The statement that is true when comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI) d. Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not because nitroglycerin does not have an effect on the coronary artery being blocked.
Angina and myocardial infarction (MI) are both types of coronary heart disease (CHD) that result from reduced blood flow to the heart due to the narrowing or blockage of coronary arteries.
Angina often occurs with physical exertion or emotional stress, and typically resolves with rest and/or the use of nitroglycerin.
In contrast, MI occurs when a coronary artery is completely blocked, and the resulting tissue damage is not reversible with rest or medication. Hence, MI pain cannot be relieved with nitroglycerin.
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stage three of the general adaptation syndrome is resistance. TRUE/FALSE
The given statement, stage three of the general adaptation syndrome is resistance is True.
Resistance is the third stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) and is characterized by the body preparing itself to cope with the stressor and is driven to adapt to the stress in order to reach homeostasis. During the resistance stage, the body mobilizes its resources in order to cope with the stress.
It utilizes the Fight-or-Flight response, and any adaptation that has taken place is strengthened. Humoral and cellular immunity is increased, hormones are released to optimize the body for this stage, and the endocrine, hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal, and nervous system gear up to fight the stressor.
The purpose of resistance is to endure the stressor, so that the body can eventually restore itself to normal. Without resistance, the effects of the stressor are more likely to be more severe and may lead to damage to body parts and organs.
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Given a Tidal Volume of 500 ml, a Residual Volume of 800 ml, an Inspiratory Reserve Volume of 1900 ml, and an Expiratory Capacity of 700 ml, calculate the following volumes. Don't forget units!
1. Inspiratory Capacity.
2. Expiratory Reserve Volume.
3. Functional Residual Capacity.
4. What is the vital capacity of a 22 year old female who is 168cm tall?
The vital capacity for a 22-year-old female who is 168 cm tall cannot be accurately estimated based on height alone. The average vital capacity for an adult female is typically in the range of 3-4 liters (3000-4000 ml).
Inspiratory Capacity: Inspiratory Capacity (IC) is the maximum amount of air a person can inhale after a normal exhalation. It can be calculated by adding the Tidal Volume (TV) and the Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV).
IC = TV + IRV
= 500 ml + 1900 ml
= 2400 ml
Therefore, the Inspiratory Capacity is 2400 ml.
Expiratory Reserve Volume: Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is the maximum amount of air a person can forcefully exhale after a normal exhalation. It can be calculated by subtracting the Tidal Volume (TV) and the Expiratory Capacity (EC) from the Functional Residual Capacity (FRC).
ERV = FRC - (TV + EC)
= (Residual Volume + Expiratory Capacity) - (Tidal Volume + Expiratory Capacity)
= (800 ml + 700 ml) - (500 ml + 700 ml)
= 1500 ml - 1200 ml
= 300 ml
Therefore, the Expiratory Reserve Volume is 300 ml.
Functional Residual Capacity: Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) is the volume of air present in the lungs after a normal exhalation. It can be calculated by adding the Residual Volume (RV) and the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV).
FRC = RV + ERV
= 800 ml + 300 ml
= 1100 ml
Therefore, the Functional Residual Capacity is 1100 ml.
Vital Capacity for a 22-year-old female who is 168 cm tall:
Vital Capacity (VC) is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after a maximum inhalation. It varies depending on factors such as age, gender, and height. The average vital capacity for an adult female is around 3-4 liters (3000-4000 ml).
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Total parenteral nutrition (tpn) 1 liter every 12 hours is prescribed for a malnourished client. What is most important for the nurse to monitor?
The most important thing for the nurse to monitor when a malnourished client is prescribed total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the client's vital signs and fluid balance.
Vital signs: The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and temperature. TPN administration can sometimes cause electrolyte imbalances, infection, or other complications that may affect the client's vital signs. Any significant changes in vital signs should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider.
Fluid balance: TPN provides essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream, and it is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is receiving the prescribed amount of TPN without any fluid overload or dehydration. The nurse should monitor the client's intake and output, including urine output, to assess the fluid balance. Any signs of fluid overload, such as edema or shortness of breath .
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Which spinal plexus gives rise to the phrenic nerve, and what organ does this nerve supply?.
Why does phrenic nerve supply diaphragm?
The C3-C5 spinal nerves in the neck give rise to the phrenic nerve, a mixed motor and sensory nerve. The diaphragm, the main muscle of respiration, is exclusively controlled by the nerve, making it essential for breathing.What organ does this nerve supply?.
The jejunum receives both intrinsic and extrinsic nerve supply. The preganglionic parasympathetic and postganglionic sympathetic branches of the celiac plexus provide the autonomic extrinsic supply. These neurons go via branches of the major vessels from the mesentery into the jejunum.What are the 4 types of nerves?
It is conventional, however, to describe nerve types on the basis of their function: motor, sensory, autonomic or cranial.
Motor Nerves. Sensory Nerves.Autonomic Nerves. Cranial Nerves.Learn more about phrenic nerve
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A patient is to take 4 g of amoxicillin prior to dental work. If the pharmacy carries 200 mg capsules, how many will the patient take?
Answer:
Explanation:
200mg x 5 tabs = 1000mg or 1 gram
need need 20 pills 1 gram = 5 tabs
5 tabs x 4 =20 tabs
What is one type of white blood cell that participates in the specific immune response?.
Answer:
T and B lymphocytes are the two main types of immune cells found in in both the lymph tissue and in blood. But I'm not sure wether these immune cells are specifically white blood cells...
Answer: Natrual killer t cell since its in the adaptive response and not the innate response.
Explanation:
What is Andrew Carnegie most well known for? mechanizing every stage of textile production creating the largest, most powerful companies the world had seen founding one of the world’s first modern research laboratories patenting more than one thousand inventions
Answer:
He is mostly well known for, making contributions in steel manufacturing
Explanation: hope this helped a little :P
under the provisions of the affordable care act, college students may be covered by their parents' health insurance plan if they are younger than age ____.
Under the provisions of the Affordable Care Act (ACA), college students may be covered by their parents' health insurance plan if they are younger than age **26**.
The ACA extended the age of dependent coverage for health insurance plans, allowing young adults to remain on their parents' insurance plans until they reach the age of 26. This provision provides a means of insurance coverage for college students who may not have access to employer-sponsored health insurance or their own individual plans.
It's important to note that this provision applies to most health insurance plans, including job-based plans and individual plans, but there may be certain exceptions or variations depending on specific circumstances or state regulations. It is recommended to review the terms and conditions of the insurance plan in question to determine the exact age eligibility and coverage details.
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Calcium regulation occurs in:
a.) Compact Bone
b.) Spongy Bone
c.) Medullary Cavity
d.) Periosteum
Answer:
I think it'smedullary cavity
Answer:
C
Explanation:
it is what it is
a client has been treated for shock and is now at risk for which secondary but life-threatening complications? select all that apply.
A client has been treated for shock and is now at risk for which secondary but life-threatening complications. So here we can apply following:-kidney failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and acute respiratory distress syndrome.
What does it mean if your kidneys stop functioning?
Your kidneys lose their ability to do these tasks due to renal failure, which causes various health issues to manifest. Following your treatment plan can help you avoid or treat the majority of these symptoms when your kidney function declines.
What symptoms and indicators are present in acute renal failure?
Leg swelling, exhaustion, nausea, loss of appetite, and confusion are just a few symptoms that may appear. Uremia elevated blood potassium levels, and volume overload is complications of both acute and chronic failure.
Why does chronic renal failure occur?
Chronic renal failure has other, less typical causes, like renal polycystic disease Reflux kidney disease (damage caused by urine backflow from the bladder into the ureters and kidney) Chronic kidney disease Alport's illness Nephrotic syndrome renal stones prostate cancer.
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a group of nursing students is reviewing a nurse's practice act. What statements show that teaching has been effective?
The nurses understanding focusing on the important clause will show that the teacher has been effective.
The NPA(Nursing practice act) is the legislation that governs nursing practise in each state and serves as a guide for action. As a result, the NPA has precisely defined terminology and phrases for state boards of nursing to utilise in enforcement. There are phrases that have been devised for politicians and public to grasp.
The boards of the NPA establish criteria by which practitioners are held accountable for delivering safe client care. These criteria are based on professional, ethical, and legal nursing norms. The NPA also guarantees that any practitioner who is the subject of a complaint against their practise has the right to due process. Due process guarantees that the nurse's rights are protected during the disciplinary procedure. This is where the nurses should focus their efforts.
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Are there advantages to implementing both SNOMED CT and ICD-10 in the EHR?
Are there disadvantages to using both?
Yes, there are advantages to implementing both SNOMED CT (Systematized Nomenclature of Medicine—Clinical Terms) and ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision) in the Electronic Health Record (EHR) system.
Advantages:
Comprehensive DocumentationStandardized CodingComplementary InformationDisadvantages:
Complexity and Learning CurveMaintenance and UpdatesIntegration ChallengesComprehensive Documentation: SNOMED CT provides detailed clinical terminology that allows for precise and comprehensive documentation of clinical concepts. It enables capturing rich and specific clinical information, facilitating accurate communication among healthcare professionals, and improving patient care.
Standardized Coding: ICD-10 is widely used for coding diagnoses and procedures in healthcare systems. By integrating ICD-10 into the EHR, healthcare providers can ensure consistent and standardized coding practices, facilitating data exchange, reimbursement, and epidemiological analysis.
Complementary Information: SNOMED CT and ICD-10 have different purposes and complement each other. SNOMED CT focuses on clinical concepts and relationships, providing a more detailed and specific representation of clinical information. ICD-10, on the other hand, focuses on disease classification and coding for statistical and administrative purposes. Using both allows for a comprehensive representation of clinical information while enabling accurate coding and analysis.
Complexity and Learning Curve: Implementing and effectively utilizing both SNOMED CT and ICD-10 can be complex and require additional training for healthcare professionals. It can take time to understand and adapt to the intricacies of each system, potentially impacting workflow efficiency and productivity initially.
Maintenance and Updates: Both SNOMED CT and ICD-10 undergo regular updates and revisions. Keeping up with these updates and ensuring the EHR system remains aligned with the latest versions of both terminologies requires continuous maintenance and resource allocation.
Integration Challenges: Integrating and synchronizing SNOMED CT and ICD-10 within the EHR system may present technical challenges. Ensuring seamless interoperability and mapping between the two systems can be complex and may require additional resources and technical expertise.
Overall, while the advantages of implementing both SNOMED CT and ICD-10 in the EHR include comprehensive documentation, standardized coding, and complementary information, there are also potential disadvantages in terms of complexity, maintenance, and integration challenges. Careful planning, training, and ongoing support are necessary to maximize the benefits of using both terminologies in the EHR.
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment of a patient in labor. what is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
C. Attitude.
The relationship between the various fetal bodily parts is known as attitude. The relationship between the mother's and the fetus' long axes (or spines) is called a lie. The term "presentation" describes the area of a fetus that travels first into the birth canal and into the pelvic inlet during term labor. The position of the fetus refers to how it sits in relation to all four quadrants of a mother's pelvis.
Birth Canal- The route through which bodily fluid leaves when a woman is menstruating. Another name for it is "the birth canal." The upper portion of the uterus is connected by a small, tubular structure called the fallopian tube. The birth canal is made up of the cervix and vagina.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client in labor. What is the appropriate terminology for the relationship of the fetal body parts to one another?
A. Lie
B. Presentation
C. Attitude
D. Position
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Begin a Pitocin infusion at 5 mu/min via IV pump for labor induction. On hand is Pitocin 40units in 1000ml Lactated Ringers. How many ml/hr will the IV run?
Answer:
1005ml
Explanation:
because influsion is 5min and 1000ml lactated ringers
which statement explains correctly the innate or adaptive immune system specificity?
The innate immune system provides a non-specific defense mechanism against a wide range of pathogens and is present from birth.
In contrast, the adaptive immune system is highly specific and develops over time in response to specific pathogens or antigens.
The innate immune system is the first line of defense against pathogens and is present from birth. It provides a non-specific response, meaning it acts against a broad range of pathogens without targeting them specifically. The innate immune system includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components such as natural killer cells, neutrophils, and macrophages. These components recognize conserved patterns on pathogens, known as pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), triggering a rapid response to eliminate the invaders.
On the other hand, the adaptive immune system is highly specific and develops over time in response to specific pathogens or antigens. It consists of specialized cells, such as B cells and T cells, which are responsible for recognizing and eliminating specific pathogens. The adaptive immune response is based on the ability to recognize and remember specific antigens, which are unique molecules on the surface of pathogens. B cells produce antibodies that bind to these antigens, marking the pathogens for destruction, while T cells directly attack infected cells. Importantly, the adaptive immune system has a memory component, allowing it to mount a more efficient and targeted response upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
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morphology of choleric typhoid
The morphological characteristics of typhoid bacteria include rod-shaped and Gram-negative.
What is the typhoid bacterium?Salmonella Typhi bacterium is the pathogen that causes typhoid fever, which is a disease characterized by headaches and loss of appetite.
This bacteria (Salmonella) is rod-shaped and Gram-negative, which means that it does not retain crystal violet during Gram staining.
In conclusion, the morphological characteristics of typhoid bacteria include rod-shaped and Gram-negative.
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is a standard for the interchange of computerized biomedical images and image-related informiton within and between healthcare providers
Yes, there are standards for the interchange of computerized biomedical images and image-related information within and between healthcare providers. These standards are known as DICOM (Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine) standards.
DICOM is a set of protocols and standards for transmitting, storing, and displaying medical images and related information. The DICOM standard is widely used in healthcare facilities and is supported by most medical imaging equipment and software.
DICOM standards define the structure and format of medical images and related information, such as patient demographics and image modality, as well as the protocols for transmitting this information between different systems. This ensures that medical images and related information can be shared and accessed by healthcare providers across different institutions and systems, improving the quality and efficiency of healthcare services.
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Correct Question:
____ is a standard for the interchange of computerized biomedical images and image-related information within and between healthcare providers.
Because the patient seems disoriented, should Theresa even trust what the patient is reporting?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
if the patient is crazy and scared and you see it turthfully and its not a lie yes the doctor theresa trust it if the patient wasnt like why she came then for no use
a 28-year-old g0 woman presents to the office for a health maintenance examination. she is currently on oral contraceptive pills, but reports a history of irregular menses prior to starting them. her past medical history is otherwise non-contributory. on physical examination, she is 5 feet, 2 inches tall, weighs 180 pounds and has a bmi of 32.9 kg/m2. she has an area of velvety, hyperpigmented skin on the back of her neck and under her arms. what is the next
The next step would be to screen for insulin resistance or diabetes by performing fasting blood glucose test
The velvety hyperpigmented skin is a sign of insulin resistance, which indicates that the woman might be at risk for developing diabetes. A 28-year-old g0 woman is visiting the office for a routine health maintenance examination. She is on oral contraceptive pills and has a history of irregular menses. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, the woman has an area of velvety, hyperpigmented skin on the back of her neck and under her arms. This is consistent with acanthosis nigricans, which is frequently associated with insulin resistance. This could suggest that the woman is at risk for developing diabetes, and therefore, further screening tests are required. If the woman is found to have insulin resistance, then lifestyle interventions such as diet and exercise, as well as pharmacological therapy, may be needed to avoid the progression of insulin resistance to diabetes.
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You must always test blood sugar after every meal?
2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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the cause of parkinson's disease is related to reduced levels of the neurotransmitters _____.
The cause of Parkinson's disease is related to reduced levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain.
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a key role in controlling movement and coordination, and its depletion in specific areas of the brain is associated with the characteristic motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
The loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra region of the brain leads to a decrease in dopamine levels, disrupting the normal functioning of the basal ganglia, a group of structures involved in the regulation of movement. This results in the characteristic symptoms of Parkinson's disease, including tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and postural instability.
In addition to dopamine, other neurotransmitters such as norepinephrine, acetylcholine, and serotonin may also be affected in Parkinson's disease, contributing to non-motor symptoms such as cognitive impairment, depression, and sleep disturbances.
While the exact cause of dopamine depletion in Parkinson's disease is not fully understood, it is believed to result from a complex interplay of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors. Treatments for Parkinson's disease aim to alleviate symptoms by increasing dopamine levels in the brain or enhancing the activity of remaining dopamine-producing neurons.
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What is the maximum temperature deli meats should be
stored at?
Answer:
40 degrees Fahrenheit
Explanation:
The cell theory is the result of the hypothesis and observation of one person.
1. True
2. False
15. Order: oxacillin sodium 0.25 g p.o.q.8h
Supply: oxacillin sodium oral suspension 125 mg per 2.5 mL
Give:____ t
Explanation:
To determine the number of teaspoons (t) needed for the prescription, we need to calculate the dosage conversion from grams to milligrams and then to teaspoons.
Given:
- Oxacillin sodium oral suspension: 125 mg per 2.5 mL
First, let's convert the dosage from grams to milligrams:
0.25 g = 250 mg
Now, let's find out how many milliliters (mL) are needed for the prescription:
250 mg = 2.5 mL
Since the prescription calls for 2.5 mL of the suspension, we can now determine the number of teaspoons needed.
1 teaspoon (t) is approximately equal to 5 mL.
Therefore, the calculation is as follows:
2.5 mL ÷ 5 mL/t = 0.5 t
So, the prescription requires 0.5 teaspoons (t) of oxacillin sodium oral suspension.
bob is a telemarketer so spent a large amount of his day sitting. however, bob is also a high level marathon runner so he gets a high volume of moderate to high intensity exercise. does this type of lifestyle help him lower his risk of mortality?
Yes, this type of lifestyle helps him lower his risk of mortality.
A healthy lifestyle is one that assists people in maintaining and improving their health and well-being while simultaneously dealing with stress. Many governments and non-governmental groups are working to promote healthy living. Healthy living has a long-term impact. Healthy nutrition, physical activity, weight control, and stress management are all part of being healthy.
A balanced diet is part of a healthy lifestyle. This does not imply eliminating vital food categories from your diet or lowering your daily calorie intake. A well-balanced diet includes foods from all food categories at each meal. Meats, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables are all key components of a balanced diet.
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____ penicillin kills bacteria was discovered in 1928 by Alexander Fleming.
a.what
b.that
c.who
d.which
e.when
Discuss the physiology of the respiratory system, and explain the process of ventilation. (Be Specific)\
Physiology of the respiratory system is a follows:-
As a person inhales, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward. The space left in the chest allows the lungs to expand. Muscles in the ribs also help enlarge the chest cavity, pulling the rib cage upward and outward.Once the lungs expand, air moves in through the nose and mouth.The air travels down the trachea and into the lungs, allowing a person to breathe.The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs before exhalation. When a person exhales, the diaphragm relaxes, the lungs recoil, and the air moves out of the lungs.Ventilation is commonly referred to as breathing.
It is the process of air flowing into the lungs during inspiration and out of the lungs during expiration.The air moves through the passages because of pressure gradients that are produced by contraction of the diaphragm and thoracic muscles.Individual alveoli have variable degrees of ventilation and perfusion in different regions of the lungs.To know more about respiration here
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Discuss the advantage of the tuberculin blood test over the two-step tst.
The tuberculin blood test, also known as the interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA), is a diagnostic test for tuberculosis (TB) infection that has several advantages over the traditional two-step tuberculin skin test (TST).
What is the test?The tuberculin blood test has several advantages over the two-step TST, including higher specificity, no booster effect, faster results, no need for a return visit, and less subjectivity in interpretation. However, it is important to note that both tests have limitations and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools to accurately diagnose TB infection.
The interpretation of the TST is subjective and depends on the healthcare provider's expertise in reading and measuring the size of the reaction. The tuberculin blood test provides a quantitative measurement of the interferon-gamma release, making it less subjective and easier to interpret.
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what are the three categories of hospital laundry
Answer:
The handling of soiled, foul and infected linen at hospitals
Linen is normally classified into main three categories: Soiled linen: normal used linen. Foul linen: linen requiring sluicing before laundering (such as babies' nappies) Infected linen: linen that may require sluicing and disinfection before final laundering