What is the purpose of the NJMVC road test?

When an airplane travels 640 miles from Topeka to Houston in 3. 2 hours, going against the wind. The return trip is with the wind and takes only 2 hours. Then the rate of the airplane with no wind is 260 miles/hr, and the rate of the wind is 100 miles/hr

Let Va is the velocity of the airplane

Va is the velocity of the wind

When flying against the wind then

(Va+Vw)*(3.2 hours) = 640

3.2Va + 3.2Vw = 640

3.2Vw = 640 - 3.2Va

Vw = 200 - Va----------------(1)

When flying with the wind:

(Va-V)*(2 hours) = 640km

2Va - 2Vw = 640

Va - Vw = 320 ----------------(2)

Putting the value of VW in equation (2) we get

Va - (200-Va) = 320

2Va = 320 +200

2Va = 520

Va = 260

Putting this value in equation (2)

Vw =Va - 360

Vw = 100

Therefore the rate of the airplane with no wind is 260 miles/hr, and the rate of the wind is 100 miles/hr

Learn more about rates:

https://brainly.com/question/26046491

#SPJ4

Answer:

mass 3.67 kg, density 600 kg/m3) is fitted

with lead (density 1.14 * 10^4 kg/m3) so that it floats in water with

0.900 of its volume submerged. Find the lead mass if the lead is fitted

to the block’s (a) top and (b) bottom.

Answer:

After a nucleus with 85 protons undergoes alpha decay, it has  83 protons.

Explanation:

In an alpha particle there are two protons

In the given substance's nucleus, there are total of 85 protons

After the decay, the proton number reduce

The current proton number after decay is

85 -2 = 83

After a nucleus with 85 protons undergoes alpha decay, it has  83 protons.

The number of protons in this nucleus after it undergoes an alpha decay is 83 protons.

Given the following data:

To determine the number of protons in this nucleus after it undergoes an alpha decay:

The chemical symbol for an alpha particle is:

\(^{4}_{2} \alpha\)

Therefore, we can deduce the following points about an alpha particle:

After an alpha decay:

Protons = \(85-2\)

Protons = 83

Therefore, the number of protons in this nucleus after it undergoes an alpha decay is 83 protons.

Read more: https://brainly.com/question/17438493

The force F1 is equal and opposite to the downward force thus, F1 is equal to 60 N. The force F2 is inclined to 30 ° from leftward force and it is equal to 38.97 N in magnitude.

Force is an external agent acting on a body to deform it or to change its state of motion or rest. Force is a vector quantity and it is characterised by its magnitude and direction.

If two forces acting on a body from the same directions, then the net force will be the sum of these two forces. If they are acting from opposite directions, they will cancel each other in magnitude.

The force F1 is equal and opposite to the force acting downward. Thus its magnitude is 60 N. The force F2 is inclined to 30 ° from horizontal direction.

F2 = 45 cos 30 = 38.9 N.

To find more on force, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/28875770

#SPJ1

If a person exerts a horizontal force of 62 N on the end of a door that is 70 cm wide, the magnitude of the torque can be calculated by multiplying the force by the perpendicular distance between the line of action of the force and the pivot point.

Torque, also known as the moment of force, is the rotational equivalent of force. It is defined as the product of the force applied and the perpendicular distance between the line of action of the force and the pivot point.

In this scenario, the person exerts a horizontal force of 62 N on the end of a door that is 70 cm wide. Since the force is exerted perpendicular to the door, the perpendicular distance between the line of action of the force and the pivot point is equal to the half-width of the door, which is 35 cm or 0.35 m.

To calculate the magnitude of the torque, we can use the formula:

Torque = Force × Perpendicular Distance

Substituting the given values:

Torque = 62 N × 0.35 m = 21.7 N·m

Therefore, the magnitude of the torque exerted when a person applies a horizontal force of 62 N perpendicular to a door that is 70 cm wide is 21.7 N·m.

Learn more about torque here:

https://brainly.com/question/30338175

#SPJ11

Answer:

131 N

Explanation:

F = 82.0 kg x 1.60 m/s^2 = 131.2 N

Answer:

Explanation:

Main Answer:

The equation acceleration = v/time can be proven using the fundamental definitions of acceleration, velocity, and time. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity, and velocity is the rate of change of displacement with respect to time. Let's consider an object moving with an initial velocity v0 and final velocity v in a time interval t.

Explanation:

The change in velocity, Δv, can be calculated as the final velocity minus the initial velocity, Δv = v - v0. Similarly, the change in time, Δt, is the final time minus the initial time, Δt = t - t0.

By substituting these values into the equation for acceleration, we have:

acceleration = Δv/Δt

Now, substituting Δv = v - v0 and Δt = t - t0, we get:

acceleration = (v - v0)/(t - t0)

Since v0 and t0 represent the initial velocity and time, respectively, we can rewrite the equation as:

acceleration = (v - v0)/t

By rearranging the equation, we find:

acceleration = v/t

Thus, we have proved that acceleration is equal to v/time.

Internal Link:

For a similar explanation on Brainly.com, you can visit the following link:

Many astronomers were skeptical about Percival Lowell's claims of Martian canals for several reasons.

First and foremost, the technological limitations of the time made it difficult to obtain clear and detailed observations of Mars. The telescopes available in Lowell's era were not powerful enough to discern fine surface details on the planet, leading to potential misinterpretations.

Furthermore, other astronomers failed to reproduce Lowell's observations and saw no evidence of the linear features he described as canals. They argued that the perceived canals could be optical illusions or artifacts resulting from poor atmospheric conditions or the limitations of the telescopes used.Additionally, advances in understanding Mars and its geology, particularly through space missions and improved telescopes, have provided a wealth of evidence contrary to Lowell's claims. Modern investigations have revealed that Mars does not possess an extensive network of artificial canals but instead exhibits natural features such as valleys, craters, and ancient riverbeds, which can be misinterpreted if not carefully analyzed.Consequently, due to these factors, skepticism prevailed among many astronomers regarding Percival Lowell's claims of Martian canals, and subsequent scientific advancements have provided a more accurate understanding of the Red Planet's surface features.

for such more questions on  astronomers

https://brainly.com/question/29799403

#SPJ8

A block is attached to a spring is oscillating with an amplitude of 10 cm. If its total energy is quadrupled, the amplitude of resultant periodic motion becomes 16 times.

The position of block over time is given by the equation:

x(t) = A cos(ωt + Ф)

where, A is the amplitude

ω is the angular frequency

Ф is the angle

The total energy of the oscillation or periodic motion is stored as the potential energy. It is given by the equation, E = 1/2 * k * x²

where, k is the spring stiffness

Hence, the total energy is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude.

E ∝ A²

which means that, if energy is doubled the resultant amplitude of the periodic motion is 2² of quadrupled.

Similarly, if the total energy is quadrupled, the amplitude will be 4² times or 16 times.

To know more about spring's energy:

https://brainly.com/question/29799063

#SPJ4

Answer:

1)  v = 1.19 m / s , 2)     P₁ = 9.308 10⁴ Pa  

Explanation:

In this exercise we will simulate the emission of urine as a fluid mechanics system

1) they indicate the urine flow rate Q = 0.0060 m³ / s, they also give the diameter of the tube 8.0 cm, they ask us the speed.

   Let's use the continuity equation

            Q = v A

The area of ​​a cycling tube is

            A = π r² = π d² / 4

we substitute

            Q = v π d² / 4

            v = 4Q / π d²

let's calculate

            v = 4 0.006 / (π 0.08²)

            v = 1.19 m / s

2) they ask to find the pressure in the bladder, for this we use the Bernoulli equation, where the index is for the bladder and the index 2 is for the exit point

            P₁ + ½ ρ v₁² + ρ g y₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² + ρ g y₂

in the exercise it indicates that the outlet pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure P₂ = 1,013 10⁵ Pa, the velocity of the liquid in the bladder is v₁ = 0 and the height difference 1.0 m

           P₁ = P₂ + ½ ρ v₂² + ρ g (y₂-y₁)

let's calculate

          P₁ = 1.013₁ 10⁵⁵ + ½ 1000 1.19 + 1000 9.8 (0-1)

          P₁ = 1.013 105 + 595 - 9800

          P₁ = 9.308 10⁴ Pa

Answer:

The time in which the pendulum does a complete revolution is called the period of the pendulum.

Remember that the period of a pendulum is written as:

T = 2*pi*√(L/g)

where:

L = length of the pendulum

pi = 3.14

g = 9.8 m/s^2

Here we know that  L = 14.4m

Then the period of the pendulum will be:

T = 2*3.14*√(14.4m/9.8m/s^2) = 7.61s

So one complete oscillation takes 7.61 seconds.

We know that the pendulum starts moving at 8:00 am

We want to know 12:00 noon, which is four hours after the pendulum starts moving.

So, we want to know how many complete oscillations happen in a timelapse of 4 hours.

Each oscillation takes 7.61 seconds.

The total number of oscillations will be the quotient between the total time (4 hours) and the period.

First we need to write both of these in the same units, we know that 1 hour = 3600 seconds

then:

4 hours = 4*(3600 seconds) = 14,400 s

The total number of oscillations in that time frame is:

N = 14,400s/7.61s = 1,892.25

Rounding to the next whole number, we have:

N = 1,892

The pendulum does 1,892 oscillations between 8:00 am and 12:00 noon.

Answer:

63.2N

Explanation:

\(Solution,\\\\Mass(m)=39.5kg\\\\\\Gravity(g)=1.6m/s^{2} \\Now,\\\\Weight -on- moon=m*g=39.5*1.6m/s^{2} =63.2N\)

The point on the y-axis where the magnetic field is zero can be determined by applying Ampere's law, which states that the sum of the magnetic field contributions from currents passing through a closed loop is proportional to the total current passing through the loop.

In this case, we have two wires carrying currents in opposite directions. The magnetic field at a point on the y-axis due to each wire can be calculated using the formula:

B = (μ0 / 2π) * (I / r),

where B is the magnetic field, μ0 is the permeability of free space (4π × 10^(-7) T·m/A), I is the current, and r is the distance from the wire to the point of interest.

Let's consider a point on the y-axis at a distance y from the x-axis. The magnetic field contributions from the two wires can be calculated as follows:

B1 = (μ0 / 2π) * (i1 / r1) = (4π × 10^(-7) T·m/A / 2π) * (45 A / r1),

B2 = (μ0 / 2π) * (i2 / r2) = (4π × 10^(-7) T·m/A / 2π) * (35 A / r2),

where r1 is the distance between the first wire and the point on the y-axis, and r2 is the distance between the second wire and the same point on the y-axis.

To find the point on the y-axis where the magnetic field is zero, we set B1 + B2 = 0 and solve for y:

(4π × 10^(-7) T·m/A / 2π) * (45 A / r1) + (4π × 10^(-7) T·m/A / 2π) * (35 A / r2) = 0.

Simplifying the equation, we have:

(45 A / r1) + (35 A / r2) = 0.

From this equation, we can see that for the magnetic field to be zero, the sum of the magnetic field contributions from the two wires must cancel each other out. The specific value of y where this occurs depends on the values of r1 and r2, which are the distances from the wires to the point on the y-axis.

Given that y1 = 2 cm and y2 = 11 cm, we can calculate r1 and r2 as follows:

r1 = √((x^2 + y1^2)) = √((0^2 + 0.02^2)) ≈ 0.02 m,

r2 = √((x^2 + y2^2)) = √((0^2 + 0.11^2)) ≈ 0.11 m.

Now, substituting these values into the equation above, we have:

(45 A / 0.02 m) + (35 A / 0.11 m) = 0.

Simplifying further, we find:

2250 A/m + 318.18 A/m = 0,

2570.18 A/m = 0.

Since it is not possible for the sum of positive values to equal zero, there is no point on the y-axis where the magnetic field is exactly zero in this scenario.

Learn more about magnetic field here:

https://brainly.com/question/19542022

#SPJ11

Potential V at the other end of the copper wire is 4.82 V.

The resistance of a wire is given by the formula: R = ρL/A

Using the given values:

R = (1.68 x 10^-8 Ωm) x (8 x 10^-3 m) / (0.2 x 10^-6 m^2) = 0.672 Ω

The potential difference (voltage) at the end of the wire can be calculated using Ohm's law: V = IR

I = V/R = 12 V / 1.672 Ω = 7.18 A

Substituting this value of current and the calculated resistance into Ohm's law gives:

V = IR = (7.18 A) x (0.672 Ω) = 4.82 V

Therefore, the potential at the other end of the copper wire is 4.82 V.

To know more about Ohm's law , here

brainly.com/question/1247379

#SPJ4

(a) The power required for the car to climb the hill at a steady speed is 15.56 kW.

(b) The power required for the car to climb the hill at a changing speed is  19.44 kW.

The power required for the car the move the incline is calculated as follows;

When the speed is steady, the average speed is calculated as;

v = ( 80km/h + 80 km/h) / 2 = 80 km/h = 22.22 m/s

P = Fv

where;

P = ( 700 N x 22.22 m/s )

P = 15,555.56 W = 15.56 kW

When the speed changes from 90 km/h to 110 km/h, the average speed is calculated as;

v = ( 90 km/h + 110 km/h ) / 2 = 100 km/h = 27.78 m/s

P = ( 700 N x 27,78 m/s )

P = 19,444.44 W = 19.44 kW

Learn more about power here: https://brainly.com/question/1634438

#SPJ1

The position of the particle at t = 10 seconds is approximately 〈1.491, 30〉 meters after all velocity and acceleration calculations.

There is a particle moving in the xy-plane, whose position can be represented as 〈x(t),y(t)〉=〈sin(2t),t^2−t〉 for 0 ≤ t ≤ 8 seconds. We can find its velocity and acceleration vectors using this position vector.

At t = 8 seconds, the particle starts moving in a straight line with the same velocity vector as it had at that time. Therefore, for t ≥ 8 seconds, we can find the position vector of the particle.

To find the position of the particle at t = 10 seconds, we need to substitute t = 10 in the equation of position vector for t ≥ 8 seconds. The position of the particle at t = 10 seconds is approximately 〈1.491, 30〉 meters.

Learn more about acceleration:

https://brainly.com/question/30660316

#SPJ4

The distance to the star, in parsecs, is 30 pc.

The distance to the star, in light years, can be calculated using the conversion factor of 3.26 light years per parsec. Therefore, the distance to the star in light years is approximately 97.8 light years.

The distance to a star can be determined using its measured parallax angle. Parallax is the apparent shift in the position of an object when viewed from two different points. It is measured in units of arc seconds.

The formula to calculate the distance to a star in parsecs is:

Distance (in pc) = 1 / Parallax (in arc sec)

Given that the measured parallax is 1/30 of an arc second, we can substitute this value into the formula:

Distance (in pc) = 1 / (1/30) = 30 pc

This gives us the distance to the star in parsecs.

To convert the distance to light years, we use the conversion factor of 3.26 light years per parsec. Multiplying the distance in parsecs by this conversion factor gives us the distance in light years:

Distance (in light years) = 30 pc × 3.26 light years/pc = 97.8 light years

Therefore, the distance to the star is approximately 30 parsecs or 97.8 light years.

Learn more about Parallax here:

https://brainly.com/question/29210252

#SPJ11

A person standing on the roof of a building drops a 0. 125 Kg ball on the ground. A child on eight floor saw the ball passing with a speed of 33. 1 m/s. There are total eight floor in the building and he kinetic energy of the ball just before it hit the ground was 62.0 J.

To determine the total number of floors in the building, we can first calculate the distance the ball traveled before the child on the eighth floor saw it. We know that the ball was dropped from rest and the speed at which it was observed on the eighth floor was 33.1 m/s. We can use the equation for free fall:

\(h = (1/2)gt^2\)

Where h is the distance fallen, g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s^2), and t is the time taken to fall. Rearranging the equation to solve for t, we get:

\(t = sqrt(2h/g)\)

Plugging in the height of the eighth floor (8 x 8 = 64 m), we get t = 3.2 s. This is the time taken for the ball to fall from the roof to the eighth floor.

To determine the total number of floors, we can use the height of the first floor (12 m) and the time taken for the ball to reach the ground from the eighth floor (t = 3.2 s). The distance traveled in this time can be found using the equation for constant acceleration:

\(d = vt + (1/2)at^2\)

Where d is the distance traveled, v is the initial velocity (which is zero in this case), a is the acceleration due to gravity (-9.8 m/s^2), and t is the time taken. Plugging in the values, we get:

d = 12 + 8(n-1) = 12 + 8n - 8 = 8n + 4

(Where n is the number of floors between the first and eighth floor)

Setting this equal to the distance traveled by the ball in 3.2 s (64 m), we get:

8n + 4 = 64

Solving for n, we get n = 7.5. Since we cannot have a fraction of a floor, we can round up to 8 floors. Therefore, the total number of floors in the building is 8.

To determine the speed of the ball just before it hit the ground, we can use the equation for free fall:

\(v^2 = u^2 + 2gh\)

Where v is the final velocity (which we want to find), u is the initial velocity (which is zero), g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s^2), and h is the height from which the ball was dropped (which we assume to be the height of the building). Plugging in the values, we get:

v = sqrt(2gh) = sqrt(2 x 9.8 x 8 x 8) = 31.4 m/s

Therefore, the ball was falling at a speed of 31.4 m/s just before it hit the ground.

To determine the kinetic energy of the ball just before it hit the ground, we can use the equation:

\(KE = (1/2)mv^2\)

Where KE is the kinetic energy, m is the mass of the ball (0.125 kg), and v is the speed just before it hit the ground (31.4 m/s). Plugging in the values, we get:

\(KE = (1/2) x 0.125 x 31.4^2 = 62.0 J\)

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the ball just before it hit the ground was 62.0 J.

Learn more about kinetic energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11

Answer:

the volume of the cone is \(4778.36 cm^3\)

Explanation:

The computation of the volume of the cone is shown below:

As we know that

The Volume of the cone is

r denotes the radius

And, h denotes the height

So,

\(= \frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 h \\\\= \frac{1}{3} \times 3.14 \times 13^2 \times 27\\\\= 4778.36 cm^3\)

Hence, the volume of the cone is \(4778.36 cm^3\)

The reason galaxies that are distant from our galaxy move away from our galaxy more rapidly is more space expands between us and distant galaxies.

A galaxy is a group of millions of stars and their systems that are grouped due to gravitational forces.

According to the Big Bang theory, galaxies are expanding and separate among them.

In conclusion, the reason galaxies that are distant from our galaxy move away from our galaxy more rapidly is more space expands between us and distant galaxies.

Learn more about galaxies here:

https://brainly.com/question/13956361

#SPJ12

Answer:

the galaxies are moving as the universe keep expanding .

Explanation:

Answer:

E' = Qa/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

Explanation:

Since the non-conducting plate is symmetric, a small charge element dq generates an electric field dE at a distance R from itself and a distance z above the center of the plate. Since the plate is symmetric, we only have the vertical component of the electric field acting at the center so dE' = dEcosθ where θ is the angle between R and the plate.

So, dE' = dEcosθ = dqcosθ/4πεR²

Let σ represent the surface charge density of the plate. So, for a small elemental area dA, dq = σdA.

Substituting this into dE' we have

dE' = σdAcosθ/4πεR²

Also cosθ = a/R where a is half the length of side of the plate of side length, 2a.

So, dE' = σdAa/4πεR³

Also R² = a² + z²

R = √(a² + z²)

So,  dE' = σdAa/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

Now, dA = dxdy

dE' = σadxdy/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

So, the total electric field at z is obtain by integrating dE'

E' = ∫dE' = ∫σadxdy/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³ = σa∫dxdy/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

We integrate dx and dy from -a to a.

So,

E' = σa[2a][2a]/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

E' = σa³/πε[√(a² + z²)]³

Since the total chare Q = σA where A is the are of the plate. A = (2a)² = 4a²

Q = σA = 4σa²

σ = Q/4a²

substituting σ into E', we have

E' = (Q/4a²)a³/πε[√(a² + z²)]³

E' = Qa/4πε[√(a² + z²)]³

The statement "If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in cardiac output" is false.

Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart, mediated by the vagus nerve, primarily decreases the heart rate rather than directly affecting stroke volume. The parasympathetic nervous system releases acetylcholine, which binds to muscarinic receptors on the sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart, causing a decrease in the SA node firing rate and consequently reducing heart rate.

Cardiac output, which is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, will therefore decrease if the heart rate decreases while stroke volume remains constant. However, it's worth noting that parasympathetic stimulation can indirectly affect stroke volume by altering the filling time of the ventricles and influencing preload, but this is not the primary mechanism by which it affects the cardiac output.

If you need to learn more about the heart click here:

https://brainly.com/question/28068485

#SPJ11

Operators must have unobstructed access to a ladder for escape from a trench within a distance of 25 feet.
According to OSHA regulations, operators must have unobstructed access to a ladder for escape from a trench within 25 feet. So, the correct answer is c 25 feet.

According to OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration, employers must provide ladders, steps, ramps, or other safe means of egress for workers working in trench excavations 4 feet 1.22 meters or deeper1. The means of egress must be located so as not to require workers to travel more than 25 feet 7.62 meters laterally within the trench1. Therefore, the answer is c 25 feet. Operators must have unobstructed access to a ladder for escape from a trench within 25 feet. So, the correct answer is c 25 feet

learn more about unobstructed here

https://brainly.com/question/4335923

#SPJ11

Answer:

Explanation:

Hey there!!!, there are no attached files/graphs to this question, but we can find our way and solve for the gravitational force acting on the mass

Step one:

given data

mass= 10kg

acceleration due to gravity= 9.81m/s^2

Step two:

The expression for the gravitation force is given as

Gravitational force F=mass * acceleration due to gravity

Fg=ma

substituting we have

Fg=10*9.81

Fg=98.1N

The force due to gravity exerted on the object is most nearly 100N

Answer:

tough

Explanation:

This phenomenon is caused by the refraction of light as it passes from one medium (air) to another (water).

Light refraction breaks the stick where it reaches the water. Light refracts when it goes from air to water. Light changes speed and direction when it flows from air to water. Refraction causes this alteration. The angle light enters the water determines refraction.

In this situation, the stick appears to move because light rays from the submerged section bend or refract as they transit from water to air. This optical illusion makes the stick look shattered at the water's surface.

Light refraction at the air-water contact makes the stick seem shattered.

Learn more about refraction, here:

https://brainly.com/question/32684646

#SPJ4

The resulting sound pulses per second can be determined by finding the least common multiple (LCM) of the frequencies of the two tuning forks, 440 and 444.

The frequencies of the two tuning forks are given as 440 and 444. To find the number of times the resulting sound pulses per second, we need to find the LCM of these frequencies.

The LCM is the smallest positive integer that is divisible by both 440 and 444 without leaving a remainder. To find the LCM, we can prime factorize both numbers.

440 can be written as 2^3 * 5 * 11, and 444 can be written as 2^2 * 3 * 37.

To find the LCM, we take the highest power of each prime factor that appears in either number: 2^3 * 3 * 5 * 11 * 37.

Learn more about pulses here;

https://brainly.com/question/26701631

#SPJ11

When you change the thickness of the wire in a circuit, option B. the resistance (R) and current (I) will also change, but the voltage (V) will remain constant.

The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area (thickness). As the thickness of the wire changes, the cross-sectional area changes, which in turn affects the resistance. Thicker wires have a larger cross-sectional area, resulting in lower resistance, while thinner wires have a smaller cross-sectional area, resulting in higher resistance. Therefore, changing the thickness of the wire will cause a change in resistance.

According to Ohm's Law (V = IR), the voltage (V) in a circuit is equal to the product of the current (I) and the resistance (R). If the voltage is kept constant, and the resistance changes due to the thickness of the wire, the current will also change to maintain the relationship defined by Ohm's Law. When the resistance increases, the current decreases, and vice versa.

However, it's important to note that changing the thickness of the wire will not directly affect the voltage. The voltage in a circuit is determined by the power source or the potential difference applied across the circuit and is independent of the wire thickness. As long as the voltage source remains constant, the voltage across the circuit will remain constant regardless of the wire thickness. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

know more about current here:

https://brainly.com/question/1100341

#SPJ8