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The characteristic shown by the child are decrease development due to less nutrition intake by the infants.
Failure to thrive also means weight flattering, it is failure to thrive when their weight or rate of weight gain is significantly below that of other children.
The infants with failure to thrive are usually quiet and lethargic and not hyperactive.
Symptoms/characteristic of failure to thrive are -
1. Vomiting or diarrhea
2. Fussiness
3. Weak cry
4. Poor sucking (does not feed well)
5. Hard to feed
6. Sleeps too much or not enough
7. Loses weight or does not gain enough weight.
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a large number of randomized experiments were conducted to determine whether taking a particular drug regularly would decrease the chance of getting a certain disease. for each of the experiments, the drug effect is the difference between the proportion of people taking the drug who got the disease and the proportion of people taking a placebo who got the disease. if the drug had no effect whatsoever, which of the following experimental results would be anticipated? p-values will be greater than 0.05 for about 95 percent of the experiments. there will be about an equal number of experiments showing positive and negative values of drug effect. when 95 percent confidence intervals for the population drug effect are constructed, those confidence intervals include 0 about 95 percent of the time.
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If the drug had no effect, then we would expect the p-values to be greater than 0.05 for about 95 percent of the experiments.
This indicates that there is not enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis that the drug has no effect. Additionally, we would anticipate that there will be about an equal number of experiments showing positive and negative values of drug effect. When 95 percent confidence intervals for the population drug effect are constructed, those confidence intervals should include 0 about 95 percent of the time, indicating that the true population effect of the drug is uncertain. This highlights the importance of conducting rigorous, well-designed experiments to determine the effectiveness of a drug.
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Where does alcohol impede growth of new cells in the brain?
a) Occipital lobe
b) Frontal lobe
c) Temporal lobe
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Temporal lobe because that's where the hippocampus is located,the hippocampus region is responsible for memory creation.Thus excessive drinking can result in permanent damage that inhibits the brain from retaining new memories.
dr. james is completing a report for a medical staff committee. he needs to determine the number of patients admitted by dr. tops for the month of july with the diagnosis of anemia. the best source for this information would be the .
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Best source for this information would be the physician index.
Anemia is a situation that develops when your blood produces a less-than-regular amount of wholesome red blood cells. When you have anemia, your body does not get enough oxygen-wealthy blood. The shortage of oxygen can make you sense tired or vulnerable.
The maximum common reason of anemia is not having sufficient iron. Your body wishes iron to make hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is an iron-wealthy protein that gives the red shade to blood. It consists of oxygen from the lungs to the relaxation of the body.
Its signs and symptoms include :
* Fatigue.
* Feeling week.
* Faded or yellowish pores and skin.
* Abnormal heartbeats.
* Shortness of breath.
* Dizziness or lightheadedness.
* Chest pain.
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What should George do when he encounters a new word?
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When George encounters a new word. He should read the words carefully by going through them in books and can listen carefully to the words in online lectures.
What is vocabulary?Vocabulary is the word and meaning of any book or language.
George has the ability to break down words in such a way that he memorizes less and understands more.
Learn more about the origin and structure of medical words and discuss them with his colleagues more frequently.
Therefore, when George comes upon a new word. He should carefully read the words in books, and he might carefully listen to the words in online courses.
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
George Tomlin, RMA, has been working for several years in a specialty practice. He applies for a position closer to his home with better hours and more pay. This office, however, sees patients with a variety of illnesses. For the first time since he graduated from college, he is encountering words and procedures with which he is not familiar.
2. The patient's coinsurance percentage is stated as 75-25 in the insurance policy. The deductible for the year has been met. If the visit charges are $1000, what payment should the medical insurance specialist expect
from the insurance company (payer? What amount will the patient be expected to pay?
Answers
The insurance policy specifies a 75-25 patient coinsurance ratio. The annual deductible has been satisfied. What payment should the medical insurance specialist anticipate if the appointment costs $1000 by way of the insurance firm the patient be expected to pay $750 ins; $250 patient.
An insurance expert is a specialist who advises customers and asset managers on risk management and interprets insurance policies. To create a complete solution that works well with the client's portfolio, insurance professionals need to have a thorough grasp of risk management.
The insurance policy, which establishes the claims that the insurer is legally obligated to pay, is a contract (often in standard form) between the insurer and the policyholder.
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A 32-year-old female is seen in the urologist's office because of a fever, chills, and generalized fatigue. She also reported urgency, frequency, dysuria, and hematuria. In addition, she noticed that her urine was cloudy with a fishy odor. The physician ordered the following tests: a clean catch specimen for a U/A, a urine C&S, and a KUB. The U/A revealed pyuria, bacteriuria, and a slightly acidic pH. A common type bacteria was grown in the culture. X-rays reveal acute pyelonephritis resulting from cystitis, which has spread up tohhhhyhyytyy6 the kidney from the bladder. . The patient was placed on an antibiotic and encouraged to “push fluids” by drinking 2L of water a day.
Answers
The two infections the patient has include the following:
Infection of pelvis called pyelonnephritis.Infection of the urinary bladder called cystitis. What is an Infection?This is defined as the invasion of an organism's body tissues by disease-causing agents.
In this scenario, Infection of pelvis occurred as a result of the bacterial infection of urinary bladder (lower UT) that has spread up the urinary tract to the pelvis.
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How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
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Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
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Describe the responsibilities for patient care provided by a nurse and the client care responsibilities provided by a family support worker.
Explain why HIPAA plays a role in what level of access different employees may be given in the electronic health record system.
Explain to the family support worker why he/she is not able to have the same level of access to the electronic records as the nurses on staff.
Answers
A nurse is responsible for providing medical care to patients, including administering medications, monitoring vital signs, and documenting patient progress. A family support worker, on the other hand, is responsible for providing non-medical care to patients and their families, including assisting with daily activities and providing emotional support.
HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, plays a role in what level of access different employees may be given in the electronic health record system because it is designed to protect patient privacy. HIPAA sets guidelines for who is allowed to access a patient's medical records and what information can be shared.
A family support worker may not be able to have the same level of access to electronic records as nurses on staff because they do not provide medical care and therefore do not need to access the same level of detail in a patient's medical records. Nurses, on the other hand, need access to a patient's medical history, medications, and other medical information in order to provide the necessary care. HIPAA guidelines are designed to ensure that only those who need access to a patient's medical information have it, in order to protect patient privacy.
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ME1000 How can the health care professional prepare for working with various age groups
Answers
In regards to medical doctors specifically and training with other age groups. This is especially important in the psychiatric field. Usually, doctors who work with young children are specially trained in pediatrics. This education takes place after the completion of medical school.
Those who deal with the elderly are often required to take special classes and training in gerontology. This is a branch of medicine that deals with old age.
What does the fox say?
Answers
Answer: meow
Explanation: My dog said so.
How did David’s condition increase doctors and researchers understanding of the immune system and diseases such as cancer?
Answers
Studying David's Syndrome provided researchers with insights into the genetic mutations, molecular pathways, and immune response mechanisms, leading to a deeper understanding of the immune system's complexities and its role in combating diseases.
David's condition, often referred to as "David's Syndrome," presented a unique opportunity for doctors and researchers to deepen their understanding of the immune system and diseases like cancer.
David's Syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that rendered him with an exceptionally weak immune system, making him highly susceptible to infections and other immune-related complications.
Studying David's condition allowed researchers to explore the intricacies of the immune system in unprecedented detail. By examining the specific genetic mutations responsible for his weakened immune response, scientists gained insights into the genes and molecular pathways involved in immune function.
This knowledge contributed to a broader understanding of the immune system's complex mechanisms and its role in fighting diseases. Moreover, David's susceptibility to infections offered valuable insights into the body's defense mechanisms against pathogens.
Researchers closely analyzed how his immune system responded to various infectious agents, leading to a better comprehension of the immune response's intricacies and potential vulnerabilities.
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what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
Answers
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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Which of the following laboratory results should the medical assistant recognize is abnormal?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Red blood cell count 5.2/mm3
C. Platelets 350/mm3
D. Potassium 3 mEq/L
Answers
The laboratory result that the medical assistant should recognize as abnormal is Potassium 3 mEq/L. (D)
Normal potassium levels are between 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Therefore, a potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range and is considered abnormal.
On the other hand, the other laboratory results listed are within the normal ranges. Normal sodium levels are between 135 to 145 mEq/L, normal red blood cell count is between 4.5 to 5.5/mm3 for men and 4.0 to 5.0/mm3 for women, and normal platelet count is between 150 to 450/mm3.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. Potassium 3 mEq/L.
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Any combination of planned experiences based on sound theories that provide individuals, groups, and communities the opportunity to acquire the information and skills needed to make quality health decisions is known as health:
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Health education is defined as any combination of planned experiences based on sound theories that provide individuals, groups, and communities with the opportunity to acquire the information and skills necessary to make quality health decisions.
Health education aims to assist people in learning how to live healthily by encouraging them to adopt healthy behaviors and make informed health decisions. The goal of health education is to enable individuals, groups, and communities to take charge of their own health by increasing their knowledge and providing them with the resources they need to make educated decisions.
Health education provides information on healthy lifestyle choices, disease prevention, and healthcare alternatives, among other topics. It is intended to empower people to take responsibility for their own health and well-being.Health education is an essential component of public health, and it is used to promote health and prevent illness at the individual, community, and population levels.
It is based on sound theories and research, and it is designed to be interactive, engaging, and practical. Health education programs are used to address a wide range of health issues, including communicable diseases, non-communicable diseases, and environmental health risks, among others.
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Please someone help, I don’t know how to approach the question
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Answer:
It's asking you if you should take precautions since the person has diarrbeal illness. If so, what type of precautions would you take?
Brainliest please? Thanks!
Ling brought her little fox terrier, Sparks, on vacation with her. One thing she forgot was Sparks’ insulin. Ling goes to a local pharmacy to see if she can get insulin for Sparks. The pharmacist says that they are out of synthetic insulin, but they have beef-based insulin. How will Ling MOST likely react to this news? She will thank the pharmacist because Sparks can use beef-based insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because dogs can only use synthetic insulin. She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic. She will just plan to forgo giving Sparks his insulin for the trip.
Answers
She will look for another pharmacy because insulin for dogs is pork-based or synthetic.
What are the ways of health animal monitoring?
Answers
The ways of health animal monitoring are physical examination, diagnostic tests, regular check-ups, monitoring behavior, tracking weight,
Animal health monitoring is a step taken to check and ensure that animals are in good health and will immediately take action if animals experience pain. There are several ways of monitoring the health of animals. These include:
1. Physical examination: This involves observing the animal's appearance, behavior, and body condition. It also includes checking for any signs of illness or injury, such as discharge from the eyes or nose, coughing, limping, or loss of appetite.
2. Diagnostic tests: These can include blood tests, urine tests, fecal tests, and imaging tests (such as X-rays or ultrasounds). These tests can help to identify any underlying health problems or diseases.
3. Regular check-ups: It is important to schedule regular check-ups with a veterinarian to monitor the animal's health and detect any potential problems early on.
4. Monitoring behavior: Observing an animal's behavior can provide valuable information about their health. Changes in behavior, such as a decrease in activity level or a change in eating habits, can be an indication of a health problem.
5. Tracking weight: Regularly weighing an animal can help to identify any changes in their weight, which can be an indication of a health problem.
By using these methods, it is possible to effectively monitor the health of animals and ensure that they receive the care they need.
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for which reasons are patients unlikely to introduce the topic of sex with health care providers? select all that apply.
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Embarrassment to discuss a personal subject and fear of being judged can cause the patient to avoid the introduction of the topic.
Sexual intercourse isn't attention in this query, and it can't be generalized that sufferers have few questions or problems on any topics. fitness care professionals are typically considered to be informed in situation matters related to fitness and infection.
The topic of sexuality doesn’t continually come up within the medical doctor’s office, even if it’s impacted by health situations and remedies. both sufferers and healthcare carriers may also experience uncomfortable addressing sexual problems, or some might think that sex-associated questions aren’t crucial.
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William Hansberry attended a local clinic's administration of influenza vaccine at a local shopping mall. Mr. Hansberry asks that the clinic bill Medicare for the shot Which code is assigned
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When William Hansberry attended a local clinic's administration of influenza vaccine at a local shopping mall and asks that the clinic bill Medicare for the shot, the code assigned to it is G0008.A healthcare common procedure coding system (HCPCS) code is a Medicare-specific code used to describe and report medical procedures and services.
To report services and procedures to Medicare, most healthcare providers and suppliers use HCPCS codes. When administering the influenza vaccine, the HCPCS code G0008 is used and is linked to a specific reimbursement rate. This code is for the administration of the influenza virus vaccine, and it is the only code that is used to report the administration of the flu vaccine under Medicare Part B.A healthcare provider will use G0008 for an influenza virus vaccine administration, regardless of which type of influenza virus vaccine the patient received.
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I want a pharmacist technician to help me with a question please
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Answer:
Send the question, maybe I can help
a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
Answers
b. "A small percentage of children who have febrile seizures develop epilepsy." will the nurse tell this parent a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy.
A brain condition that produces seizures is referred to generally as epilepsy. Epilepsy comes in a variety of forms. Seizures can take many distinct forms. First aid for seizures Learn how to assist someone experiencing a seizure. An acquired brain damage, such as a trauma or stroke, or a hereditary condition, such as epilepsy, may cause it. A person who is having a seizure exhibits odd actions, signs, and feelings, sometimes even losing consciousness. Between seizures, minimal symptoms exist.In addition to drugs, surgery, gadgets, and dietary modifications are occasionally used to treat epilepsy.
a parent expresses concern that a 5-year-old child may develop epilepsy because the child experienced a febrile seizure at age 18 months. what will the nurse tell this parent?
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consider a hypothesis test of the claim that following a particular diet reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease. identify the type i and type ii errors for this test. a type i error is concluding that following a particular diet has no effect on the likelihood of developing heart disease, when in reality, following a particular diet reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease. a type ii error is concluding that following a particular diet effectively reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease, when in reality, following a particular diet does not effect the likelihood of developing heart disease. a type i error is stating that the likelihood of following a particular diet is reduced by developing heart disease. a type ii error is stating that the likelihood of following a particular diet is not effect by the development of heart disease. a type i error is accepting that there was a significant relationship between following a particular diet and developing heart disease. a type ii error is accepting that there was not a signficant relationship between following a particular diet and developing heart disease. a type i error is concluding that following a particular diet reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease, when in reality, following a particular diet has no effect on the likelihood of developing heart disease. a type ii error is concluding that following a particular diet has no effect on the likelihood of developing heart disease, when in reality, following a particular diet actually reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease.
Answers
To address your question, it is important to first understand the concept of hypothesis testing.
Hypothesis testing is a statistical method used to determine whether a certain claim or hypothesis about a population is supported by the data or not. In this case, the claim is that following a particular diet reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease.
In summary, a type I error would lead us to conclude that following a particular diet reduces the likelihood of developing heart disease when in reality, it has no effect. A type II error would lead us to conclude that following a particular diet has no effect on the likelihood of developing heart disease when in reality, it does reduce the likelihood.
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while providing care to a patient, the nurse is responsible, both professionally and legally. which concept does this describe?
Answers
The concept that describes the nurse's responsibility, both professionally and legally, while providing care to a patient is accountability.
Accountability in nursing refers to the obligation of nurses to take responsibility for their actions, decisions, and behaviors in the context of patient care.
Nurses are accountable for their professional actions and are expected to adhere to ethical standards, legal regulations, and best practices in nursing. This includes ensuring patient safety, providing competent care, maintaining confidentiality, and advocating for the well-being of patients. Accountability involves being answerable for one's actions and being able to justify and explain the reasoning behind nursing interventions or decisions. It is an essential aspect of nursing practice and upholds the trust and integrity placed in nurses by patients, their families, and the healthcare system as a whole.
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a recently licensed registered nurse is preparing to enter practice in an acute care facility and wants to practice within the guidelines of that state. when preparing to research the state nurse practice act, what information is important to obtain? select all that apply.
Answers
As a newly licensed registered nurse (RN) who is preparing to practice in an acute care facility, there are several pieces of information that you should obtain when researching the State Nurse Practice Act.
Among the information that is important to obtain include the following:
Requirements for maintaining a nursing license; Scope of practice for RNs; Educational and training requirements; Laws governing delegation and supervision of nursing tasks; and Professional conduct standards.
The State Nurse Practice Act is a set of laws, rules, and regulations that govern the practice of nursing within a particular state.
It defines the legal scope of nursing practice, the education and training required for nursing licensure, and the professional conduct and ethical standards for nurses.
Additionally, the act outlines the laws governing delegation and supervision of nursing tasks. It's important for a newly licensed registered nurse to obtain information about all these aspects of the act to ensure that they are practicing within the guidelines of that state.
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A woman who has just become pregnant is used to drinking 2 pots of coffee a day. what adjustments should she make in her caffeine consumption
Answers
Answer:
limit coffee consumption to 2 cups a day
Explanation:
The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.A. Adrenal medulla; epinephrineB. Pancreas; cortisolC. Kidneys; corticosteroneD. Adrenal cortex; aldosteroneE. Thyroid; calcitonin
Answers
The most important virulence factor that contributes to the pathogenicity of S. aureus in impetigo is:
Answers
Answer & Explanation:
The most important virulence factor that contributes to the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus in impetigo is the exfoliative toxin.
Exfoliative toxins are enzymes produced by S. aureus that cause the skin to separate and slough off. In impetigo, a highly contagious skin infection that is most common in children, S. aureus colonizes the skin and produces exfoliative toxins, leading to the characteristic rash of vesicles and crusts on the skin.
Other virulence factors produced by S. aureus that contribute to the pathogenicity of impetigo.
The most important virulence factor that contributes to the pathogenicity of S. aureus in impetigo is the exfoliative toxin.
This toxin causes the skin to become detached and slough off, leading to the characteristic blisters and crusts seen in impetigo. Other virulence factors, such as adhesins and enzymes, also contribute to the pathogenicity of S. aureus in impetigo, but the exfoliative toxin is considered to be the most significant.
The most important virulence factor that contributes to the pathogenicity of S. aureus in impetigo is the production of exfoliative toxins. These toxins cause the skin cells to separate and blister, leading to the characteristic symptoms of impetigo.
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the nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a child and decides that the child needs further evaluation. which coul be the reason for seeking further evaluation?
Answers
Upon assessing the heart sounds of a child, if the nurse detects the presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds, it would be prudent to seek further evaluation.
S3 and S4 heart sounds are abnormal sounds that can indicate underlying cardiac abnormalities or conditions. These additional evaluations are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate interventions or treatments.
The presence of an S3 heart sound, also known as a ventricular gallop, suggests decreased ventricular compliance or increased ventricular filling pressures.
It is commonly associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure, dilated cardiomyopathy, or volume overload. S4 heart sound, on the other hand, referred to as an atrial gallop, may indicate decreased ventricular compliance or increased resistance to ventricular filling.
This sound is typically associated with conditions such as hypertension, myocardial ischemia, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Further evaluation may involve diagnostic tests such as an electrocardiogram (ECG), echocardiogram, or cardiac stress test. These tests can provide more detailed information about the child's cardiac function, identify structural abnormalities, assess the extent of the condition, and guide appropriate treatment decisions.
By seeking further evaluation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cardiac condition, initiate timely interventions, and improve the child's overall prognosis.
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which surgery do you think would have the most profound effect on digestion
-removal of the stomach (gastrectomy)
-removal of the pancreas (pancreatectomy)
-removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy)
Answers
Answer:
Removal of the pancreas would have the most severe effects on absorption because most chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine. Absorption requires the action of pancreatic enzymes, making the pancreas the most important.
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Explanation:
Adult stem cells can be found in _____.
A) the lungs, bone marrow, and liver
B) bone marrow, muscle, and the brain
C) the reproductive organs and the bone marrow
D) the liver, lungs, and ovaries
Answers
Answer:
Well for me
Explanation:
It's B because they can be found at the brain and bone marrow
Answer:
B) bone marrow, muscle, and the brain
Explanation:
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