which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? a.they carry information from the cns to the muscles. b.they are part of the cns and control reflexes. c.they transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. d.they perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing.
Answers
The proper understanding of motor neurons is that they transmit information from the central nervous system to the muscles.
Motor neurones are brain and spinal cord cells that transmit instructions from the brain to the muscles that control our ability to move, speak, swallow, and breathe. Within the spinal cord and brain are specialised brain cells called neurons known as motor neurons. A motor neuron, also known as a motoneuron or efferent neuron, is a type of neuron whose cell body is found in the motor cortex, brainstem, or spinal cord and whose axon (fibre) projects to the spinal cord or elsewhere in the body to directly or indirectly control effector organs, primarily muscles and glands.
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Related Questions
15. Sarah is a biologist who is studying a species of crab. In the wild, crabs with larger
pincers will have greater reproductive success than those with smaller pincers. To
investigate this further, she placed 50 crabs with small pincers and 50 crabs with large
pincers together in an isolated area that closely resembled their natural environment.
She observed several generations of the crabs over the next ten years. If her
experimental setup replicates the natural selection process in the wild, which result is
most likely to be observed?
A.the crabs born with small claws would develop larger claws and pass this trait to their offspring
B.The percentage of crab as with large claws would increase.
C.The percentage of crabs with small claws would increase.
D.the DNA in crabs with small claws would mutate in order to produce larger claws.
Answers
The correct answer is B. The percentage of crabs with large claws would increase.
Explanation:
Crabs with large claws have more chances to survive and reproduce; this biological advantage will make most of these crabs to successfully reproduce through generations and pass this feature to their offspring. On the opposite, crabs with smaller pincers do not have this reproductive or survival advantage, this implies many crabs with small pincers will not survive a long time or will not reproduce, and therefore this trait will not past to their offspring. Moreover, this situation will cause after many generations the large claws trait prevails, while the small claws trait decreases because crabs with larger claws are more suitable. According to this, it is expected the percentage of crabs with large claws would increase.
The uptake of carbon dioxide and the release of oxygen is essential for a plant to survive. where and how does this gas exchange generally occur?
Answers
Answer:
in the leaves, as a result of photosynthesis
Explanation:
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What accounts for the precision of crispr-cas9 genome editing?.
Answers
The precision of CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing is due to the specific targeting of the Cas9 enzyme to a particular DNA sequence by a guide RNA (gRNA).
The gRNA binds to the complementary DNA sequence and directs Cas9 to cut the DNA at that specific location. This mechanism allows for precise editing of the genome, as the DNA sequence being targeted is known and can be controlled.
Additionally, the Cas9 enzyme has a high degree of specificity, meaning it is less likely to cut unintended DNA sequences. However, it is important to note that off-target effects can still occur and researchers are working to improve the precision of CRISPR-Cas9 technology.
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When Mendel crossed two purple-flowered pea plants with each other, he obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 (purple-flowered pea plants to white-flowered pea plants). His results are consistent with which of the following sets of parents? Multiple Choice homozygous dominant purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant heterozygous purple
. When Mendel crossed two purple-flowered pea plants with each other, he obtained a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 (purple-flowered pea plants to white-flowered pea plants). His results are consistent with which of the following sets of parents?
Multiple Choice
homozygous dominant purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant
heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant
heterozygous purple pea plant and heterozygous purple pea plant
heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous dominant purple pea plant
homozygous dominant purple pea plant and heterozygous white pea plant
.
If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is
Multiple Choice
heterozygous.
homologous.
dominant.
homozygous.
recessive.
Answers
1. homozygous dominant purple pea plant and homozygous recessive white pea plant.
2. Homozygous.
Complete the following paragraph by adding the correct terms. Cells can make new cells. One cell can (a) ____________ into two new cells. This is called (b)__________________. The process of cell division goes through various states. First, the cell nucleus (c)________________ into two. A new cell surface membrane then (d)____________ the cell divides. The two new cells are called (e)_______________ and they are small. They will grow and become larger. They grow by getting (f)______________ from the food that is eaten. Once they grow to full size they can also (g)_____________. If cells divide more quickly than they should, or divide in the wrong way, (h)_____________ can develop.
Answers
One cell can divide into two new cells. This is called mitosis. The process of cell division goes through various stages. First the cell nucleus divides into two. A new cell surface membrane then severs the cell divides. The two new cells are called daughter cells and they are small.
What are the names of the two newly generated cells?The cell has double copies of everything. The DNA, genetic coding, and activities of the two new cells are identical. The first cell is referred to as the mother cell, while the two more cells are referred to as daughter cells.
A chromosome's end contains a stretch of repeating DNA sequences known as a telomere. Chromosome ends are protected from fraying or tangling by telomeres. The telomeres get a little bit shorter every time a cell divides. They eventually get so short that the cell can no longer properly divide, and the cell then perishes.
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Please no links im failing i need help
Answers
Answer:
It releases carbon dioxide when burned
Explanation:
unnatural amounts of Carbon dioxide released into the air causes global warming
Answer: C
Explanation: the oil will be not so good for the environment as it releases CO2 and adds to our carbon cycle which also adds to what is known as the greenhouse effect that is one of the main causes for climate change
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The image shows groundwater zones. Top to bottom: Porous rock or soil, Water, Impermeable rock. Zone 1 is at the top of porous rock. Zone 2 is between porous rock and water. Zone 3 is in the Water. Zone 4 is between the Water and Impermeable rock. Which is the saturated zone?
Answers
Answer:
zone 3
Explanation:
Answer:
C
Explanation:
When plants carry out photosynthesis the
chemical called _____ traps light energy
The
energy
is used to combine raw materials
to make______
The process mainly happens
in the
______ of leaf
>
Answers
The process mainly happens in the stomata of the leaf
Answer:
chemical : Chlorophyll
sunlight
the process of photosynthesis takes place in the mesophyll or stomata of the leaves
Explanation:
What is index of refraction and what does it have to do with the speed of light?
Answers
Answer:
Index of refraction is the ratio of the velocity of light in medium to the velocity of light in vacuum.
OR:
Index of refraction is the ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to sine of the angle of refraction of light propagating from one medium to another.
When the refractive index is greater, the speed of light is greater as it moves from the medium to vacuum.
I need help please help
Answers
Answer:
As during the civil war, African elephants with tusks were targeted, and the tuskless elephants were left alone. This, in turn, allowed for the tuskless elephant populace to thrive and continuously grow, while the tusked elephants saw a decline as more and more were poached. So, it is only natural that as time progresses, and assuming the circumstances remain constant, that the tusked elephant population will see a negative trend, and inversely the tuskless elephant population will see a positive trend.
The diameter of the nucleus is about 11fm . A simple model of the nucleus is that protons and neutrons are confined within a one-dimensional box of length 11fm . Part A What is the first energy level, in MeV, for a proton in such a box? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. Part B What is the second energy level, in MeV, for a proton in such a box? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units. Part C What is the third energy level, in MeV, for a proton in such a box? Express your answer to three significant figures and include the appropriate units.
Answers
The first, second, and third energy levels for a proton in a one-dimensional box of length 11fm are approximately 12.1 MeV, 48.3 MeV, and 108.9 MeV, respectively.
A. To find the first energy level of a proton in the one-dimensional box, we can use the formula for the energy eigenvalues of a particle in a box, which is given by:
E₁ = (\(h^{2} \pi ^{2}\) ÷ \(2mL^{2}\))
where E₁ is the energy, h is Planck's constant, m is the mass of the proton, and L is the length of the box.
= (6.626 × \(10^{-34}\) J \(s)^{2} \pi ^{2}\) ÷ (2 × (1.6726219 × \(10^{-27}\) kg) × (11 × \(10^{-15}\) m)²)
Converting the result from joules to MeV (1 MeV = 1.602 × \(10^{-13}\) J), we find:
E₁ ≈ 12.1 MeV
B. The second energy level can be found using the formula:
E₂ = (\(2^{2}\) × \(h^{2} \pi ^{2}\)) ÷ (\(2mL^{2}\))
E₂ ≈ 48.3 MeV
C. The third energy level can be found using the formula:
E₃ = (\(3^{3}\) × \(h^{2} \pi ^{2}\)) ÷ (\(2mL^{2}\))
E₃ ≈ 108.9 MeV
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where is alcohol metabolized
Answers
Answer:
In the Liver
Explanation:
This also includes the brain, pancreas and stomach.
6.11 The term genetic code refers to the set of three-base code words (codons) in mRNA that stand for the 20 amino acids in proteins. What are the characteristics of that code?
Answers
Answer:
Genetic code is degenerate (redundant)
Explanation:
This is kind of a vague question,but ..
The genetic code is degenerate which describes how multiple different codons can code for the same amino acid
Example: UCC,UCU,UCA and UCG all code for Serine
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called
Answers
The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is produced by cells around the embryo, that is, trophoblastic cells that develop into the placenta, after fertilization. Its main function is to maintain the corpus luteum during the early stages of pregnancy. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that develops after the release of an egg from the ovary, that is, after ovulation. It produces progesterone, which is essential for the maintenance of pregnancy in humans.
If an egg is fertilized by a sperm, the resulting embryo secretes hCG, which signals the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone. This is necessary to prevent the lining of the uterus from shedding and to maintain the pregnancy. If the corpus luteum did not receive this signal, it would degenerate after about 12 days, and progesterone levels would decline. This would cause the lining of the uterus to be shed and menstruation to occur. The levels of hCG in a woman's blood and urine can be used to diagnose pregnancy. hCG levels rise rapidly in the first few weeks of pregnancy and can be detected by a blood or urine test. After about 10 weeks of pregnancy, hCG levels start to decline and eventually level off.
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A ___ is performed frequently during a procedure due to debris accumulating from the preparation of the tooth.
Answers
The given statement "A ___ is performed frequently during a procedure due to debris accumulating from the preparation of the tooth" mentions a procedure that is frequently performed due to debris accumulating from the preparation of the tooth. So, the blank can be filled with the term "Saliva ejector".
Saliva ejector is a small suction device that is used during dental procedures to remove saliva, blood, and other debris from the mouth.
The dental assistant inserts the saliva ejector into the patient's mouth, where it sucks up the debris and sends it to a waste receptacle.
The saliva ejector is one of the most commonly used instruments in dentistry, and it plays an important role in maintaining a clean and dry working environment during dental procedures.
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In the warburg effect, cancer cells preferentially use ______ for atp production. this phenomenon is used to clinically diagnose cancer via pet scans.
Answers
In the Warburg effect, cancer cells preferentially use glucose for ATP production. This phenomenon is used to clinically diagnose cancer via PET scans.
In the Warburg effect, cancer cells preferentially use glucose for ATP (adenosine triphosphate) production. This phenomenon is known as aerobic glycolysis. Cancer cells exhibit a higher rate of glucose uptake and metabolism compared to normal cells, even in the presence of oxygen. Instead of relying primarily on oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria for ATP production, cancer cells predominantly utilize glycolysis, which converts glucose into lactate, even under aerobic conditions.
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The huge U.S. Army base at Fort Bragg, North Carolina is home to a number of butterflies, plus other endangered animals and plants. Howitzers used during artillery training kill some of the butterflies, but fires started by the howitzer blasts also produce conditions in the base’s forests and wetlands that the butterflies need to survive. This is an example of which characteristic of military bases that makes them useful for conservation?
Answers
Answer: Because they cause a disturbed ecosystems.
Explanation: It is evident that the military base provided both survival and elimination platforms for the butterflies species, translating that the butterflies are living in a disturbed ecosystem.
Hence, this provides a good template to understudy conservation for the purpose of maintaining and making wise-use of important wildlife resources and most importantly, the endangered species. Butterflies species dynamics had been used as an important tool for conservation for years now.
from these results, determine the relationship between the mutant allele and its corresponding wild-type allele in each line. Label each mutant line with the best statement from the list below. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all. twist The mutant allele is dominant to its corresponding wild- type allele. The mutant allele is recessive to its forked corresponding wild- type allele. The mutant allele is neither dominant nor completely recessive to its corresponding wild-type allele. pale Submit Hints My Answers Give Up Review Part reset help
Answers
The mutant allele is neither dominant nor completely recessive to its corresponding wild-type allele.
Allele frequency refers to how not unusual an allele is in a populace. It is decided by counting how typically the allele seems inside the population and then dividing by the full variety of copies of the gene.
Gene frequency can be defined as the fraction or percentage of a population that contains an allele at a selected locus (Gillespie 2004). It is also extra accurately known as allele frequency.
Relative genotype frequency and relative allele frequency are the most essential measures of genetic variation. Relative genotype frequency is the proportion of individuals in a populace that has a specific genotype.
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which of these events happended first?
Answers
I just need help understanding this one i have dyslexia and I'm not really following what this is saying I'm reading but its just not coming together
Answers
Answer: so i think you have to make that just with-out the animal id/k
thats what i can think of have a good day
Explanation:
factors that contribute to difficulty in eliminating fungal infections via the body's defenses include: group of answer choices many fungi are resistant to cell mediated immune responses. the capsules of some fungi resist phagocytosis. both resistance to phagocytosis and cell mediated immunity. many pathogenic fungi are resistant to the action of complement. many pathogenic fungi produce leukocidins.
Answers
Factors that contribute to difficulty in eliminating fungal infections via the body's defenses include both resistance to phagocytosis and cell mediated immunity.
Phagocytosis is the process by which a cell engulfs a large particle with its plasma membrane, creating an internal compartment known as the phagosome. A phagocyte is a cell that undergoes phagocytosis. Several immune system cells, including neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and B lymphocytes, engage in phagocytosis. The function of phagocytizing pathogenic or foreign material notifies immune system cells about what they are fighting.
Immune responses that do not involve antibodies are referred to as cell-mediated immunity. In response to an antigen, cell-mediated immunity involves the stimulation of phagocytes, antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines. Cell-mediated immune responses include cytotoxic T cell destruction of infected cells or macrophage destruction of intracellular pathogens.
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Can you label the structures of a plant cell? to review the structure of a plant cell, watch this bioflix animation: tour of a plant cell.
Answers
A plant cell is made up of numerous components or organelles, each of which has a specific function. Organelles are membrane-bound compartments that are present inside the cell and perform various functions.
Here are the structures of a plant cell:
1. Nucleus - The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle that contains DNA, which is responsible for the control of cellular activities and the production of proteins.
2. Mitochondria - Mitochondria are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy.
3. Chloroplasts - Chloroplasts are responsible for the process of photosynthesis. They contain the pigment chlorophyll, which absorbs light energy from the sun and converts it into food for the plant.
4. Endoplasmic Reticulum - The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of tubes and flattened sacs that transport materials within the cell.
5. Golgi Apparatus - The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for delivery to other parts of the cell or for export outside the cell.
6. Vacuoles - Vacuoles are membrane-bound organelles that store water, ions, and other materials.
7. Cell wall - The cell wall provides structure and support to the cell, as well as protection from mechanical stress.
8. Cell membrane - The cell membrane is the outermost layer of the cell, which is made up of lipids and proteins. It regulates the entry and exit of materials from the cell.
9. Ribosomes - Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis in the cell. They read the mRNA (messenger RNA) instructions and build the protein molecules accordingly.These are the structures of a plant cell.
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The diagram below represents a reproductive process.Which reproductive process is represented by the diagram?
Answers
Answer: Asexual Reproduction
Explanation:
The diagram below represents meiosis a reproductive process, used for the development of gametes, hence option B is correct.
What is meiosis?It is the cell cycle stage in which the chromosome number of the parent cell gets reduced in the daughter cell, it is used to produce haploid gametes.
While mitosis is the cellular stage in which diploid organisms are used to increase the cell numbers of somatic cells it does not generally occur in germ cells of humans. As similar to mitosis asexual reproduction also produces identical cells.
Meiosis proceeds in the germ cell, where diploid organism produce haploid cells which are fertilized to form the diploid zygote.
Therefore, the given diagram in the question represents the meiosis reproductive process.
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Is the cheek cell a eukaryotic or prokaryotic cell?
Answers
Answer:
Cheek cells are eukaryotic cells
Answer the following questions:
1. Describe the purpose of mitosis.
2. Describe what is happening in each stage and what each stage looks like:
Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
Answers
Answer:
Not sure about the second one but the first is The purpose of mitosos is to produce more cells
Explanation:
i need help pls somebody
Answers
WILL GIVE BRAINISLIST IF CORRECT
[] What are the kingdoms in our current classification system?
[] protist
[] eukarya
[] fungi
[] animalia
[] planta
[] monera
[] eubacteria
[] archaea
Answers
Answer:
Protists, Fungi, Monera (eubacteria), and Archaea (archaebacteria)
Explanation:
i love the internet
What are laws?
(sociology)
Answers
Answer:
the system of rules which a particular country or community recognizes as regulating the actions of its members and which it may enforce by the imposition of penalties.
Explanation:
Laws are just like rules
Answer:
Set of rules and guidelines set forth by an authoritative body who can enforce said rules.
Explanation: Edge 2021
rules set by the gov.
Help please! Thank you <3
Answers
Summarize this paragraph
Environmental measurements
Monthly averaged measurements of environmental factors and nutrients are shown in Table 2. The recorded seawater tempera tures in the two sampling sites ranged between 18 and 36 °C. The lowest temperature (18 °C) was measured in both sites during the early January. The highest temperatures (34 and 36 °C in the mari culture centre and the marina, respectively) were recorded during the end of August. There were minor variations in temperature between the two sampling sites, which might be due to sampling timing during the day (ie, early morning or midday).Seawater salinity is generally high in restricted areas such as coastal lagoons and semi-enclosed marinas. Salinity levels ranged between 43 and 46 psu in the two sampling sites reflecting typical high seawater salinity in the Arabian Gulf. Despite receiving an input of low-salinity water from the mariculture facilities, the lagoon showed slightly higher levels of salinity than the marina. Levels of pH ranged between 7.3 and 7.9, with averages of 7.6 and 7.5 in the marina and the mariculture centre, respectively. Mariculture activities are typically associated with an increased load of dissolved nutrients in the effluent discharges, Levels of am monia and phosphate were higher in the mariculture centre than the marina. The mean concentrations of ammonia and phosphate) were 0.55 and 0.18 in the mariculture centre compared to 0.17 and 0.07 mg in the marina, respectively. The mean concentrations of nitrate and nitrite were 0.37 and 0.02 in the mariculture centre compared to 0.33 and 0.07 mg I in the marina, respectively. PCA analysis revealed that nutrients (ammonia, nitrate, nitrite and phosphate) and salinity are strongly correlated with mariculture centre (Fig. 3).
Answers
The paragraph describes monthly measurements of environmental factors and nutrients in two sampling sites, including seawater temperatures, salinity levels, pH, and nutrient concentrations.
The paragraph provides a summary of the monthly measurements of various environmental factors and nutrients in two sampling sites. The seawater temperatures ranged between 18 and 36 °C, with the lowest temperature observed in early January and the highest temperatures recorded at the end of August. Minor variations in temperature between the two sites were likely due to the timing of sampling.
Seawater salinity levels ranged between 43 and 46 psu, reflecting the high salinity typically found in the Arabian Gulf. The lagoon showed slightly higher salinity levels than the marina, despite receiving low-salinity water from mariculture facilities.
pH levels ranged from 7.3 to 7.9, with slightly higher averages in the marina compared to the mariculture centre.
The mariculture centre had higher levels of dissolved nutrients, including ammonia and phosphate, compared to the marina. Concentrations of ammonia, phosphate, nitrate, and nitrite were all higher in the mariculture centre.
Principal Component Analysis (PCA) revealed a strong correlation between nutrients (ammonia, nitrate, nitrite, and phosphate) and salinity with the mariculture centre.
Overall, the paragraph presents an overview of the monthly environmental measurements, highlighting variations in seawater temperature, salinity, pH, and nutrient concentrations between the two sampling sites.
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