 0.56³ × 0.44

5 0.56⁴ ×0.44

6 0.56⁵×0.44

b.  the probability is 0.1399.

c. the quarterback can expect to throw about 2.27 passes before completing one.

d. the probability is 0.1865.

e. the probability is 0.7349.

The possibility or chance of an event occurring is measured by probability. The expression is given as a number between 0 and 1, with 0 denoting impossibility and 1 denoting certainty. Compared to occurrences with a probability closer to 0, those with a probability closer to 1 are more likely to occur.

a. To construct a probability distribution table for the number of passes attempted before the quarterback has a completion, we can use the geometric probability distribution, which is given by:

P(X=k) = \((1-p)^{k-1}\)×p

where X is the number of attempts before the completion, p is the probability of completion on each attempt, and k is the number of attempts.

The probability distribution table for the first six attempts is shown below:

X P(X=k)

1 0.44

2 0.56 ×0.44

3 0.56²×0.44

4 0.56³ × 0.44

5 0.56⁴ ×0.44

6 0.56⁵×0.44

b. The probability that the quarterback throws 3 incomplete passes before he has a completion is given by:

P(X=3) = (1-0.44)³⁻¹× 0.44 × (1-0.44)⁰

= 0.56²×0.44

= 0.1399

Therefore, the probability is 0.1399.

c. The expected number of passes that the quarterback can throw before he completes a pass is given by the formula:

E(X) = 1/p

where p is the probability of completion on each attempt.

In this case, p = 0.44, so the expected number of passes is:

E(X) = 1/0.44

= 2.27

Therefore, the quarterback can expect to throw about 2.27 passes before completing one.

d. The probability that it takes more than 5 attempts before the quarterback completes a pass is given by:

P(X > 5) = 1 - P(X <= 5)

= 1 - [P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5)]

= 1 - [0.44 + (0.56 × 0.44) + (0.56² ×0.44) + (0.56³ × 0.44) + (0.56⁴×0.44)]

= 0.1865

Therefore, the probability is 0.1865.

e. If the quarterback throws 8 passes on the opening drive, the probability that he completes at least half of them is given by the binomial probability distribution, which is given by:

P(X ≥ 4) = 1 - P(X < 4)

where X is the number of completed passes and the probability of completion on each attempt is p = 0.44.

Using the binomial probability distribution table or calculator, we can find:

P(X≥4) = 1 - [P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3)]

= 1 - [0.56⁸ + (8× 0.56⁷×0.44) + (28 × 0.56⁶ × 0.44²) + (56× 0.56⁵×0.44³)]

= 0.7349

Therefore, the probability is 0.7349.

To know more about distribution, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31197941

#SPJ1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the limit of (n!)^(1/n) as n approaches infinity, we can use the Stirling's approximation for n!, which is:

n! ≈ (n/e)^n √(2πn)

where e is the mathematical constant e ≈ 2.71828, and π is the mathematical constant pi ≈ 3.14159.

Using this approximation, we can rewrite (n!)^(1/n) as:

(n!)^(1/n) = [(n/e)^n √(2πn)]^(1/n) = (n/e)^(n/n) [√(2πn)]^(1/n)

Taking the limit as n approaches infinity, we have:

lim (n!)^(1/n) = lim (n/e)^(n/n) [√(2πn)]^(1/n)

Using the fact that lim a^(1/n) = 1 as n approaches infinity for any constant a > 0, we can simplify the second term as:

lim [√(2πn)]^(1/n) = 1

For the first term, we can rewrite (n/e)^(n/n) as [1/(e^(1/n))]^n and use the fact that lim a^n = 1 as n approaches infinity for any constant 0 < a < 1. Thus, we have:

lim (n/e)^(n/n) = lim [1/(e^(1/n))]^n = 1

Therefore, combining the two terms, we have:

lim (n!)^(1/n) = lim (n/e)^(n/n) [√(2πn)]^(1/n) = 1 x 1 = 1

Hence, the limit of (n!)^(1/n) as n approaches infinity is 1.

Answer:1

Step-by-step explanation:

Y = mx + b, where m stands for the line's slope and b for the y-intercept, is how the equation for the line is expressed in the slope-intercept form.

= slope

: b = y-intercept

To Learn more About slope-intercept form refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/1884491

#SPJ1

Step-by-step explanation:

2wks = 24 days

If he spent 60days going 127.8 miles

He will spend 14 days going X miles

60/14 =127.8/X cross multiply

60X= 14×127.8

X=( 14×127.8)÷60

X= 29.82 miles

The triangles are represented as isosceles , scalene , right and equilateral triangles

A triangle is a plane figure or polygon with three sides and three angles.

A Triangle has three vertices and the sum of the interior angles add up to 180°

Let the Triangle be ΔABC , such that

∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°

The area of the triangle = ( 1/2 ) x Length x Base

For a right angle triangle

From the Pythagoras Theorem , The hypotenuse² = base² + height²

if a² + b² = c² , it is a right triangle

if a² + b² < c² , it is an obtuse triangle

if a² + b² > c² , it is an acute triangle

Given data ,

Let the triangle be represented as ΔABC

a)

The triangle have two equal angles

It is a scalene triangle

b)

The triangle is a right angle at ∠ABC = 90°

It is a right triangle

c)

The triangle has different lengths

It is a scalene triangle

d)

All the sides and angles are equal

It is an equilateral triangle

e)

The triangle is a right angle at ∠BAC = 90°

It is a right triangle

f)

The triangle has different lengths and different angles

It is a scalene triangle

g)

All the sides and angles are equal

It is an equilateral triangle

h)

The triangle have two equal sides

It is a scalene triangle

Hence , the triangles are solved

To learn more about triangles click :

https://brainly.com/question/16739377

#SPJ1

Answer:

the answer should be 93.9% let know if in wrong

Roberto's science grade as per weighted average is equals to 93.9%.

" Average is defined as the ratio of total of all the given data to the total number of quantities in the data."

Formula used

Weighted average'W' = ( ∑\(w_{i} x_{i}\) ) / ( ∑\(w_{i}\) ) , where i = 1, 2,.... n

W= weighted average

n = number of terms to be averaged

w = weight applied to x values

x = data values to be averaged

According to the question,

Given,

Weight applied to quiz 'w₁' = 25%

Weight applied to homework 'w₂' = 10%

Weight applied to to unit tests 'w₃'= 30%

Weight applied to labs 'w₄' = 35%

Average on quiz Roberto earned 'x₁'= 94%

Average on homework Roberto earned 'x₂'= 94%

Average on unit test Roberto earned 'x₃'= 94%

Average on labs Roberto earned 'x₄' = 94%

Substitute the values in the formula we get,

Weighted average

= [ (25 × 94) +(10× 99) + (30 × 92) +(35 ×94)] / ( 25+10+30+35)

= (2350 +990 + 2760 + 3290) / 100

= 9390 / 100

=93.9%

Hence, Roberto's science grade as per weighted average is equals to 93.9%.

Learn more about weighted average here

https://brainly.com/question/18554478

#SPJ2

The graph that represents the function f(x) = -2sin(x) +37 is graph D

The graph of the function f(x) = -2sin(x) +37 is a sinusoidal wave with an amplitude of 2 and a vertical shift of 37. The negative sign in front of the sine function indicates that the wave is inverted or reflected about the x-axis.

In this graph, the maximum value of the function is 39 (when x = 0) and the minimum value is 35 (when x = π).

In conclusion, the graph that represents the function f(x) = -2sin(x) +37 is graph D

Learn more about graph on

https://brainly.com/question/25184007

#SPJ1

Answer:

Part A: $3,415.50

B: 11.34%

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A: $31,000 is within the values 10,276≤x≤41,175, so use f(x)=0.12x-205.50

Part B: For the effective tax rate, divide the amount in part A by the taxable income

Part C: Compare both the taxable income and the effective tax rate to the income domains given and the % multiplier. This one is mostly about how you describe the situation, so I'll leave that up to you.

To calculate the taxes owed on a taxable income of $31,000, we use the appropriate equation for the tax bracket it falls into and substitute the value of x. The effective tax rate is calculated by dividing the amount of taxes owed by the taxable income and multiplying by 100. The piecewise function represents the marginal tax rate chart by using different equations for each tax bracket.

Part A:

To calculate the amount of taxes owed on a taxable income of $31,000, we need to determine which tax bracket it falls into. Since $31,000 is greater than $10,275 but less than $41,175, it falls into tax bracket 2. To find the amount of taxes owed, we use the equation for tax bracket 2: f(x) = 0.12x - 205.50. Plugging in $31,000 for x, we get:

f(x) = 0.12 * 31000 - 205.50 = $3,574.50

Therefore, the amount of taxes owed on a taxable income of $31,000 is $3,574.50.

Part B:

To determine the effective tax rate, we divide the amount of taxes owed by the taxable income. Using the result from Part A (taxes owed = $3,574.50) and the taxable income of $31,000, we have:

Effective tax rate = (taxes owed / taxable income) * 100 = (3,574.50 / 31,000) * 100 ≈ 11.52%

Therefore, the effective tax rate on a taxable income of $31,000 is approximately 11.52%.

Part C:

The piecewise function represents the amount of taxes owed as a function of the taxable income. Each part of the function corresponds to a different tax bracket, with the equation for that tax bracket. The marginal tax rate chart is represented in the piecewise function by the different equations for each tax bracket. For example, the equation in part 1 of the function (f(x) = 0.10x) corresponds to the 10% marginal tax rate for the tax bracket $0-$10,275.

Learn more about Taxes Calculations here:

https://brainly.com/question/16200743

#SPJ2

The linear relationship illustrated in the provided table can be effectively described by the equation Y = -4x + 2. Option D.

To determine the equation that represents the given table with the values of x and y, we can observe the pattern and find the equation of the line that fits these points.

Given the table:

X: 2 0 4

Y: -4 3 1

We can plot these points on a graph and see that they form a straight line.

Plotting the points (2, -4), (0, 3), and (4, 1), we can see that they lie on a line that has a negative slope.

Based on the given options, we can now evaluate each equation to see which one represents the line:

Y = 1/2x + 5

When we substitute the x-values from the table into this equation, we get the following corresponding y-values: -3, 5, and 6. These values do not match the given table, so this equation does not represent the table.

Y = -1/2x + 3

When we substitute the x-values from the table into this equation, we get the corresponding y-values: 4, 3, and 2. These values also do not match the given table, so this equation does not represent the table.

Y = 2x - 3

When we substitute the x-values from the table into this equation, we get the corresponding y-values: -4, -3, and 5. These values do not match the given table, so this equation does not represent the table.

Y = -4x + 2

When we substitute the x-values from the table into this equation, we get the corresponding y-values: -6, 2, and -14. Interestingly, these values match the y-values in the given table. Therefore, the equation Y = -4x + 2 represents the table.

In conclusion, the equation Y = -4x + 2 represents the linear relationship described by the given table. So Option D is correct.

For more question on equation visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29174899

#SPJ8