How does osteoporosis weaken bones? check all that apply. lowers bone mass lowers bone density creates holes in bones causes permanent pain results in a loss in height results in stooped posture occurs in hip, spine, or wrist
Osteoporosis weakens bones by lowering bone mass and bone density and occurs in the hip, spine, or wrist.
What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a bone disease caused by a decrease in bone mineral density and mass.
It also changes the quality or structure of bone.
This can result in a loss of bone strength, increasing the risk of fractures (broken bones).
Osteoporosis is known as a "silent" illness because it rarely causes symptoms.
Fractures can occur in any bone, although the hip, vertebrae in the spine, and wrist are the most common.
Thus, the correct options are A. lowers bone mass, B. lowers bone density, and G. occurs in hip, spine, or wrist
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Which of the following conditions or behaviors is a characteristic sign of a person with anorexia nervosa?
Maintaining a BMI of 17.5 or less
Answer:yes when you maintain a 17.5 bmi or less it is a characteristic of the disease.
Explanation:As well as psychological ailments. Like depression OCD anxiety and other things such as long term health problems with bones -muscles ans well as brain functions from malnutrition
uses of Naoh .............
Explanation:
Sodium hydroxide is used in the manufacture of sodium salts and detergents, pH regulation, and organic synthesis. In bulk, NaOH is most often dissovled in water since it is cheaper and easier to handle. Sodium hydroxide is often used in bar soaps.
Explanation:
Sodium hydroxide is used in the manufacture of sodium salts and detergents, pH regulation, and organic synthesis. In bulk, NaOH is most often dissovled in water since it is cheaper and easier to handle. Sodium hydroxide is often used in bar soaps.
list at least two ways that the medical model and the bio-psycho-social model are the same
A PRESCRIPTION DRUG CANNOT LEGALLY BE BOUGHT OR SOLD WITHOUT?
16.Which of the following is an upper body muscle?
Deltoids
Precotralas Major
Bicep
All the above
Answer:
I think it's all of the above
Explanation:
Biceps are present in the fore arms
Pectoralis Major muscle is in the chest
and deltoids I don't know..
but since two of them are present in upper body, then I guess it's all of the above.
Research shows that eating certain foods according to your blood type is an effective way to prevent disease. True False.
how often does cyberbullying happen
Answer:
Cyber bullying offen has a lot of times but never do it because if you do it you can get in trouble and be explled from school or anything
Just wondering what is a song that you can relate to and why??
Fill in the blank.
Cells are the basic building
____ ao of our bodies.
Answer:
blocks
Explanation:
Cells are the basic building blocks of our bodies.
1. Document your initial focused respiratory assessment of Jennifer Hoffman.Pt appears to be in respiratory distress, struggling to breathe. She is unable to speak other than simple one-word statements. Her RR is 29 breaths per minute with increased respiratory effort; using of accessory muscles. There is a lot of audible wheezing in the chest. SpO2 78%, cough.
The initial focused respiratory assessment of Jennifer Hoffman reveals signs of respiratory distress, including increased respiratory rate (RR) of 29 breaths per minute, use of accessory muscles, audible wheezing in the chest, SpO₂ of 78%, and cough.
1. Respiratory Distress: Jennifer Hoffman is displaying signs of respiratory distress, which indicates compromised breathing and inadequate oxygenation. The presence of respiratory distress suggests a potential respiratory problem or obstruction.
2. Increased Respiratory Effort: The increased RR of 29 breaths per minute indicates rapid and shallow breathing. This is an attempt by the body to compensate for the compromised respiratory function and ensure sufficient oxygen supply.
3. Use of Accessory Muscles: Jennifer's use of accessory muscles during respiration suggests that she is recruiting additional muscle groups, such as the neck and chest muscles, to aid in breathing. This is a compensatory mechanism to overcome the difficulty in breathing.
4. Audible Wheezing: The presence of audible wheezing in the chest indicates narrowed airways and obstruction of airflow. Wheezing is a characteristic sound produced when air passes through constricted or narrowed passages.
5. SpO₂ Level: The SpO₂ reading of 78% indicates low oxygen saturation in the blood. A normal SpO2 level is typically above 95%. The decreased SpO₂ level further supports the respiratory distress and impaired gas exchange.
6. Cough: Jennifer's cough is likely a response to the underlying respiratory condition. Coughing is a reflex mechanism that helps clear the airways of mucus or foreign particles, but in this case, it may be insufficient to alleviate the respiratory distress.
Based on the initial focused respiratory assessment findings, it is evident that Jennifer Hoffman is experiencing respiratory distress, with symptoms such as increased RR, use of accessory muscles, audible wheezing, low SpO₂, and cough.
These findings indicate potential airway obstruction and compromised oxygenation. Prompt intervention and further assessment are necessary to identify the underlying cause and initiate appropriate treatment to improve Jennifer's respiratory status and alleviate distress.
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The current test used in the united states to determine if material is obscene ______.
Answer:
requires that all three prongs of the test be met.
Explanation:
The U.S. courts use a three-pronged test, commonly referred to as the Miller test, to determine if given material is obscene.
How tall is the average 13.5 year old?
Answer:
61.4 in. (156 cm)
Explanation:
How are chronic villus sampling and amniocentesis alike? How are they different?
Answer:
Chorionic villus sampling, sometimes called "chorionic villous sampling", is a form of prenatal diagnosis to determine chromosomal or genetic disorders in the fetus.Amniocentesis can be performed in a transabdominal manner while chorionic villus sampling can be performed in both transcervical or transabdominal manner.
Explanation:
when applying makeup, contouring with light colors will have what effect on the face?
Contouring with light colors will have a highlighting effect on the face, accentuating certain features and creating a brighter, more lifted appearance.
When applying makeup, contouring with light colors involves using a shade that is lighter than your skin tone to highlight areas of the face. This technique is typically used to accentuate features such as the cheekbones, brow bone, and the bridge of the nose, creating a more defined and lifted appearance. By using light colors to highlight these areas, you can draw attention to them and create a brighter, more youthful look. Additionally, contouring with light colors can help to balance out heavier makeup applications, such as dark eye makeup or bold lip colors. Overall, contouring with light colors is a useful technique for enhancing your natural features and creating a more polished, put-together look.
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why does the government intervene in the reproductive processes of women?
Answer:
For women, in particular, the ability to control decisions pertaining to their reproductive health means they control their own destiny. For this reason, reproductive rights are an essential component of an open society, without which women cannot enjoy full equality.
Explanation:
Government intervention is the action to change the decision made by individual or organization about social and economical matters by the government. For women, it is the means to control their own destiny.
Why the government intervene?This intervention helped many women to avoid unintended pregnancies, births and abortions. Women can control their own destiny by the ability to control decision pertaining to their reproductive health.
Thus, the government intervene in the reproductive process of women.
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Which characteristic is considered most essential to health-related physical fitness? A. agility
B. coordination
C. flexibility D.reaction time.
Answer: According to the information I found, the five areas of health-related fitness are cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition. Out of the options you provided, flexibility is considered one of the essential characteristics of health-related physical fitness. Therefor the answer is (C).
Flexibility is considered the most essential characteristic of health-related physical fitness.
Flexibility refers to the range of motion of joints and muscles. It is crucial for maintaining good posture, preventing injuries, and performing daily activities with ease. Flexibility exercises help improve muscle elasticity, joint mobility, and overall body movement.
By increasing flexibility, individuals can enhance their physical performance and reduce the risk of musculoskeletal imbalances or limitations. Additionally, flexibility plays a vital role in various physical activities and sports, allowing individuals to move efficiently, maintain proper body alignment, and execute movements with precision.
While agility, coordination, and reaction time are important aspects of physical fitness, flexibility serves as a foundation for optimal movement and overall health.
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Which of the following symptoms is usually not associated with testicular cancer?
pain and/or bleeding during urination
loss of size in one of the testicles
a feeling of heaviness in the scrotum
a dull ache in the groin or lower abdomen
Answer:
Loss of size in one of the testicles
Explanation:
Growth of one of the testicles is indicative of a tumor, no cancer would decrease its size.
what two goals are accomplished by the adaptability of an infant's five senses
Which of the following is LEAST helpful to record to aid in future testing sessions for an athlete?a. mental state of athlete on testing dayb. order in which the tests were performedc. setup of the equipmentd. environmental conditions
The mental state of the athlete on the testing day is the least helpful to record when aiding in future testing sessions.
While all the options—mental state of the athlete, order of tests performed, setup of equipment, and environmental conditions—are important factors to consider when recording data for future testing sessions, the mental state of the athlete on the testing day is the least helpful.
The mental state of an athlete can fluctuate and may not directly impact the validity and reliability of future testing sessions. It can be influenced by various factors such as mood, stress levels, and personal circumstances, which may not have a significant impact on the athlete's performance during subsequent testing sessions.
On the other hand, recording the order in which tests were performed is crucial as it helps maintain consistency and allows for proper comparison of results over time. Similarly, documenting the setup of equipment ensures that the same conditions are replicated for future testing sessions, ensuring accurate and reliable measurements. Environmental conditions, such as temperature, humidity, or altitude, can also affect performance and should be recorded to account for any potential variations in the athlete's results.
While the mental state of an athlete can be important to consider in certain circumstances, it is generally the least influential factor when it comes to aiding in future testing sessions for an athlete.
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What accounts for the majority of weight loss in the first week of fasting/crash dieting?.
Answer:
The majority of weight loss in the first week of fasting or crash dieting is due to water weight loss rather than fat loss. When a person consumes fewer calories than their body needs, the body starts using up its glycogen stores, which are made up of glucose and water. Each gram of glycogen is stored with approximately 3-4 grams of water. As the glycogen stores are depleted, the water that was stored with them is excreted from the body, leading to a rapid decrease in weight.
However, it is important to note that this initial weight loss is not sustainable and does not reflect actual fat loss. In fact, rapid weight loss through fasting or crash dieting can cause the body to go into starvation mode, where it conserves energy by slowing down metabolism and burning muscle tissue instead of fat. This can lead to a loss of muscle mass, which can have negative effects on overall health and weight management in the long term.
What factors are most likely to account for the differences in physical decline among elderly adults?
Answer:
Executive cognitive function involves decision making, problem solving, planning and sequencing of responses, and multitasking.
Each of these areas of executive cognitive function declines with advancing of age.
Explanation:
a goniometer is used in the orthopedic examination to measure
A goniometer is used in the orthopedic examination to measure the range of motion (ROM) of a joint. This helps assess a patient's joint flexibility, joint dysfunction, or to monitor the progress of treatment.
To use a goniometer, follow these steps:
1. Position the patient and joint to be measured properly, ensuring they are relaxed and comfortable.
2. Align the goniometer's axis (center point) with the joint's axis of rotation.
3. Place the stationary arm of the goniometer along the stationary bone, usually the proximal bone (the bone closest to the center of the body).
4. Place the moving arm of the goniometer along the moving bone, usually the distal bone (the bone furthest from the center of the body).
5. Ask the patient to move the joint through its full range of motion, or move it passively if they are unable to do it themselves.
6. Read the angle measurement from the goniometer, which represents the joint's range of motion.
Remember, a goniometer is an essential tool in orthopedic examinations for assessing joint flexibility and monitoring the progress of treatments.
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What sequence is used when caring for a seriously ill or injured child to help determine the best treatment or intervention?
The sequence used when caring for a seriously ill or injured child to help determine the best treatment or intervention is known as the ABCDE approach. This approach includes the following steps:
A: Airway: Check the child's airway to ensure that it is open and clear.
B: Breathing: Check the child's breathing to ensure that they are breathing effectively.
C: Circulation: Check the child's circulation to ensure that their heart is functioning properly and that they have adequate blood flow.
D: Disability: Check the child's level of consciousness and assess for any neurological deficits.
E: Exposure: Examine the child for any injuries or signs of illness.
By following this sequence, caregivers can quickly assess the child's condition and determine the best course of treatment or intervention.
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what proportion of adults in the united states has high blood triglycerides?
Answer:
About 1 in 5 adults in the U.S. have elevated triglyceride levels (above 150 mg/dL). But your risk goes up as you get older. Hypertriglyceridemia affects 42% of adults age 60 and above, according to research.
Explanation:
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Answer:
About 1 in 5 adults in the U.S. have elevated triglyceride levels (above 150 mg/dL). But your risk goes up as you get older. Hypertriglyceridemia affects 42% of adults age 60 and above, according to research.
Explanation:
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Can someone help me with my Orientation paper? I will give you the link in the Question section. Please help me this is due today.
Answer:
35 honesty and communication
Explanation:
Which action by a psychiatric nurse best supports a patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect?
The correct answer is option a. Consistently addressing a patient by title and surname by a psychiatric nurse best supports a patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect.
Consistently addressing a patient by their preferred title and surname demonstrates respect for their identity and affirms their dignity. It acknowledges their individuality and reinforces the importance of personal autonomy and self-expression.
By using appropriate titles and surnames, the nurse avoids making assumptions or judgments about the patient and creates a foundation of mutual respect within the therapeutic relationship. This practice recognizes the patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect, fostering a sense of validation and empowerment.
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Complete question - 2. Which action by a psychiatric nurse best supports a patient's right to be treated with dignity and respect?
a.
Consistently addressing a patient by title and surname.
b.
Strongly encouraging a patient to participate in the unit milieu.
c.
Discussing a patient's condition with another health care provider in the elevator.
d.
Informing a treatment team that a patient is too drowsy to participate in care planning.
Give me one example each of type A and B positive and negative correlations and 1 example of a zero correlation. Each correlation example should be properly stated as such: An increase in exercise may produce an increase in muscle mass (Type A Positive) or A decrease in exercise may produce an increase in body fat (Type B Negative). In your statement, do not use the words "cause" or "will", as correlations do not indicate cause and effect, just that a relationship exist between two variables. It is fine to use the word "may". Your zero correlation statement should be stated as such: No relationship exist between blonde hair and grade point average (Zero Correlation). Remember to indicate which correlation type you are using in all examples that you give. You should have 5 total examples: Type A positive, Type B positive, Type A negative, Type B negative, and Zero correlation.
There're many things which are positively and negatively related in correlation with muscle mass and body fat. Some of them are also having a zero correlation with muscle mass and body fat. The examples of type A, type B, and zero correlations examples as instructed in the question are given below.
Type A Positive correlation: An increase in exercise may produce an increase in muscle mass.
Type B Positive correlation: A decrease in exercise may produce an increase in body fat.
Type A Negative correlation: An increase in fast-food consumption may produce a decrease in life expectancy.
Type B Negative correlation: A decrease in fast-food consumption may produce an increase in health and well-being.
Zero correlation: No relationship exists between the number of shoes you own and your level of intelligence.
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Pure vegetarians who eat only plant foods are known as:
a. vegans
b. lacto-vegetarians
c. ovo-lacto-vegetarians
d. lacto-ovo-pesco-vegetarians
Pure vegetarians who eat only plant foods are known as vegans (option a). Vegans exclude all animal products from their diet, including meat, poultry, fish, dairy products, eggs, and even honey.
They rely solely on plant-based sources for their nutritional needs. This dietary choice is often driven by ethical, environmental, or health reasons.
Vegans typically consume a variety of fruits, vegetables, grains, legumes, nuts, and seeds to obtain the necessary nutrients. They may also opt for fortified plant-based alternatives to meet their protein, calcium, and vitamin B12 requirements.
By adhering to a vegan lifestyle, individuals aim to minimize their impact on animals and promote a more sustainable and compassionate approach to food consumption. The correct option is A.
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Name the four (4) AED safety tips (check the four that apply):
A. Do not sit or stand in shared water with the victim.
B. Touch the victim during the shock being delivered.
C. Don't share metal with victim.
D. DO NOT touch the victim when a shock is being delivered.
E. Do not use an AED on anyone younger than 8 years of age.
F. Leave the victi m until EMS arrives.
Answer:
Explanation:
A
C
E
F