Answers
Red blood cell survival can be increased and transfusions can be avoided after spleen removal. child declaration a nurse who had a splenectomy due to beta-thalassemia.
Splenectomy helps thalassemia in what ways?Thalassemia patients frequently need splenectomy surgery. To reduce blood consumption and the need for transfusions with the ultimate goal of lowering iron overload is the fundamental therapeutic justification for splenectomy in transfusion-dependent patients with -thalassaemia major (TM).
Why does beta thalassemia have splenomegaly?Beta thalassemia patients may experience an enlarged spleen due to an increase in the death of red blood cells, the development of blood cells outside of the bone marrow (extramedullary hematopoiesis), frequent blood transfusions, or iron overload.
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Related Questions
What is the cause behind depression? Environmental factors, genetics etc. Why does depression make it difficult for some patients to overcome with or without therapy? Have your answer backed by logic or a scientific explanation.
Answers
Answer:
What Are the Main Causes of Depression?
Abuse. Past physical, sexual, or emotional abuse can increase the vulnerability to clinical depression later in life.
Certain medications. ...
Conflict. ...
Death or a loss. ...
Genetics. ...
Major events. ...
Other personal problems. ...
Serious illnesses.
Explanation:
As the field of clinical behavior analysis grows, it will benefit from analyses of increasingly complex and common clinical phenomena, especially those with significant public health implications. One such phenomenon is clinical depression, considered to be the “common cold” of outpatient populations.
A client has been taking antibiotics at home for the treatment of a respiratory infection for the past 6 days, and there is no evident improvement in the infection. Which nursing assessment is most appropriate
Answers
The most appropriate nursing assessment in this situation would be to assess for potential antibiotic resistance and the need for a different treatment approach.
In the explanation, it is important to consider that the client has been taking antibiotics for 6 days without any noticeable improvement in the respiratory infection. This lack of improvement could be indicative of antibiotic resistance, where the bacteria causing the infection are not responding to the current antibiotic treatment. The nursing assessment should focus on evaluating the client's symptoms, vital signs, and any potential signs of worsening infection.
Additionally, the nurse should assess the client's medical history, previous antibiotic use, and any potential risk factors for antibiotic resistance. Based on this assessment, the appropriate action would be to consult with the healthcare provider for a possible change in the antibiotic regimen or alternative treatment options.
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A veterinarian needs to possess strong
skills to retain, understand, and interpret a lot of information accurately.
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A veterinarian is someone who is trained to treat disease or injury in animals. They are popularly known as Veterinary Doctor.
To be able to find success in the profession, a veterinarian needs certain qualities which includes:
1. Great observation
2. Effective communication
3. High motor skills
4. Impressive intellectual: this comprises of possession of strong
skills to retain, understand and interpret a lot of information accurately.
5. Good socio-behavioral attributes
Therefore, it is TRUE that a veterinarian needs to possess strong skills to retain, understand and interpret a lot of information accurately.
when caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Answers
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer: synthetic vasopressin for hormone replacement therapy.
What is diabetes insipidus?Uncommon illness called diabetes insipidus disrupts the fluid balance in the body. You create a lot of urine as a result of this imbalance. Even if you have anything to drink, it also makes you really thirsty.
Because they have more placental tissue, women who are carrying multiple babies are more prone to acquire the illness.
You'll be instructed to refrain from drinking anything for several hours while being observed by a doctor and medical staff.
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identify any two factors that could promote unacceptable behaviour among spectators
Answers
Answer:
. Social Identity Theory
Hooliganism
Explanation:
The chemical messengers which travel from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neurons
are called
A. Glia
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Myelin
D. DNA
Answers
Answer:
Neurotransmitters
Explanation:
Like the name suggest, these chemicals transmit among the neurons. Thus, the name neurotransmitter.
The chemical messengers which travel from the presynaptic to the postsynaptic neurons are called \(NUEROTRANSMITTERS\).
3.What adjustments to afferent or efferent radius can be made to compensate for the effect of reduced blood pressure on GFR
Answers
Answer:
Increasing the afferent radius or decreasing the efferent would compensate for lowered blood pressure. Increasing the afferent radius had a greater effect than decreasing the efferent radius because there was a greater increase in glomerular pressure.
Which finding would be more suggestive of a hypoglycemic episode than of a hyperglycemic episode?
A.
BGL of 569 mg/dL
B.
Rapid onset of AMS
C.
Dry mucous membranes
D.
Bradycardia
Answers
Rapid onset of AMS is more suggestive of a hypoglycemic episode than a hyperglycemic episode. The correct answer is option B.
AMS (altered mental status) is a common symptom of hypoglycemia, which occurs when the blood sugar level drops too low. Hyperglycemia, on the other hand, is characterized by high blood sugar levels. A BGL (blood glucose level) of 569 mg/dL is extremely high and would suggest hyperglycemia.
Dry mucous membranes are not specific to either condition. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) can occur in both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, but it is not a distinguishing symptom. Rapid onset of AMS, however, is a classic sign of hypoglycemia and suggests that the brain is not receiving enough glucose to function properly. Therefore, option B (rapid onset of AMS) would be more suggestive of a hypoglycemic episode than a hyperglycemic episode.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
Answers
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate.
a. true
b. false
Answers
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Morbidity involves the condition of having a disease while mortality is the condition of being deceased(dead).
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate. This will ensure all the species affected by the disease aren’t wiped out in an instant as every organisms have different roles to play in the ecosystem.
what information would be included when discussing the etonogestrel implant?
Answers
Answer:
cheeky cheeky cheeky snails
Explanation:
cheeky cheeky cheeky snails
The oncoming nurse has just received report and is preparing to make her initial rounds. Which postpartum client should the nurse see first?1) A primipara 6 hours postpartum saturating one peripad every two hours2) A multigravida 1 hour postpartum and complaining of intense perineal pain3) A primigravida 12 hours postpartum with the uterine fundus at the umbilicus4) A multigravida 72 hours postpartum with a brownish pink lochia discharge.
Answers
The nurse should see the client described in option 2) A multigravida 1-hour postpartum complaining of intense perineal pain requires immediate attention first.
This could indicate a potential complication such as perineal tears, hematoma, or other trauma related to the perineal area. Prompt assessment and intervention are necessary to address the client's pain, ensure proper healing, and prevent further complications.
The other options describe postpartum clients with varying conditions:
A primipara 6 hours postpartum saturating one peripad every two hours: This client's lochia flow is within the expected range for the early postpartum period. While regular monitoring is needed, it does not indicate an immediate need for assessment or intervention.
A primigravida 12 hours postpartum with the uterine fundus at the umbilicus: The location of the uterine fundus at the umbilicus suggests that the client's uterus is slightly above the expected level for this timeframe. However, it does not require immediate attention unless other signs of uterine complications are present.
A multigravida 72 hours postpartum with a brownish-pink lochia discharge: The description of the lochia discharge is consistent with the expected changes in lochia color over time. As long as the client is not experiencing other concerning symptoms, this does not require immediate attention.
It's important to note that clinical judgment may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the client's overall condition. The nurse should assess each client comprehensively and prioritize care based on their individual needs and potential complications. Hence, 2) is the correct option.
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Where in the gastrointestinal track do drugs delivered orally have their highest absorption?
Answers
Answer: The small intestine
Explanation:
Secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid. During water intoxication, dangerous symptoms result from water flowing. From the ECF into the ICF.
Answers
The kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid to maintain the acid-base balance of the body. Water intoxication, on the other hand, results from an excessive intake of water that leads to a low sodium concentration in the ECF. This causes water to flow from the ECF into the ICF, resulting in cell swelling and potentially dangerous symptoms.
It's important to understand how the kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid and the consequences of water intoxication. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. They do this by secreting bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) into the tubular fluid. This process occurs primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule, where HCO3- is reabsorbed from the filtrate, and hydrogen ions (H+) are secreted into the tubular fluid. In exchange, bicarbonate ions are transported back into the blood to maintain a stable pH.Water intoxication, also known as hyponatremia, occurs when there is an excessive intake of water, leading to a low concentration of sodium (Na+) in the extracellular fluid (ECF). This imbalance results in water flowing from the ECF into the intracellular fluid (ICF) due to osmosis. Cells swell as a consequence, and this can lead to dangerous symptoms, including headache, nausea, seizures, and even coma or death in severe cases.In summary, the kidneys secrete bicarbonate ions into the tubular fluid to maintain the acid-base balance of the body. Water intoxication, on the other hand, results from an excessive intake of water that leads to a low sodium concentration in the ECF. This causes water to flow from the ECF into the ICF, resulting in cell swelling and potentially dangerous symptoms.For more such question on kidneys
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How long do you take an apical pulse for
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Answer:Typically, apical pulse rate is taken for a full minute to ensure accuracy; this is particularly important in infants and children due to the possible presence of sinus arrhythmia. Upon auscultating the apical pulse, you will hear the sounds “lub dup” – this counts as one beat. Count the apical pulse for one minute.
Explanation:
The large mass of ligaments that connects the two pubis bones and limits their movements
is the _________?
Answers
thick triangular arch of ligamentous fibers connecting the two pubis bones and limiting their movement.
Which of the following is NOT a good guideline to follow when walking out doors?
Obey traffic signals
Walk in dark and deserted areas
Walk with a buddy
Wear reflective clothing at night
Answers
Answer:
I would say walk in dark and deserted areas
Explanation:
you have to 'Be Visible'
Wear bright colors when walking in the daytime. When walking at night, wear light-colored clothing and reflective clothing or a reflective vest to be visible. Drivers are often not expecting walkers to be out after dark, and you need to give them every chance to see you, even at street crossings that have crossing signals.
Being consistent with toddlers
A. Reduces stress and anxiety
B. Repeats a routine or expectation so the toddler knows what to expect
C. Minimizes problems such as going to bed
D. All of the above
Answers
Does having the Cov!d vaccine make it safe to be out in the public without the risk of getting the virus?
Answers
Answer:
short answer.....no
Explanation:
does not prevent contracting the virus....actually reduces severity of symptoms
Have a nice day/night!
how much do the estimated odds of metastasis change if the tumor increases in size by 1 cm? in other words what is the odds ratio for size?
Answers
The odds ratio for tumor size refers to the increased likelihood of metastasis when a tumor increases by a specific measurement, in this case, 1 cm.
Metastasis is the spread of cancer cells from the primary site to other parts of the body. The relationship between tumor size and the odds of metastasis can vary depending on the type of cancer, the stage of the cancer, and individual patient factors.
Generally, larger tumors have a higher risk of metastasis due to increased cellular proliferation, greater access to blood vessels, and a higher likelihood of genetic mutations. As the tumor size increases by 1 cm, the odds ratio represents the change in the estimated odds of metastasis. For example, if the odds ratio for size is 1.5, it means that for each 1 cm increase in tumor size, the odds of metastasis increase by 50%.
However, it's essential to note that this relationship is not universally consistent across all cancer types and stages. Some cancers may have a stronger association between tumor size and metastasis risk, while others may not. Moreover, tumor size is just one factor among many, including lymph node involvement, cancer grade, and specific molecular characteristics that can influence the odds of metastasis.
In conclusion, the odds ratio for size is a measure that helps estimate the change in metastasis risk with each 1 cm increase in tumor size. The exact relationship can vary depending on the specific cancer type, stage, and patient factors.
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A glass jar contains 1 red, 3 green, 2 blue, and 4 yellow marbles. If a single
marble is chosen at random from the jar, what is the probability that it is yellow
or green? A glass jar contains 1 red, 3 green, 2 blue, and 4 yellow marbles. If a
single marble is chosen at random from the jar, what is the probability that it is
yellow or green?
Answers
10 marbles in all. Yellow + green = 7
Your answer is 7/10
Help! My lesson never went over this question.
Answers
The nurse lightly strokes the sides of a client's abdomen, above and below the umbilicus. For which reflex is the nurse testing?
a)Abdominal
b)Ankle clonus
c)Cremasteric
d)Babinski
Answers
The nurse stroking the sides of a client's abdomen, above and below the umbilicus is testing for the reflex of the a) Abdominal.
What is the abdominal reflex?The abdominal reflex is a superficial reflex that is elicited by stroking the skin of the abdomen. The reflex is tested by stroking the skin from the lateral borders of the abdomen towards the umbilicus.
A normal response is a contraction of the abdominal muscles, which pulls the umbilicus towards the stimulus. Therefore, the nurse is testing the abdominal reflex by lightly stroking the sides of the client's abdomen, above and below the umbilicus.
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The nurse is testing for the abdominal reflex when she lightly strokes the sides of the client's abdomen, both above and below the umbilicus. reflex involves the stimulation of the sole of the foot, resulting in the dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes. A
None of these reflexes are associated with the nurse's action of stroking the sides of the abdomen.
The abdominal reflex is a superficial reflex that involves the contraction of the abdominal muscles in response to stimulation of the skin.
It is a protective reflex that helps evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and the functioning of the sensory and motor pathways.
The normal response for the abdominal reflex is the contraction of the abdominal muscles, causing the umbilicus to move toward the stimulated side.
This indicates that the sensory fibers from the skin are transmitting the stimulus to the spinal cord, and the motor fibers are responding appropriately.
The other options provided are not relevant to the nurse's testing in this scenario.
Ankle clonus refers to a repetitive, rhythmic muscle contraction and relaxation that occurs in response to a quick stretch of the calf muscles, usually elicited by briskly dorsiflexing the foot.
Cremasteric reflex is the contraction of the cremaster muscle in response to stroking or tapping the inner thigh, causing the ipsilateral testicle to be pulled upward.
Therefore, the correct answer is a) Abdominal reflex.
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Healthcare Information Technology Mind Map
Answers
Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.
Answers
The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.
What is communication?It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.
The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.
Therapeutic responses are described as to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:
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You are called to the scene of a 47 year old man with a current chief complain of chest pain. The patient informs you he has never been sick a day in his life prior to this which of the following will provide you the greatest information
Answers
__________ supported the claim that diagnosis of mental illnesses is often influenced by context and subjective evaluations.
Answers
Answer: David Rosenhan study
Explanation:
David Rosenhan conducted a study which supported the claim by diagnosing the mental illnesses. This diagnoses is supported by subjective evaluations. He conducted the experiment to judge whether the psychiatric disorders are reliable and valid to help mentally ill patients. The experimenters were provided with hallucinogens and then provided with antipsychotic drugs when were admitted to psychiatric hospital.
Answer:
b on edge
_____________________________
While there are a number of different types of diabetes, they all involve deficiencies in blood sugar regulation. Which type of diabetes is characterized by absolute deficiency of insulin, meaning that a person with this type of diabetes would always have to inject him or herself with insulin before meals
Answers
The type of diabetes characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin, requiring insulin injections before meals, is Type 1 diabetes.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. As a result, there is an absolute deficiency of insulin, and individuals with Type 1 diabetes are unable to produce insulin on their own.
Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing glucose to enter the cells for energy. Without sufficient insulin, glucose cannot be effectively utilized by the body, leading to high blood sugar levels.
Since people with Type 1 diabetes lack the ability to produce insulin, they require exogenous insulin therapy. This means they need to inject themselves with insulin before meals to help control blood sugar levels.
Insulin injections replace the function of the pancreas by providing the necessary insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose into cells. The dosage and timing of insulin injections may vary depending on factors such as the individual's diet, physical activity, and blood sugar levels.
It is important for individuals with Type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood sugar levels, administer insulin as prescribed, and make appropriate dietary and lifestyle adjustments. Regular medical follow-ups and diabetes education can help individuals effectively manage their condition and minimize the risk of complications associated with uncontrolled blood sugar levels.
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2.
Ben visits his doctor because his wife notices that sometimes at night he stops breathing. It only lasts a
few seconds and then he seems to startle himself back into breathing again What medical terms would
you use to describe what Ben is experiencing? Break down the meaning of the terms. Then explain what is
happening in Ben's body to produce these symptoms.
Answers
Apnea:
The “a” in apnea refers to “the absence of” and “pnea” relating to the pulmonary and respiratory system. The whole term “apnea” means the temporary absence or delay of breathing!
There are two types of sleep apnea, obstructive and central. With obstructive sleep apnea the muscles that keep the airway open relax and your airway narrows causing you to breath more shallowly or to stop breathing. In central sleep apnea your brain feels to transmit signals to your “breathing muscles” and the muscles do not contract or function causing you to stop breathing
In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
What is sleep apnea?
Sleep apnea has a serious health issue and in that case potential serious disorder of sleep has been breathing repeatedly that stops and starts at time. There are several risk factors that include the age as well as obesity and it has been the most common in the men.
The main problem of parents are that they are comparing their child with other children living nearby them but they have to understand that every child is unique and every child is special. God has given different talent as well as different personality to every child and comparing them with others is not at all a good symbol for their bright future.
Try to teach the children about their good and bright future, try to make them learn about living a good and valuable life. Teach them to learn not to memorize the things only given in books and give them some practical knowledge.
Therefore, In this case Ben is suffering from sleep Apnea and the symptoms are snoring loudly and feeling tired. These are the symptoms of sleep apnea.
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Kyle has Broca's aphasia. He has a really hard time with ____.A) prepositions and conjunctionsB) adjectivesC) pronounsD) verbs
Answers
Kyle has Broca's aphasia, a type of expressive aphasia that affects his ability to communicate effectively.
This type of aphasia is caused by damage to the left frontal lobe of the brain, which impairs the ability to produce language. Specifically, individuals with Broca's aphasia have difficulty with the production of grammatical structures, such as verbs.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is D) verbs. Kyle would have a hard time using the correct verb tense or form, which can lead to choppy and fragmented speech. He may also struggle to form complete sentences, use articles, and construct complex grammatical structures. This can make communication challenging for both Kyle and his listeners.
To help Kyle communicate more effectively, he may benefit from speech therapy that focuses on rebuilding his language skills. This could include practicing verb conjugation, sentence construction, and other grammatical exercises. Additionally, using visual aids and nonverbal communication strategies, such as gestures or facial expressions, may help him convey his thoughts more easily. With time and consistent practice, Kyle may be able to improve his language abilities and communicate more effectively.
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