Which orbit has the highest energy?
n = 1
n = 2
n = 3

Answer:

The strongest lines are at 337.1 nm wavelength in the ultraviolet. Other lines have been reported at 357.6 nm, also ultraviolet. This information refers to the second positive system of molecular nitrogen, which is by far the most common.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explained below.

Explanation:

Conductors can be defined as materials that permit electricity to flow through them easily.

Now, metals have a molecular structure that makes them good conductors because electrons in the atoms of these conductors tend to move freely from one atom to the other. So a majority of metals make good conductors because these metals tend to hold their electrons loosely. In short, it can help engineers make powerful batteries because then it means that they are capable of giving much more electrical energy since nowadays, advanced batteries make use of ion charges for the batteries.

Reflected wave E: -30 cos(wt - Bz)ax - 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay V/m

Reflected wave H: (1/377) x (-30 cos(wt - Bz)ax - 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay)

Transmitted wave E: 0 V/m

Transmitted wave H: 0

To find H₁, we can use the relation between electric field (E) and magnetic field (H) in a uniform plane wave in free space. The relation is given by:

H = (1/η) x E

where η is the intrinsic impedance of air, which is approximately 377 ohms. Given the electric field Ei = 30 cos(wt - Bz)ax + 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay V/m, we can calculate H₁ as follows:

H₁ = (1/377) x Ei

Substituting the values, we have:

H₁ = (1/377) x (30 cos(wt - Bz)ax + 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay)

When the uniform plane wave encounters a perfectly conducting plate normal to the z-axis at z = 0, it gets reflected. The electric field and magnetic field of the reflected wave can be found using the boundary conditions for a perfect conductor. The reflected wave has the same magnitude as the incident wave, but the direction of the electric field is reversed.Therefore, the reflected electric field Er = -30 cos(wt - Bz)ax - 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay V/m.

Using the same relation as before, we can find the reflected magnetic field Hr:

Hr = (1/377) x Er

Substituting the values, we have:

Hr = (1/377) x (-30 cos(wt - Bz)ax - 40 sin(wt - Bz)ay)

The transmitted wave occurs when the incident wave passes through the conducting plate. Since the plate is a perfect conductor, the transmitted wave is completely absorbed, and there is no transmission through the plate. Therefore, the transmitted wave has zero electric field and magnetic field.

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Answer:

gang

Explanation:

yupppp

Answer:

V(t) = √13/4c

Explanation:

See attachment

Answer:

In a third class lever, the effort is located between the load and the fulcrum. ... If the fulcrum is closer to the effort, then the load will move a greater distance. A pair of tweezers, swinging a baseball bat or using your arm to lift something are examples of third class levers.

Explanation:

The value of the inductance, in , microhenrys of Tarik's solenoid is approximately 1.6239 microhenrys.

To calculate the inductance of a solenoid, we can use the formula:

L = (μ₀ * N² * A) / l

where L is the inductance, μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A), N is the number of turns, A is the cross-sectional area of the solenoid, and l is the length of the solenoid.

In this case, we have:

N = 175 turns

Diameter = 8.05 mm = 0.00805 m (converted to meters)

Radius = Diameter / 2 = 0.00805 m / 2 = 0.004025 m

Length (l) = 2.37 cm = 0.0237 m (converted to meters)

First, let's find the cross-sectional area (A) using the formula for the area of a circle:

A = π * r² = π * (0.004025 m)² ≈ 5.08398 × 10⁻⁵ m²

Now we can plug in the values into the formula for inductance:

L = (4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A * (175)² * 5.08398 × 10⁻⁵ m²) / 0.0237 m

L ≈ (1.2566 × 10⁻⁶ * 30625 * 5.08398 × 10⁻⁵) / 0.0237

L ≈ (38.5086 × 10⁻⁶) / 0.0237

L ≈ 1.6239 × 10⁻⁶ H

Now, let's convert the inductance from henrys to microhenrys:

L ≈ 1.6239 × 10⁻⁶ H * 10⁶ μH/H ≈ 1.6239 μH

So the inductance of Tarik's solenoid is approximately 1.6239 microhenrys.

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Answer:D

Explanation:

R =  

V

I

=  

120 volt

0.8 ampere

=  150 ohm (Ω)

P =  V × I

=  120 volt × 0.8 ampere

=  96 watt (W)

An electric light installation  can draw Power of 96 Watt  at 120 V if it creates a current of 0.8 amps

Electric power  is the rate of electric energy transfer by an electric circuit per unit time . It is denoted by P and measured using the SI unit of power that is Watt (W)

since, Electric Power   = voltage * current

Power    = 120 V * 0.8 A

Power    = 96 Watts

An electric light installation  can draw Power of 96 Watt  at 120 V if it creates a current of 0.8 amps

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Answer:

The answer is a fixed pulley

Answer:-2.86*10⁻⁴

Explanation: Use the equation change in volume = (change in pressure * original volume) / Bulks Modulus. ΔV = (-Δp*V₀) / B

Plugging in your numbers, you should get ΔV = (-2.29*10⁷*1) / (8*10¹⁰) = -2.86*10⁻⁴

ΔP = P₂-P₁  ----> ΔP = 2.30*10⁷ - 1.00*10⁵ = 2.29*10⁷

Answer:

Lol

Explanation:

Answer:

No energy

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, it is likely that the figure shows an alternating current (AC). The arrows under the electrons pointing right and left, both towards and away from the light bulb, indicate that the direction of the electron flow is changing periodically. This is a characteristic of alternating current, where the flow of electric charge reverses direction periodically, typically in a sinusoidal manner.

In an AC circuit, the voltage also changes direction periodically, which is consistent with the changing direction of the electron flow shown in the figure.

In an alternating current, the flow of electrons periodically reverses direction, causing the current to switch between positive and negative values. This is different from direct current (DC), where electrons flow in a single, constant direction.

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Answer:

a protractor

Explanation:

because protractors measure angles

Answer:

=24.25 ^−1

Explanation:

Let   and   be initial and final velocity of the body respectively,  

be acceleration due to gravity ( 9.8^−2 ),  ℎ be the height of the body.

=0 ^ −1

ℎ=30

we know that, ^2−^ 2=2ℎ

^2=2∗9.8∗30

^2=588

=24.25 ^−1

A beaver runs at a speed of 2.0 m/s with 45 J of kinetic energy, then the mass is approximately 1.74 kg, and this can be calculated by using the  kinetic energy (KE) of an object that is KE = (1/2) ×m × \(v^2\).

KE = (1/2) ×m × \(v^2\).

where m= mass of the object, v=its velocity.

The beaver runs at a speed of 2.0 m/s with 45 J of kinetic energy. Substituting these values into the above equation

45 J = (1/2) ×m × \((2.0 m/s)^2\)

Simplifying this equation:

45 J = (1/2) × m × 4.0\(m^2/s^2\)

45 J = 2 m × 2 \(m^2/s^2\)

45 J = 4 \(m^3/s^2\)

\(m^3\) = 45 J / 4 \(s^2\)

\(m^3\) = 11.25 kg×\(m^2/s^2\)

Taking the cube root of both sides to solve for mass,

m = (11.25 kg×\(m^2/s^2)^(^1^/^3^)\)

m = 1.74 kg (rounded to two decimal places)

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The current flowing through the 30.0 Ω resistor is 2.0 A, which corresponds to option C.

To find the current flowing through the 30 Ω resistor, we can use Ohm's Law, which states that the current (I) flowing through a resistor is equal to the voltage (V) across the resistor divided by its resistance (R).

Given that the voltage across the circuit is 120.0 V, we can calculate the current flowing through each resistor.

For the 10.0 Ω resistor, using Ohm's Law: I = V/R = 120.0 V / 10.0 Ω = 12.0 A.

For the 20.0 Ω resistor, again using Ohm's Law: I = V/R = 120.0 V / 20.0 Ω = 6.0 A.

Now, let's find the total resistance in the circuit. Since the three resistors are connected in series, we can add them up: R_total = 10.0 Ω + 20.0 Ω + 30.0 Ω = 60.0 Ω.

Next, we can find the current flowing through the 60.0 Ω equivalent resistance. Again, using Ohm's Law: I = V/R = 120.0 V / 60.0 Ω = 2.0 A.

Finally, to find the current flowing through the 30.0 Ω resistor, we can apply Ohm's Law once more: I = V/R = 2.0 A.

Therefore, the current flowing through the 30.0 Ω resistor is 2.0 A, which corresponds to option C.

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Answer:

\(thank \: you\)

Answer:

I feel exited and happy I enjoy it with my friend

Given that the mass of the ball is m1= 0.75 kg and initial velocity, u1 = 21 m/s.

This ball strikes a bottle of mass, m2= 0.5 kg, and the initial velocity of the bottle, u2 = 0 m/s.

We have to find the final velocity of the ball, v1 after collision with the bottle having final velocity, v2 = 20 m/s

Momentum is conserved during a collision. So, the equation of momentum can be written as

Substituting the values, v1 will be

Thus, the velocity of the ball is 7.67 m/s.

Answer:

- They need oxygen to burn fuel

- Aerodynamics

- Extreme temperatures

- Radiation

- Pressure issues

Explanation:

A airplane is a heavier-than-air aircraft kept aloft by the upward thrust exerted by the passing air on its fixed wings and driven by propellers, jet propulsion, etc.

Aeroplanes cannot travel in space for several reasons:

They need oxygen to burn fuel - Aeroplane engines rely on the oxygen in the atmosphere to burn fuel and generate thrust. In space, there is no atmosphere so there is no oxygen for the engines to work.

Aerodynamics - Aeroplane wings generate lift by interacting with the air. In space, there is no air so wings would be unable to generate any lift. Aeroplanes rely on aerodynamics to fly which does not work in space.

Extreme temperatures - In space, temperatures can range from -150 degrees Celsius to 150 degrees Celsius. Aeroplanes are designed to operate within a much narrower temperature range. The extreme cold and heat of space could damage aeroplane components.

Radiation - In space, there are high levels of radiation from the Sun and cosmic rays. Aeroplane bodies are not designed to shield against this type of radiation and it could damage electronics and affect aeroplane systems.

Pressure issues - Aeroplanes are designed to withstand air pressures at altitudes up to around 12 kilometers. In low-Earth orbit and beyond, the air pressure is essentially zero. This extreme change in pressure could cause structural damage to the aeroplane.

In summary, while aeroplanes are designed to fly through the Earth's atmosphere, they lack the key features needed to operate in the extreme environment of outer space like spaceships. Aeroplanes require things like oxygen, aerodynamics and being able to withstand changes in pressure - all of which do not exist or work the same way in space.

Explanation:

The wing is pushed up by the air under it. Large planes can only fly as high as about 7.5 miles. The air is too thin above that height. It would not hold the plane up.

Answer:

Approximately \(4.77\; {\rm s}\).

Explanation:

Let \(u\) denote the initial velocity of this apple. Let \(v\) denote the velocity of the apple right before landing (final velocity.) Let \(x\) denote the displacement of this apple (from the edge to the bottom.) Let \(a\) denote the acceleration of this apple. Let \(t\) denote the time it takes for the apple to land.

The acceleration of this apple is \(a = (-9.81)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-2}}\). This value is negative since the apple is accelerating downwards.

It is given that the initial velocity of the apple was \(u = 15\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\). Note that unlike \(a\), the value of \(u\) is positive since the apple was initially travelling upwards.

The displacement of the apple would be \(x = (-40)\; {\rm m}\)- equal to the height of the cliff in magnitude, but negative since the apple would land at a location below the edge.

Since the acceleration of this apple is a constant value, the SUVAT equation \(v^{2} - u^{2} = 2\, a\, x\) will apply.

Rearrange this equation and solve for \(v\) (velocity of apple right before landing):

\(\begin{aligned}v^{2} &= 2\, a\, x + u^{2}\end{aligned}\).

Note that the apple will be travelling downward right before it lands. Therefore, the value of \(v\) (velocity right before the apple lands) will be negative:

\(\begin{aligned}v &= -\sqrt{2\, a\, x + u^{2}}\end{aligned}\).

Substitute in \(a = (-9.81)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-2}}\), \(x = (-40)\; {\rm m}\), and \(u = 15\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\):

\(\begin{aligned}v &= -\sqrt{2\, a\, x + u^{2}} \\ &= -\sqrt{2\times (-9.81)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-2}}\times (-40)\; {\rm m} + (15\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}})^{2}} \\ &\approx -31.78\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\end{aligned}\).

In other words, the velocity of the apple would have changed from \(u = 15\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\) to \((-31.78)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\) during the flight. The velocity change would be:

\(\begin{aligned} \Delta v &= v - u \\ &\approx (-31.78)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}} - 15\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}} \\ &= -46.78\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}\end{aligned}\).

At a rate of \(a = (-9.81)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-2}}\), the time it takes to achieve such velocity change would be:

\(\begin{aligned} t &= \frac{\Delta v}{a} \\ &\approx \frac{(-46.78)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-1}}}{(-9.81)\; {\rm m\cdot s^{-2}}} \\ &\approx 4.77\; {\rm s} \end{aligned}\).

Answer:

30.3 meters, 172 degrees.

Explanation:

The diameter of the smaller end of the pipe is approximately 0.78 meters.

To determine the diameter of the smaller end of the pipe, we can use the principle of conservation of mass. According to this principle, the mass flow rate of water should remain constant throughout the pipe.

The mass flow rate is given by the equation:
Mass flow rate = density of water * cross-sectional area * velocity

Since the density of the water remains constant, we can write:
Cross-sectional area1 * velocity1 = Cross-sectional area2 * velocity2

Given that the velocity1 is 13 m/s, the diameter1 is 1.2 m, and the velocity2 is 30 m/s, we can solve for the diameter2 using the equation:
(pi * (diameter1/2)^2) * velocity1 = (pi * (diameter2/2)^2) * velocity2

Simplifying the equation:
(1.2/2)^2 * 13 = (diameter2/2)^2 * 30

Calculating the equation:
(0.6)^2 * 13 = (diameter2/2)^2 * 30

0.36 * 13 = (diameter2/2)^2 * 30

4.68 = (diameter2/2)^2 * 30

Dividing both sides by 30:
0.156 = (diameter2/2)^2

Taking the square root of both sides:
0.39 = diameter2/2

Multiplying both sides by 2:
0.78 = diameter2

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Answer:

A drunk driver's car travel 49.13 ft further than a sober driver's car, before it hits the brakes

Explanation:

Distance covered by the car after application of brakes, until it stops can be found by using 3rd equation of motion:

2as = Vf² - Vi²

s = (Vf² - Vi²)/2a

where,  

Vf = Final Velocity of Car = 0 mi/h

Vi = Initial Velocity of Car = 50 mi/h

a = deceleration of car  

s = distance covered

Vf, Vi and a for both drivers is same as per the question. Therefore, distance covered by both car after application of brakes will also be same.

So, the difference in distance covered occurs before application of brakes during response time. Since, the car is in uniform speed before applying brakes. Therefore, following equation shall be used:

s = vt

FOR SOBER DRIVER:

v = (50 mi/h)(1 h/ 3600 s)(5280 ft/mi) = 73.33 ft/s

t = 0.33 s

s = s₁

Therefore,

s₁ = (73.33 ft/s)(0.33 s)

s₁ = 24.2 ft

FOR DRUNK DRIVER:

v = (50 mi/h)(1 h/ 3600 s)(5280 ft/mi) = 73.33 ft/s

t = 1 s

s = s₂

Therefore,

s₂ = (73.33 ft/s)(1 s)

s₂ = 73.33 ft

Now, the distance traveled by drunk driver's car further than sober driver's car is given by:

ΔS = s₂ - s₁

ΔS = 73.33 ft - 24.2 ft

ΔS = 49.13 ft

Answer:

  about 14.7°

Explanation:

The formula for the angle of the first minimum is ...

  sin(θ) = λ/a

where θ is the angle relative to the door centerline, λ is the wavelength of the sound, and "a" is the width of the door.

The wavelength of the sound is the speed of sound divided by the frequency:

  λ = (340 m/s)/(1300 Hz) ≈ 0.261538 m

Then the angle of interest is ...

  θ = arcsin(0.261538/1.03) ≈ 14.7°

At an angle of about 14.7°, someone outside the room will hear no sound.

Acceleration is the change in the velocity of the object with time. Acceleration is the same for both objects so both objects will reach the ground at the same time.

Given that both the object dropped at the same time. So the gravitational acceleration of both the objects will be the same which is nearly 10 m/s.

The force at object 1 is given below.

\(F_1 = m_1\times g = m_1\times a_1\)

Where m1 is the mass of object 1 and a1 is the acceleration of object 1.

\(F _1 = 1\times 10 = 10 \;\rm N\)

The acceleration of object 1 is calculated as below.

\(a_1 = \dfrac{F_1}{m_1}\)

\(a_1=\dfrac{10}{1} = 10 \;\rm m/s^2\)

The force at object 2 is given below.

\(F_2 = m_2\times g = m_2\times a_2\)

Where m2 is the mass of object 2 and a2 is the acceleration of object 2.

\(F_2 = 2\times 10 =20 \;\rm N\)

The acceleration of object 2 is calculated as below.

\(a_2 = \dfrac{F_2}{m_2}\)

\(a_2=\dfrac{20}{2} = 10 \;\rm m/s^2\)

Hence we can conclude that the acceleration of both the objects is the same at every point so they will reach the ground at the same time.

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Answer:

money is not rare. you can find it everywhere. what exactly is the question? whether it is bad or not is an opinion.

Explanation:

The diagram which represents the electric field around a negatively charged conducting sphere is: Image D.

An electric charge can be defined as a fundamental, physical property of matter, that typically governs how particles are affected by an electric field or electromagnetic field, especially due to the presence of an electrostatic force.

The electric field around a negatively charged conducting sphere are all attracted to the sphere in accordance with the law of electrostatic forces, as depicted by Image D in the given diagram.

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