Answer: red blood cells
Explanation: took the test haha
How do dna polymerase i and dna polymerase iii differ?.
Explanation:
DNA Polymerase III synthesizes the majority of the DNA, while DNA Polymerase I synthesizes DNA in the regions where the RNA primers were laid down on the lagging strand.
P
S
Which three numbers are smaller
than -1?
-2.01 x 10¹
-0.13
Q5
3
T
-√₂
R
20
U
1
3
4
-29%
To enter your answer, type the letters of the correct answers in
alphabetical order. For example, PRT or QRU.
Answer:
p q t. shshsjsjksksjsjsjdjdjdjdjd
We generated complete and partial mitochondrial genomes"" Why did the authors use mitochondrial DNA ?
The authors used mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) because it is inherited only from the maternal line
thus making it easier to trace evolutionary relationships and genealogy through generations. It is also found in high copy numbers in the cell, making it more easily isolated and sequenced. Mitochondrial DNA is also less prone to recombination, which makes it a good marker for tracing back lineage.
The mtDNA is circular and double-stranded with a very compact genome. It has genes that encode for transfer RNA, ribosomal RNA, and protein subunits that make up the mitochondrial respiratory chain. It has high sequence divergence between individuals, allowing it to be used for tracking different ancestral lines in a population. Due to its smaller size compared to nuclear DNA, it is also easier to sequence the entire genome of mtDNA.
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COVID-19 Vaccine: How to Overcome Distribution Bottlenecks and Boost Success
The supply chain’s ability to support the massive rollout of the COVID-19 vaccine is being put to the test. Temperatures, transportation distances, volume - and even the timing of the vaccine’s second dose - are all critical factors. To ensure a responsive COVID-19 supply chain in the face of such daunting variables, leaders must have visibility, transparency, flexibility and foresight.
As the first COVID-19 vaccine developed by Pfizer and BioNTech is rolled out in the U.S., U.K. and other parts of the world and another 987-odd drugs and vaccines are in development (with 16 in the final phase) as of Dec. 15, 2020, pharma companies, Contract Manufacturing Organizations (CMOs) and suppliers are racing against time to put in place a sound production and supply chain plan so the vaccines can reach people speedily and securely.
There are, however, considerable uncertainties and variables at this stage that can impact the production and distribution of the vaccine:
Uncertainties on approvals: It’s not entirely clear how many vaccines will be approved. This affects the total amount of vaccine doses available (in the short to medium term) and consequently, production and distribution capacities.
Nature of vaccine: An approved vaccine that needs a continuous cold chain and specified temperature range will impact not only its distribution and allocation, but it will also have have specific packaging requirements (for some vaccines, packaging must withstand temperatures as low as minus 80 degrees Celsius). Both Pfizer and Moderna vaccines must be stored at below-zero temperatures, with the Pfizer vaccine requiring dry ice and special refrigeration.
Number of vaccinations needed: How much vaccine a country needs depends on the population to be vaccinated and the vaccination timeline. This depends on public health care capabilities and government policies. For example, there will be no compulsory COVID-19 vaccinations in Germany.
Efficacy of vaccine: The efficacy rate of a vaccine will decide how often people need to be vaccinated to contain the pandemic, which will impact production and distribution. For example, the Pfizer and Moderna vaccines require two doses that must be administered in a short sequence to be effective, so there cannot be a lag in the supply chain.
QUESTION 1 [15 MARKS]
Identify five (5) strategies that can be utilised to counteract conflict in supply chain management. Provide examples based on the case study.
These strategies promote collaboration, agility, and adaptability, which are vital for overcoming conflicts and challenges in supply chain management during the distribution of COVID-19 vaccines.
1. Establishing strong partnerships and collaboration: Pharma companies, CMOs, and suppliers can form strategic partnerships to share expertise, resources, and knowledge, thereby enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of the supply chain. For example, Pfizer and BioNTech collaborated with logistics providers and airlines to ensure the smooth transport and distribution of their COVID-19 vaccine, leveraging their respective capabilities.
2. Implementing real-time visibility and tracking systems: Deploying advanced technology solutions like Internet of Things (IoT) sensors, blockchain, and data analytics can provide real-time visibility into the supply chain, enabling stakeholders to identify and address bottlenecks proactively. This helps in ensuring timely deliveries and reducing wastage. For instance, monitoring temperature-controlled shipments using IoT sensors can help maintain the required cold chain for vaccines like Pfizer's and Moderna's.
3. Diversifying suppliers and manufacturing sites: Having multiple suppliers and manufacturing sites spread across different regions can mitigate the risk of disruptions. Pharma companies can work with multiple CMOs and suppliers to ensure redundancy in production capacity. This approach allows for flexibility in case of unforeseen events, such as manufacturing issues or transportation disruptions.
4. Developing contingency plans: Preparing contingency plans for potential challenges, such as vaccine approval delays or changes in government policies, can help minimize the impact on the supply chain. These plans should include alternative distribution channels, storage facilities, and transportation options. For example, pharma companies can maintain buffer stocks in strategic locations to handle unexpected demand surges or supply shortages.
5. Enhancing communication and transparency: Open and transparent communication among all stakeholders is crucial to address conflicts and align expectations. Sharing information on vaccine availability, distribution plans, and any changes in requirements can help stakeholders make informed decisions. Regular updates and coordination between governments, healthcare providers, and supply chain participants are essential for successful vaccine distribution.
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Biomes are generally identified by their what?
Answer: The biome concept organizes large-scale ecological variation. Terrestrial biomes are distinguished primarily by their predominant vegetation, and are mainly determined by temperature and rainfall. Differences in temperature or precipitation determine the types of plants that grow in a given area.
RrBb*rrbb
RRBB*RRBB
RrBb*RrBb
rrbb*rrbb
Answer:try B sorry if im wrong i did some research :/
Explanation:
What characteristic of life is not directly related to the study of population growth?
A) Ability to adapt to the surrounding environment
B) Ability to absorb sunlight to stay warm
C) Ability to respond to a stimulus
D) Ability to reproduce
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Ability to absorb sunlight to stay warm
when you go from tooth side -> outer layer of plaque
what GRAM do you have?
When you move from the tooth side to the outer layer of plaque, the gram count can vary depending on the level of dental hygiene.
Plaque is a sticky, colorless film that can accumulate on teeth, especially when proper oral hygiene practices such as brushing and flossing are not regularly followed.
As plaque builds up, it can become more visible and thicker, and the gram count can increase. Generally, plaque has a gram count of approximately 1,000,000,000 per milliliter.
However, this number can fluctuate based on various factors, including the individual's oral hygiene practices, diet, and other health factors.
Maintaining proper oral hygiene practices is essential in preventing the buildup of plaque and reducing the risk of dental problems such as cavities and gum disease.
The transition from the tooth side to the outer layer of plaque involves a gradual increase in bacterial accumulation. Plaque is a biofilm that forms on the surface of teeth, primarily consisting of bacteria, along with food debris and saliva.
The weight of plaque on an individual tooth is typically less than a gram, as plaque is a thin layer that covers the tooth surface.
Maintaining good oral hygiene, such as regular brushing and flossing, helps in removing plaque and preventing dental issues like cavities and gum disease.
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explain how making human tissue plasminogen activator (t-pa) in chinese hamster ovary (cho) cells is an example of genetic engineering.
Producing human tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) in Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cells is an example of genetic engineering, as it involves the introduction and manipulation of specific genes in the CHO cells to enable them to produce the desired protein, t-PA.
Genetic engineering refers to the process of modifying the genetic material of an organism to introduce new traits or characteristics. In the case of producing t-PA in CHO cells, genetic engineering techniques are used to insert the gene responsible for producing t-PA into the CHO cell's genome.
The process involves several steps. First, the gene encoding t-PA is isolated from human cells or synthesized in the laboratory. The gene is then inserted into a vector, such as a plasmid, which acts as a carrier to deliver the gene into the CHO cells. The vector containing the t-PA gene is introduced into the CHO cells through a process called transfection.
Once inside the CHO cells, the t-PA gene integrates into the cell's genome. The cells are then cultured under controlled conditions that promote gene expression and protein production. The CHO cells utilize their cellular machinery to transcribe and translate the t-PA gene, resulting in the synthesis of t-PA protein.
The genetically engineered CHO cells can be grown in large quantities and harvested to extract the produced t-PA. The t-PA protein can then be purified and used as a therapeutic agent for medical applications, such as treating blood clotting disorders.
Overall, the production of t-PA in CHO cells through genetic engineering demonstrates how the manipulation of genes in cells can lead to the production of specific proteins with therapeutic or industrial value.
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In order for a gene to be transcribed, _____ polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and be able to bind the gene's ______.
In order for a gene to be transcribed, RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and be able to bind the gene's promoter region.
A DNA fragment is copied into RNA during transcription. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is the term for DNA segments that are transcribed into RNA molecules that can encode proteins. Non-coding RNAs (ncRNAs) are RNA molecules that contain copies of additional DNA sequences. Only 1% to 3% of all RNA samples are mRNA.
A minimum of 80% of mammalian genomic DNA can be actively transcribed (in one or more types of cells), with the bulk of this 80% being ncRNA. In contrast, less than 2% of the human genome can be transcribed into mRNA
An RNA polymerase reads a DNA sequence during transcription, creating a primary transcript, which is a complementary, antiparallel strand of RNA.
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what are four different types of bases in DNA and how do they pair?
Answer:
Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, and Cytosine
They possess complimentary paring. Meaning the one will only bind another, and will not bind with and other one
Explanation:
DNA has four types of bases, such as adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Adenine forms double hydrogen bonds with thymine, while guanine forms triple hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
What is the composition of the DNA?
DNA is called deoxyribonucleic acid. It is a polymer of nucleotides. Each nucleotide is made up of a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base. In DNA, there are four types of nitrogenous bases, such as adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T).
Adenine and guanine are purines and double-ringed structures. Cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines and single-ringed structures. A purine forms a bond with a pyrimidine. Adenine (A) forms a double hydrogen bond with Thymine (T), and Guanine (G) forms triple hydrogen bonds with Cytosine(C).
Hence, in DNA, four nucleotides are found: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Adenine pairs with thymine, while guanine pairs with cytosine.
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Stem cells that produce new blood cells are found in the ___.
A. heart
B. brain
C. muscle
D. bones
Answer:
D. Bones
Explanation:
Bone Marrow
the restriction enzyme fnu4h1 recognizes and cuts the sequence 5'-gcngc-3'. which allele of tas2r38 will be cut? what size fragments will result if the pcr product is cut?
When it comes to the restriction enzyme Fnu4H1, it recognizes and cuts the sequence 5'-GCNGC-3'. As a result, the allele of TAS2R38 that will be cut is the one that contains the said sequence. As a result, the size fragments that will result if the PCR product is cut are dependent on the location of the recognition site of the restriction enzyme within the DNA sequence. In addition, the size of the fragments will be determined by the distance between the two locations of the recognition site.
This is due to the fact that the recognition site is the site at which the restriction enzyme will cut the DNA. The enzyme cuts the DNA into fragments of varying sizes, which can then be separated based on size utilizing gel electrophoresis. This implies that the PCR product should be run on a gel in order to determine the size of the fragments that are created. To do so, the PCR product must first be cut with the restriction enzyme Fnu4H1. Once this has been accomplished, the fragments can be loaded onto the gel and run using electrophoresis. This will enable the researcher to visualize the DNA fragments and determine their size based on their migration pattern on the gel.
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2 questions Lab: Earthworm Behavior
What is the purpose of the lab?
What methods are you using to test this hypothesis?
Outline the steps of the procedure in full sentences
The hypothesis being tested in the Earthworm Behavior Lab involves the response of earthworms to different types of stimuli.
The purpose of the lab the chemical experience includes lab work in great detail. It gives students the chance to investigate chemical ideas, observe how matter transforms, and develop scientific knowledge in a setting that resembles a working laboratory.
To test this hypothesis, several methods are being used, including the use of a choice chamber and the observation of earthworm behavior in response to different stimuli.
The procedure for the Earthworm Behavior Lab involves several steps. First, earthworms are collected and placed in a holding container. Then, a choice chamber is set up with two compartments, each containing a different stimulus. The earthworm is then placed in the center of the choice chamber and observed for a set amount of time.
During the observation period, the earthworm's behavior is recorded and analyzed, with a focus on which compartment the earthworm spends more time in. This data is then used to determine whether the earthworms showed a preference for one stimulus over the other.
The procedure is repeated with different stimuli in each compartment to gather additional data and ensure the results are consistent. Through this method, the hypothesis can be tested and conclusions can be drawn about the response of earthworms to different stimuli.
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the relationship between reproduction and the nervous system
Answer: The nervous system plays a crucial role in coordinating and modulating various aspects of reproduction, including sexual behavior, hormone production, and reproductive physiology.
Explanation: The relationship between reproduction and the nervous system can be understood in terms of the control and regulation of reproductive processes by the nervous system.
The nervous system, specifically the brain, plays a crucial role in sexual behavior by combining sensory information, emotions, and mental processes. It regulates the release of hormones and neurotransmitters, which affect sexual arousal, desire, and mating behaviors.
The autonomic nervous system plays a role in reproductive physiology by controlling physiological reactions related to reproduction. The sympathetic division triggers the "fight-or-flight" response, which may momentarily limit reproductive activities during stressful situations. On the other hand, the parasympathetic division promotes relaxation and is involved in sexual desire and erection.
The nervous system is absolutely essential in effectively managing and organizing the complex reproductive processes that are absolutely critical for the survival and perpetuation of a given species.
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During an experiment, readings for blood pressure in a person’s body were found to be constant. However, when measured by a different blood pressure cuff, the readings differed by 15 points for each reading. This difference indicates that the results are _______ but not __________.
Answer:independent of each other
Explanation:and they may or may not be reliable or valid.
HELP ASAP!!!!!
Which of the following best describes the motion of the object in this p-t graph
Answer:
I think its the third one should be
Answer:
The graph above shows that the position of the body is changing with time exponentially and it is accelerating. The velocity of the body is changing with time and as a result the distance it is covering per time will be changing. Generally the graph of positions against time for a body that is accelerating will always look like the diagram above. For constant velocity motion, the graph will be a straight line with slope equal to the velocity of the body.
Explanation:
The velocity - time graph will for a undergoing the motion described by this graphics will be a straight line graph with it slope equal to the acceleration of the body.
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO FIRST ANSWER
Which of the following factors can increase the speed of demographic transition within a country?
Gender equality
Diversity of people
Lower population density
Increased energy sources
Answer:
b
Explanation:
i think
Among the factors listed, gender equality can contribute to the speed of demographic transition within a country. Gender equality encompasses the empowerment of women, access to education and healthcare, and reproductive rights. When women are empowered and have control over their reproductive choices, it often leads to a decline in fertility rates and a faster demographic transition.
Diversity of people, lower population density, and increased energy sources, on the other hand, are not directly linked to the speed of demographic transition. These factors may have other impacts on a country's development and social dynamics, but they do not directly influence the transition from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates that characterizes demographic transition.
what is the frequency of a wave that is traveling at a speed of 3.0m/s and has a wavelength of 1.2m
The frequency of the wave is 2.5 Hz.
The following formula must be used to answer this query:
Speed and wavelength together determine frequency.
The wave's speed in this instance is 3.0 m/s, and its wavelength is 1.2 m.
When we enter these values as substitutes in the formula, we obtain:
frequency equals 3.0 m/s / 1.2 m
If we condense this, we get:
2.5 Hz for frequency
Remember that frequency is a measurement of the number of whole waves that pass a spot in a second. The wave in question has a frequency of 2.5 Hz, which indicates that 2.5 whole waves pass a spot in this instance every second.
The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and speed is important in understanding the behavior of waves. If the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength decreases, while the speed remains constant. Conversely, if the frequency decreases, the wavelength increases, while the speed remains constant. This relationship is known as the wave equation and is fundamental to the study of wave behavior.
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What two factors cause the Gulf Stream to move away from the equator?
Answer:
The Gulf Stream is caused by a large system of circular currents and powerful winds, called an oceanic gyre.
As the warm water comes in, colder, denser water sinks and begins moving south—eventually flowing along the bottom of the ocean all the way to Antarctica.
Explanation:
How the
immune system works, explain why injecting an
antigen from a pathogen would help our immune
system create "memory" of the infection but not
cause the disease.
Answer:
Our immune system produces antibodies against that antigen of pathogen.
Explanation:
Injecting an antigen from a pathogen would help our immune system memorize the infection and protect our body from causing of the disease because our immune system produces antibodies against that antigen so when the pathogen enters our body these antibodies attack on that and prevent them of causing infection in the body so that's why injecting an antigen has to be done from the childhood to prevent diseases.
: methyl-directed mismatch repair of dna is the primary mechanism for correcting mismatched base pairs caused by . . . choose one: a. reca. b. reactive oxygen species. c. uv irradiation. d. rna polymerase. e. dna polymerase.
Methyl-directed mismatch repair (MMR) of DNA is the primary mechanism for correcting mismatched base pairs caused by DNA polymerase.
What is Methyl-directed mismatch repair?In E. coli, the methyl-directed mismatch repair (MMR) system is initiated after replication, and one of its main functions is to repair base mismatches and small insertion-deletions caused by misincorporation and strand slippage during DNA replication. It is to remove lost loops. The MMR methyl group indicates the parent strand of DNA.
Mismatches are often due to base tautomerism during DNA replication. It recognizes deformation due to mismatches, distinguishes template strands from non-template strands, cuts out erroneously incorporated bases, and replaces them with correct bases to repair damage.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
True or False: Ideology can be about
religious beliefs as well as economic
beliefs.
True
False
Answer:
true.....
.................
Which codon is the code for the amino acid histidine (His)
Messenger
Second base in codon
RNA Codons
U
С
A
G
UUU UCU
Phel
UAU UGU U
UUC)
UCC UAC)
Tyr
U
UGC)
Cys
Ser
C
UUA UCA
Leu
UAA Stop UGA Stop A
UUG
UCG
UAG Stop UGG Trp G
CUU CCU
CAU
U
CGU
CUC ССС
His
CAC) CGC
Leu Pro
с
CCA
Arg
CAA1
CUG
CGA
Gin
CCG CAG CGG
AUU ACU
AAU
AUC)lle ACC
Asn Ser
AAC) AGC
Thr
AUA
ACA AAA
AUG Start Me ACG
AGA
Lys Arg
AAG AGG
GUU GCU GAU1 GGU
GUC GCC
Asp
GAC) GGC
G
Val
Ala
GUA
GCA
Gly
GAA
Glu
GGA
GUG
GCG GAG) GGG
First base in codon
CUA
Third base in codon
AGU
A. CAA
B. UAC
Ο Ο Ο Ο
C. AAC
D. CAU
Answer:
The codon that codes for the amino acid histidine (His) is CAC. Therefore, the correct answer is D. CAU.
"Compare the 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens to a typical eruption of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano.
Both eruptions are violent blasts capable of destroying about half a kilometer of mountain in height and of ejecting nearly a cubic kilometer of ash and rock debris. Eruptions of Kilauea occur more frequently, so the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory is placed near Kilauea.
The eruption of Mount St. Helens in 1980 was an outpouring of fluid lava from the volcano's vent accompanied by ejection of nearly a hundred cubic meters of volcanic gases with some ash, and is marked because St. Helens does not erupt frequently. Typical eruptions of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano do not include explosions at all; they are just outpourings of fluid lava from the volcano's vent, so the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory have operated at Kilauea's summit for more than 100 years.
A blast, capable of destroying about half a kilometer of mountain in height and of ejecting nearly a cubic kilometer of ash and rock debris, occurred in 1980 at Mount St. Helens. Typical eruptions of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano do not include explosions at all; they are just outpourings of fluid lava from the volcano's vent, so the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory have operated at Kilauea's summit for more than 100 years.
Both eruptions are just outpourings of fluid lava from the volcano's vent without explosions and debris ejection. Eruptions of Kilauea occur more frequently, so the Hawaiian Volcano Observatory is placed near Kilauea.
The eruption of Mount St. Helens in 1980 was not explosive at all; it was just an outpouring of fluid lava from the volcano's vent, and is marked because St. Helens does not erupt frequently. Typical eruptions of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano include explosions capable of lowering the volcano's summit and ejecting hundreds of cubic meters of ash and rock debris. Because of that difference in power, the Hawaiian"
The 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens was a violent explosion that ejected a large amount of ash and rock debris, while a typical eruption of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano is a non-explosive outpouring of fluid lava from the volcano's vent.
The 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens was a highly explosive event that released a massive amount of energy and caused widespread destruction in the surrounding area. The eruption involved a vertical blast that ejected a large amount of ash and rock debris, as well as a lateral blast that triggered a devastating landslide. In contrast, a typical eruption of Hawaii's Kilauea Volcano is a relatively quiet event that involves the outpouring of fluid lava from the volcano's vent. These eruptions are not typically associated with explosions or the ejection of large amounts of debris.
The Hawaiian Volcano Observatory has been operating near Kilauea's summit for over 100 years because the volcano erupts frequently and provides an opportunity to study volcanic processes over a long period of time. In contrast, Mount St. Helens does not erupt frequently and was not as well monitored before the 1980 eruption. Overall, the eruptions of Mount St. Helens and Kilauea are very different in terms of their explosiveness, frequency, and associated hazards.
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there are several types of brain injuries that can occur. what are the primary (or direct) brain injuries? select all that apply.
There are several types of brain injuries that can occur. The primary (or direct) brain injuries are intracranial hemorrhage, intraparenchymal injuries, including DAI and contusions, cerebral edema, fractures, and extracranial soft-tissue injury/lacerations.
Specific areas of the brain are frequently damaged by focused and penetrating traumas. Depending on the location of the lesion and the cognitive functions affected in the affected part of the brain, a person with this kind of injury may experience less total damage as a result. In contrast, a person who falls and bangs their head on the ground may suffer damage to both the side of the brain opposite the impact and the portion of the brain at the point of impact.
It's referred to as a coup-contrecoup injury. The shearing and tearing that can happen as the brain travels back and forth within the skull can cause this type of injury to become diffuse. Contusions or bruises that cause swelling are other potential forms of harm. Brain tissue is also torn and sheared as a result of rotational trauma. When a baby is shaken, the brain frequently sustains a variety of wounds, such as coup contra coup, rotation wounds, and edema.
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The Lion King- The Original.
describe three scenes from the movie that show the following scavenger behaviors.
consume already dead animal meat.
kill and consume young, sick, or small animals.
a pack kills larger weakened animals
pleeeeeeeeease help, not trying to bribe but i'll give brainliest. its due tomorrow so i really need help
Answer:
Ok well in The Lion King their is:
> Buzzards trying to eat baby simba in the desert
> Banzai commenting to Shenzi that he want to pick "one of the little sick ones" at the wildebeest stampede scene
> Scar gave the hyena's a zebra leg which they ate when it was already dead
Hope I helped
Explanation: i watched like 20 times
Answer:
Consume already dead meat - when Scar brings the Hyena food because that food is already dead.
Kill and Consume young, sick, or small animals - When one of the Hyenas wants to eat one of the smaller or sick animals at the Stampede scene.
A pack kills larger weakened animals - I guess that could be when Scar kills Mufasa because he is already weakened or when the Vultures are trying to eat Simba because he is tired and weak from walking.
damage to the ____________ nerve may result in difficulty extending the knee as in kicking a ball.
Damage to the femoral nerve may result in difficulty extending the knee, such as when kicking a ball.
The femoral nerve is a major nerve that originates from the lumbar spine and supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the thigh, including the quadriceps muscle group. The quadriceps muscle group is responsible for extending the knee joint, which is necessary for actions like kicking a ball. When the femoral nerve is damaged, it can lead to a condition known as femoral nerve dysfunction or neuropathy. This can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, compression, inflammation, or diseases affecting the nerve. Damage to the femoral nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of the quadriceps muscles, leading to difficulty in extending the knee joint. Specifically, when the femoral nerve is affected, the individual may experience difficulty in activities that require knee extension, such as kicking a ball. The inability to properly extend the knee can impact the power, control, and range of motion necessary for such movements. Rehabilitation and treatment methods may be employed to address the underlying cause of the femoral nerve damage and restore knee extension function.
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In a controlled experiment, which group experiences the test?
A. Instruments and equipment
B. Experimental group
C. Control group
D. Measurements and observations
Answer:
c. control group
Explanation:
hope it helps you
The factor that does not affect the rate of photosynthesis is:
A. light
B. temperature
C. humidity
D. presence of pesticides
D. presence of pesticides
A. more sunlight means more photosynthesis will occur
B. high temperature means more photosynthesis will occur
C. more humidity means more photosynthesis will occur
D. presence of pesticides
Light, temperature and humidity affects the rate of photosynthesis.