When two different alleles are inherited together, the one that is expressed is called
Phenotypic
Recessive
O Dominant
o Superior
Answers
Answer:
The dominant trait is the trait that will be expressed
Related Questions
Many plants that grow on land store energy in the form of starch. When the plants need energy, the molecules of starch can be broken down into monosaccharides. What type of biomolecule is starch?.
Answers
Starch is a polysaccharide biomolecule.
What are Biomolecules?Biomolecules are the most essential organic molecules, which are involved in the maintenance and metabolic processes of living organisms. They range from small molecules such as primary and secondary metabolites and hormones to large macromolecules like proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids etc.
Starch is a polysaccharide \((C_{6} H_{5} O_{10} )_n\) consisting of a large number of glucose monomers joined together by glycosidic bonds. It belongs to a group of carbohydrates, which are organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, usually in the ratio of 1:2:1. Carbohydrates are one of the major classes of biomolecules.
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Why is only 10% of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next?
Answers
Answer:
The amount of energy at each trophic level decreases as it moves through an ecosystem. As little as 10 percent of the energy at any trophic level is transferred to the next level; the rest is lost largely through metabolic processes as heat.
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____________ is often criticized by both heterosexuals and lesbian/gay individuals as indicating promiscuity, indecisiveness, or immaturity.
Answers
Bisexual is often criticized by both heterosexuals and lesbian/gay individuals as indicating promiscuity, indecisiveness, or immaturity.
What's the reason behind bisexuality?
The word "bisexual" refers to a person who has emotional, romantic, and/or sexual feelings for, or participates in potential romantic relationships with, people of more than one sexuality or gender.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1.3 per cent of women and 1.9 per cent of men identified as "homosexual, gay, or lesbian," while 5.5 per cent of women and 2 per cent of men identified as bisexual. According to these studies, bisexual persons may be the biggest single category in the LGB population for both men and women.Nonetheless, many people assume that bisexuality does not exist, and bisexual persons face bi-invisibility, erasure, and bi-negativity from both the lesbian, gay, and straight communities.Learn more about bisexuals here,
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Define and give examples of qualitative and quantitative observations 
Answers
Quantitative observations, on the other hand, are observations that measure the quantity or amount of something. Examples of quantitative observations include measuring the temperature of a room, counting the number of apples in a basket, or weighing a bag of flour. These observations involve using numbers to describe the observations, rather than simply describing the qualities of the thing being observed.
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Which of the following term does NOT involve multiple loci. a. Complex traits b. Independent assortment c. Haplotype Recombinant d. Random segregation Trisomy 21. Robertsonian translocation and PKU syndrome are three human phenotypes due to DNA changes in different scales. Which of the following shows the order of DNA alterations, in large to small scales, that cause these phenotypes? a. Robertsonian translocation > trisomy 21 PKU syndrome
b. None of other answers is correct.
c. trisomy 21 > Robertsonian translocation > PKU syndrome d. PKU syndrome > trisomy 21 > Robertsonian translocation
e. PKU syndrome > Robertsonian translocation trisomy 21
Answers
1. c. Haplotype Recombinant.
2. c. trisomy 21 > Robertsonian translocation > PKU syndrome.
1. The term that does not involve multiple loci is c. Haplotype Recombinant. Haplotype refers to a set of genetic variations on a single chromosome, while recombinant refers to the reshuffling of genetic material during meiosis. It does not inherently involve multiple loci, but rather the arrangement of alleles at a single locus.
2. The correct order of DNA alterations, in large to small scales, that cause the phenotypes mentioned is c. trisomy 21 > Robertsonian translocation > PKU syndrome. Trisomy 21 refers to the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in Down syndrome, which is a large-scale alteration involving a whole chromosome. Robertsonian translocation involves the fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes, often resulting in rearrangements and genetic disorders. Phenylketonuria (PKU) syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by alterations in a single gene, resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Therefore, the order from large-scale to small-scale DNA alterations is trisomy 21, Robertsonian translocation, and PKU syndrome.
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If a tRNA molecule has an anticodon which reads AGGCCG, what was the codon on the mRNA molecule?
TCCGGA
UCCGGC
UCCGGU
CTTAAG
Answers
The codon is the sequence of nucleotides that carry genetic information that determines which amino acid should be added to the building protein. Nucleotides in this sequence pair with nucleotides from the tRNA anticodon. In the exposed example, the correct codon pairing the given anticodon is is UCCGGC.
Before expplanation, let us review some theoretical frame to answer the question.
During protein synthesis, the ribosome reads mRNA in the 5´ to 3´ direction, while tRNA adds the correct amino acids to build the polypeptide, according to the codons readen in the mRNA chain. A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids´ assembly. Each of the codons represents one of the 20 amino acids used to build the protein. Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid. tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.
Once the new amino acid joins the growing protein, the binding between the amino acid and the tRNA breaks, releasing the molecule, which is now available to join another amino acid and repeat the cycle.
• Anticodon: Sequence of bases that pairs with the mRNA codon.
• Amino Acid: the amino acid that is codified by the mRNA codon.
Remeber that:
Adenine forms pairs with Uracyl ⇒ A↔UGuanine pairs with Cytosine ⇒ C↔GIn the exposed example, the tRNA anticodon is AGGCCG, so we need to find its complement.
We know that Adenine pairs Uracyl, Guanine pairs Cytosine, and Cytosine pairs Guanine. So,
Anticodon → AGGCCG
Codon → UCCGGC
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Answer:
The codon is the sequence of nucleotides that carry genetic information that determines which amino acid should be added to the building protein. Nucleotides in this sequence pair with nucleotides from the tRNA anticodon. In the exposed example, the correct codon pairing the given anticodon is is UCCGGC.
Before expplanation, let us review some theoretical frame to answer the question.
During protein synthesis, the ribosome reads mRNA in the 5´ to 3´ direction, while tRNA adds the correct amino acids to build the polypeptide, according to the codons readen in the mRNA chain. A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids´ assembly. Each of the codons represents one of the 20 amino acids used to build the protein. Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid. tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.
Once the new amino acid joins the growing protein, the binding between the amino acid and the tRNA breaks, releasing the molecule, which is now available to join another amino acid and repeat the cycle.
• Anticodon: Sequence of bases that pairs with the mRNA codon.
• Amino Acid: the amino acid that is codified by the mRNA codon.
Remeber that:
Adenine forms pairs with Uracyl ⇒ A↔U
Guanine pairs with Cytosine ⇒ C↔G
In the exposed example, the tRNA anticodon is AGGCCG, so we need to find its complement.
We know that Adenine pairs Uracyl, Guanine pairs Cytosine, and Cytosine pairs Guanine. So,
Anticodon → AGGCCG
Codon → UCCGGC
Explanation:
brainliest to right answer Describe how proteins are used in active and passive transport. How do they differ?
Answers
Answer:
Active transport works against the concentration gradient, moving substances from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration. While passive transport moves from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration. The protein is used as a channel for active transport.
Explanation:
most adult insects have three major body parts or sections. they are the
Answers
Most adult insects have three major body parts or sections, which are the head, thorax, and abdomen. The head of an insect contains the mouthparts, eyes, and antennae. The thorax is the middle section of the insect's body and it is where the wings and legs are attached.
Finally, the abdomen is the hind section of the insect body, which contains the digestive and reproductive organs. These three body parts work together to allow the insect to carry out its functions and survive in its environment. Insects, as members of the phylum Arthropoda, have segmented bodies. The three main body parts head, thorax, and abdomen serve different functions for the insect.
1. Head, The head contains the insect eyes, antennae, and mouthparts. It is responsible for sensory perception and feeding. 2. Thorax, The thorax is the middle section of the insect body and is where the wings and legs are attached. This body part is crucial for locomotion. 3. Abdomen, The abdomen is the final and largest section of the insect body. It houses the digestive, excretory, and reproductive organs.
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the only preaustralopithecine found outside the east african rift valley is: group of answer choices orrorin tugenensis. ardipithecus kadabba. sahelanthropus tchadensis. ardipithecus ramidus.
Answers
The only preaustralopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley is Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
Pre-Australopithecines is the informal term that is used to describe a group of extinct hominids that existed before the Australopithecines. They are considered the earliest species of human-like primates. They lived around 5.5 to 7 million years ago and are known to have lived in forested areas of Africa, which is different from the later hominids that lived in savannah-like environments. This group includes the following species: Sahelanthropus tchadensis,Orrorin tugenensis, Ardipithecus kadabba, Ardipithecus ramidus. The only preaustralopithecine found outside the East African Rift Valley is Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
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helppppppppppppppppp
Answers
Answer:
Choose the corresponding number. (The answer is explained in the explanation in the biological terms).
Explanation:
The label that points to the part of the ATP synthase that is like the blades of a turbine is labeled "F1." The F1 component of ATP synthase contains the catalytic sites responsible for synthesizing ATP, and it rotates like a turbine to drive the synthesis of ATP. Similarly to how the blades of a turbine are moved by water or wind, the F1 component is rotated by the flow of protons through the enzyme, which generates the energy needed to produce ATP.
Which of the following statements best describes the process of photosynthesis?
Answers
Answer:
Photosynthesis, the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.
Explanation:
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what is the function of the styloid process of the temporal bone?
Answers
The styloid process of the temporal bone is a thin, pointed bone protrusion located at the base of the skull just in front of the ear.
The primary function of a styloid process is to provide attachment points for muscles and ligaments of the neck and face, more specifically, it serves as the attachment point for the stylohyoid ligament, which connects the hyoid bone to the styloid process, and for the stylomandibular ligament, which connects the mandible to the styloid process. It also provides attachment points for the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, which help to move the tongue and pharynx, respectively. Also, it helps to support the structures of the throat and neck, including the pharynx, larynx, and esophagus.
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How do you think the plant uses the sugars that it has created in photosynthesis?
Answers
The sugar produced by photosynthesis can be converted into the sugar glucose. Thousands of glucose molecules can be linked together to form the complex carbohydrate cellulose. Cellulose is a very tough molecule that is used to build the cell wall of plant cells.
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The plant then releases oxygen into the air. Glucose, which is actually a sugar, feeds the plant. There are many uses of glucose in plants. Glucose helps plants grow, form flowers and develop fruit. It also helps plants develop seeds.
Please match the white blood cells with the statements that most accurately describe them to test your understanding of the behavior of white blood cells.
1. polymorphonuclear phagocytic cells.
2. attack and destroy large eukaryotic pathogens.
3. release histamine during immediate allergies
4. form specialized plasma cells and secrete antibodies
5. mature in the thymus and modulate immune functions
B cells
eosinophils
neutrophils
T cells
basophils
Answers
Neutrophils are **polymorphonuclear phagocytic cells** that attack and destroy pathogens.
Eosinophils attack and destroy **large eukaryotic pathogens**, such as parasites, through phagocytosis and release of destructive enzymes. Basophils are responsible for **releasing histamine during immediate allergies** to promote inflammation and attract other immune cells to the site of infection. T cells **mature in the thymus and modulate immune functions**, including the activation of other immune cells such as B cells, and also directly attack infected cells. B cells form specialized plasma cells and **secrete antibodies** to neutralize pathogens and tag them for destruction by other immune cells.
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9. What energy level in a food web contains the most energy?
a. Producer
b. First Level Consumer
c. Second Level Consumer
d. Third Level Consumers
Answers
Answer:
A. Producer
Explanation:
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Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:________
Answers
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the Paramedics.
Who is called a Paramedic?A medical worker with expertise in emergency care is called a paramedic. They aren't medical professionals like doctors, nurses, or PAs. The phrase "paramedic" combines two words. A paramedic's ability to make quick choices and maintain composure is essential. The senior member of a two-person ambulance crew is typically a paramedic, who is assisted by an emergency care assistant or technician. Usually one of the first medical personnel on the scene of an emergency is a paramedic. They are also referred to as emergency medical personnel.
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The attributes that can be arranged into hierarchy are cal'
Select one:
a. Simple attributes
b. Derived attributes
c. Atomic attributes
d. Composite attributes
15. Relational model eases the job of the programmer, compared to earlier data models such as Select one:
a. Both Network and Hierarchical
b. Network model
c. Hierarchical model
d. Semistructured model
16. The set of values which specifies which values are to be assigned to individual entities is considered as
Select one:
a. Derivation of values
b. Composition of values
c. Attribution of values
d. Domain of values
17. The structuring of database by specifying the types and constraints of data is classified as
Select one:
a. Analyzing a database
b. Filtering a database
c. Creating a database
d. Defining a database
18. The relational model is today the primary data model for commercial
Select one:
a. Data program application
b. Data processing applications
c. Data management applications
d. Data storage applications
19. The function which causes the retrieval of any kind of data from database is considered as
Select one:
a. Storing cycle
b. Structure
c. Query
d. Key
20. In relational database schemas, the transition constraints are also known as
Select one:
a. Explicit constraints
b. Implicit constraints
c. Static constraints
d. Dynamic constraints
21. The form of data model in which the concepts provided are useful for end users and are also close to the way it is stored in computer system is called
Select one:
a. Representational data models
b. Clientele data models
c. Implementation data models
d. Both representational and implentation data
models
22. The form of data model which focuses the concepts in the same way as the data stored in computer system is classified as
Select one:
a. Medium level data models
b. Dynamic data models
c. High level data models
d. Low level data models
23. The key that uniquely identifies each record is called
Select one:
a. Field name
b. Key record
c. Unique key
d. Primary key
24. The key that uniquely identifies each record is called
Select one:
a. Field name
b. Key record
c. Unique key
d. Primary key
Answers
The attributes that can be arranged into hierarchy are composite attributes. A composite attribute, as the name suggests, is composed of multiple atomic or simple attributes.
The attributes that cannot be split into simpler attributes are called atomic or simple attributes. Composite attributes. A composite attribute is one that is made up of two or more atomic attributes. The reason for grouping the attributes together is so that the users can understand the attributes better. Relational model eases the job of the programmer, compared to earlier data models such as both Network and Hierarchical.
Network and Hierarchical models were replaced by the Relational model due to its limitations. As opposed to the Network and Hierarchical models, which have restrictions on the way data is stored, the Relational model provides more flexibility and simplifies the programmer's work. The set of values which specifies which values are to be assigned to individual entities is considered as Attribution of values.
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find which one is not true of the following. the cells of the macula densa are located in the distal convoluted tubule. macula densa cells are sensitive to the concentration of sodium chloride in tubular fluid. low nacl concentration initiates a signal from the macula densa that it increases renin release and angiotensin ii formation. macula densa cells secrete renin whch increases blood pressure.
Answers
The one that is not true is the statement that says that low NaCl concentration initiates a signal from the macula densa that it increases renin release and angiotensin ii formation.
The macula densa is a collection of specialized epithelial cells in the distal convoluted tubule that detect sodium concentration of the fluid in the tubule. It's located at the distal tubule, where the Loop of Henle meets the distal convoluted tubule.
The cells are sensitive to changes in sodium chloride level and will trigger an autoregulatory response to increase or decrease reabsorption based on it. It also releases the hormone renin which can increase blood pressure.
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The functions of homologous recombination include all except one of the following answers:
Group of answer choices
aligning homologs during meiosis
rescuing collapsed replication forks
repairing breaks in DNA due to endogenous damage
aligning homologs durin
Answers
The functions of homologous recombination include aligning homologs during meiosis, rescuing collapsed replication forks, and repairing breaks in DNA due to endogenous damage. Option D is correct.
Homologous recombination is a vital DNA repair mechanism that occurs during various cellular processes. One of its main functions is to align homologous chromosomes during meiosis, the process of cell division that produces gametes. Homologous recombination ensures proper segregation of genetic material and promotes genetic diversity.
Another important function of homologous recombination is to rescue collapsed replication forks. Replication forks can encounter obstacles or encounter DNA damage during DNA replication. Homologous recombination can help restart and repair these stalled Nucleotide or collapsed replication forks, allowing DNA synthesis to continue.
Additionally, homologous recombination plays a crucial role in repairing breaks in DNA caused by endogenous damage, such as double-strand breaks. It allows for the precise repair of damaged DNA by using an undamaged homologous DNA sequence as a template.
However, aligning homologs during mismatch excision repair is not a function of homologous recombination. Mismatch excision repair is a different DNA repair pathway that corrects errors that occur during DNA replication and is not directly related to homologous recombination.
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The Complete question is
The functions of homologous recombination include all except one of the following answers:
Group of answer choices
A. aligning homologs during meiosis
B. rescuing collapsed replication forks
C. repairing breaks in DNA due to endogenous damage
D. aligning homologs during mismatch excision repair
How many times can each bit of blood be pumped around the body each day?
Answers
Answer:
five litres (eight pints)
HELPP PLSSS
After mitosis and cell division are over how are the two new cells similar to the original cell in interphase??
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
In s phase, the dna replication take place in interphase, The dna in the nucleus replicates so that each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids, then in mitosis they are pulled apart in anaphase in which both cells have half of the chromosomes, in Telophase each chromatid contains one dna molecule, which will replicate itself during interphase before the next division.
The new cells are similar from the original ones in interphase as these will have same amount of DNAs.
What is interphase?The interphase phase of the cell cycle is where the majority of the life of a typical cell occurs.
Interphase is the cell's "daily living" or metabolic phase, during which it obtains and metabolizes nutrients, grows, replicates its DNA in preparation for mitosis, and performs other "normal" cell functions.
The cell cycle's longest phase is interphase. This is the stage at which the cell grows and copies its DNA before entering mitosis.
Chromosomes align, separate, and move into new daughter cells during mitosis. Because the prefix inter- means "between," interphase occurs between mitotic (M) phases.
In interphase, the new cells are similar to the original ones because they have the same number of DNAs.
Thus, this can be the similarity between these two.
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Cancer-causing agents are called __________. A. Carcinoids B. Tumors C. Sarcomas D. Carcinogens.
Answers
Answer: Carcinogens
Explanation:
Carcinoids refer to a specific type of slow growing tumor, tumors are the cancerous growths within a body, and sarcomas are tumors that occur in bones and soft tissues.
Answer:
Carcinogen
Explanation:
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Which of the following laboratory analyses will detect the largest number of different kinds of microorganisms
Answers
Out of the options provided, the laboratory analysis that would detect the largest number of different kinds of microorganisms is metagenomic sequencing or shotgun metagenomics.
Metagenomic sequencing is a technique used to study genetic material directly obtained from environmental samples, such as soil, water, or human/animal body sites.
By sequencing the DNA or RNA extracted from a sample, metagenomics can identify and characterize the genetic material of all microorganisms present in that sample, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, archaea, and other organisms. This approach provides a comprehensive snapshot of the microbial community, allowing for the detection of a wide range of microorganisms and the potential discovery of novel species.
Other laboratory analyses, such as culture-based methods or targeted PCR assays, are more specific and may only detect particular groups of microorganisms based on the growth conditions or the targeted genes they utilize. In contrast, metagenomic sequencing offers a broader and more unbiased approach for microbial community analysis.
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As pressure increases in lymphatic capillaries, fluid is allowed to regurgitate back into the tissues. A. True B. False.
Answers
The statement that as pressure increases in lymphatic capillaries, fluid is allowed to regurgitate back into the tissues is False.
The correct option is False.
What are the lymphatic capillaries?The lymphatic capillaries are thin-walled vessels that are located throughout the body and are responsible for collecting excess fluid and waste products from the tissues. As the lymphatic capillaries collect fluid, they gradually converge into larger lymphatic vessels, which eventually empty into the bloodstream.
In healthy individuals, the pressure within the lymphatic capillaries is normally lower than the interstitial fluid pressure in the surrounding tissues. This pressure difference allows the lymphatic capillaries to collect excess fluid from the tissues and prevent the buildup of edema or swelling. However, if the pressure within the lymphatic capillaries becomes too high, it can cause the fluid to regurgitate back into the tissues, which can lead to edema.
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(a) based on the distribution of biomes in the united states, describe the ecological niche that is occupied by the dominant native plant community that inhabits region a.
Answers
A biome is a sizable region distinguished by its flora, fauna, soil, and climate. Aquatic, grassland, forest, desert, and tundra biomes
what are the types of major biome ?
A biome is a specific large area which is characterized by its vegetation, soil, climate, and wildlife.
There are five major types of biomes such as aquatic, grassland, forest, desert, and tundra and some of these biomes can be further classified into more specific categories, such as freshwater, marine, savanna, tropical rain forest, temperate rain forest, and taiga.
on the other hand Ecological niche can be defined as the position of a species within an ecosystem which describe both the range of conditions necessary for persistence of the species in an ecosystem.
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as cleavage continues, a zygote forms into a solid multicellular ball called a(n) _____.
Answers
As cleavage continues, a zygote forms into a solid multicellular ball called morula.
Cleavage is the division of the cells of the zygote in the early development of embryo which is followed by fertilization.
fertilization is the process of which the male and female gametes met and forms the zygote in the fallopian tube of human female .
Morula is the stage of development of the embryo in which there are 8 to 16 cells hence it is term morula.
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imagine 100 cells were chosen randomly from a tissue sample and examined under a microscope. in which phase of the cell cycle would you expect to find the largest number of cells?
Answers
Interphase generally have the largest number of active cells.
Cells in an organism use to divide when only organism needs to replace damaged cells or when the organism is actively growing. In G1 phase, the cell grows physically and increases the volume of both protein and organelles. In S phase, the cell copies its DNA in order to produce two sister chromatids and replicates its nucleosomes.
The final phase is G2 phase that involves further cell growth and here the organization of cellular contents takes place .G2 phase is also a period of rapid cell growth and protein synthesis during which the cell prepares itself for mitosis.
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How is energy related to the change of state represented
by the model?
Atoms gain energy as a solid changes to a gas.
Atoms gain energy as a liquid changes to a gas.
Atoms lose energy as a solid changes to a gas.
O Atoms lose energy as a liquid changes to a gas.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a solid. How is energy related to the change of state represented by the model? Atoms gain energy as a solid changes to a liquid. If atoms energy during a change of state, they are pulled together by attractive forces and become more organized.
Answer:
Atoms gain energy as a liquid changes to a gas.
Explanation:
The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate.
True
False
Answers
The statement "The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate" is false.
In the female body, the urinary and reproductive systems have a shared space called the urogenital system. In other words, the female reproductive system and the urinary system share certain structures that serve a dual purpose, with each system performing unique functions.
The urinary system consists of the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra, while the female reproductive system comprises the ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina.
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what is the changing shape of the Moon called?
Answers
Answer:
Phases
Explanation: