Write 4 4/5 as an improper fraction

If a certain regular polygon is rotated 30° about its center, which carries the figure onto itself, this regular polygon could be: A. dodecagon.

In Mathematics and Geometry, the measure of the angle at the center of a regular polygon is equal to 360 degrees. Therefore, the smallest angle of rotation that maps (carries) a regular polygon onto itself can be calculated by using this formula:

α = 360/n

α = 360/30

α = 12°

Since the other angles that would map a regular polygon onto itself must be a multiple of the smallest angle of rotation, we have:

α = 12°, 24°, 48°, 96°, 192°, etc.

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Missing information:

The question is incomplete and the complete question is shown in the attached picture.

Answer:

5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me brainiest

1/10 = 10%

a percent is

\( \frac{part}{whole} = \frac{x}{100} \)

If u take 1/10, 10 is one tenth of 100 (10*10=100).

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

6x-3 = 3x +12

+3            +3

6x = 3x +15

-3x   -3x

3x = 15

divided both sides by 3 to get your answer

The statement that f has a simple zero at z=0 and vanishes nowhere else in |z|≤1 implies that the function f is non-vanishing and has a derivative that does not vanish at z=0.

From this, we can use the Implicit Function Theorem which states that if f is holomorphic in a neighborhood of a point (a,b) and f(a,b)=0 and ∂f/∂y(a,b)≠0, then there exists an open neighborhood U of a and a unique holomorphic function g:U→R such that g(a)=b and (x,g(x)) is a solution of the equation f(x,y)=0 for all x in U.

In this case, since f(z) has a simple zero at z=0 and f'(0)≠0, by the Implicit Function Theorem, there exists an open neighborhood U of 0 and a unique holomorphic function h:U→C such that h(0)=0 and f(h(ϵ))=0 for all ϵ in U. Hence, fϵ(z) has a unique zero in |z|≤1.

Also, since f and g are holomorphic in a region containing the disc |z|≤1 and ϵ is continuous, it follows that fϵ is holomorphic in the same region. Thus, by the holomorphicity of fϵ and h, the mapping ϵ↦zϵ is continuous.

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Answer:

y = 4x + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

anything with the slope of 4x is parallel to the given equation. therefore, there are an infinite amount of answers.

so, y = 4x + any number

hope this helps!<3

Solution

- The formula for the vertex form of a quadratic equation is given below:

- The vertex of the quadratic equation is depicted below:

- Thus, the vertex of the quadratic graph is V(2, -2).

- The equation of the graph becomes:

- To find the value of "a", we apply the coordinate given (-1, 6). This is done below:

Final answer

The equation is:

Given that a function f is differentiable on all of ℝ such that f(1) = 4 and f'(x) ≤ 2 for all x ∈ ℝ. We need to find the value of the integral, ∫_1^5 (f(x) + 2x) dx.

We can solve this problem by using the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus which states that if f is a continuous function on the closed interval [a, b] and F is an antiderivative of f on [a, b], then ∫_a^b f(x) dx = F(b) - F(a).

To find the value of the integral, we need to find an antiderivative of f(x) + 2x. Since f(x) is differentiable on all of ℝ, we know that it is continuous on all of ℝ, so we can use the first part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to find an antiderivative of f(x).

Let F(x) be an antiderivative of f(x), so F'(x) = f(x).

Then an antiderivative of f(x) + 2x is G(x) = F(x) + x².

Using the second part of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, we have∫_1^5 (f(x) + 2x) dx

= G(5) - G(1)

= [F(5) + 5²] - [F(1) + 1²]

= [F(5) + 26] - [F(1) + 1].

Since we are not given any information about f(x) other than f'(x) ≤ 2 for all x ∈ ℝ, we cannot find F(x) explicitly, but we can use the given information to find a bound on the value of [F(5) + 26] - [F(1) + 1].

Since f'(x) ≤ 2 for all x ∈ ℝ, we know that f(x) ≤ 2x + 4 for all x ∈ ℝ.

Then F(x) = ∫ f(x) dx ≤ ∫ (2x + 4) dx

= x² + 4x + C, where C is a constant of integration

Since F(1) = 4, we have 4 ≤ 1² + 4(1) + C, so C ≥ -1.

Then F(5) ≤ 5² + 4(5) + C = 34 + C.

Therefore,[F(5) + 26] - [F(1) + 1] ≤ (34 + C + 26) - (4 + 1)

= 55 + C.

So, the maximum value of the integral is 55 + C.

Since we do not have enough information to find C, we cannot find the exact value of the integral.

However, we can conclude that the integral is less than or equal to 55 + C for any value of C greater than or equal to -1.

Answer: The maximum value of the integral is 55 + C, where C is a constant of integration greater than or equal to -1.

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Answer:

-2 is the slope, if you divide -8/4 you get your answer

Answer:

(7,-10)

Very educated guess

The Extra Credit Inclusion/Exclusion formula is used to calculate the probability of an event that includes one or more items. In this formula, the probability of each individual item is subtracted from the probability of all items together.

The total number of possible arrangements is 8!. If we consider one of the couples, then there are 2! ways to arrange that couple. There are 4 couples so there are 4 * 2! ways to arrange the couples. So, the total number of arrangements in which no couple sits together is 8! - 4 * 2! * 7! = 24 * 7!

Then, the probability that no couple sits together is: P = (24 * 7!) / 8! = 24 / 2^3 = 3 / 4Therefore, the probability that no husband sits next to his wife is 3/4.

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Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

An arithmetic sequence is one where each term has a common difference. You can see where in (D) 7 is added to each term. In the other answers however, the difference is not the same.

Answer:

N+1

Step-by-step explanation:

It begins with = 2

then n+1=3

then n+2=4 and so on it is n+1

The rule for independent samples with equal variance is that the quotient of their variances falls between 0.5 and 2 is the correct answer.

The statement that summarizes a general rule about independent samples with equal variance is: "When the variance of one sample is divided by the variance of the other sample, the quotient is between 0.5 and 2."

This statement reflects the common assumption made in statistical analysis that when dealing with independent samples, the variances of the two samples are approximately equal. This assumption allows for certain statistical tests, such as t-tests, to be applied to compare the means of the samples.

If the quotient of dividing one sample's variance by the other sample's variance falls within the range of 0.5 to 2, it suggests that the variances are not significantly different from each other. This assumption of equal variance simplifies the statistical analysis and allows for more reliable and accurate comparisons between the samples.

It's important to note that this assumption may not always hold true, and there are statistical techniques available to handle cases where the assumption of equal variance is violated.

Therefore, as a general rule, assuming equal variance between independent samples within the range of 0.5 to 2 is a common practice in statistical analysis.  

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Step-by-step explanation:

Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than data far from the mean.

The standard deviation for the data set 6, 7, 9 and 10 is 1.58 in decimal form.

Standard deviation is a statistical measure that quantifies the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of data points. In other words, it measures how spread out the data points are around the mean (average) of the data set.

To calculate the standard deviation for the given data set using the standard deviation formula in Excel, use the following steps:

1. Calculate the squared deviations of each data point from the mean.

2. Find the mean of the squared deviations.

3. Take the square root of the mean of squared deviations to get the standard deviation.

Given data set: 6, 7, 9, 10

Mean: 8

Step 1: Calculate the squared deviations from the mean:

\((6 - 8)^2\) = 4

\((7 - 8)^2\) = 1

\((9 - 8)^2\) = 1

\((10 - 8)^2\) = 4

Step 2: Find the mean of the squared deviations:

Mean of squared deviations = (4 + 1 + 1 + 4) / 4 = 2.5

Step 3: Take the square root of the mean of squared deviations to get the standard deviation:

Standard Deviation = √2.5

                                 = 1.58

So, the standard deviation for this data set is 1.58.

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the minimum value of the function subject to the constraint is 0, and the maximum value is 10

To find the minimum and maximum values of the function f(x, y) = x^2y subject to the constraint g(x, y) = x + y = 9, we can use the method of Lagrange multipliers.

Let L(x, y, λ) = f(x, y) - λ(g(x, y) - 9) be the Lagrangian function, where λ is the Lagrange multiplier.

Taking the partial derivatives of L with respect to x, y, and λ, and setting them equal to zero, we get:

∂L/∂x = 2xy - λ = 0 ...(1)

∂L/∂y = x^2 - λ = 0 ...(2)

∂L/∂λ = -(x + y) + 9 = 0 ...(3)

From equation (2), we have x^2 - λ = 0, which implies x^2 = λ.

Substituting this into equation (1), we get 2xy - x^2 = 0, which can be simplified to x(2y - x) = 0.

This equation gives us two possibilities:

x = 0

2y - x = 0 --> 2y = x --> y = x/2

Now, let's substitute these values into equation (3):

For x = 0: -(0 + y) + 9 = 0 --> y = 9

So, one critical point is (0, 9).

For y = x/2:

-(x + x/2) + 9 = 0 --> -(3x/2) + 9 = 0 --> 3x/2 = 9 --> x = 6

Substituting x = 6 into y = x/2, we get y = 6/2 = 3.

So, another critical point is (6, 3).

Now, we need to evaluate the function f(x, y) = x^2y at the critical points:

f(0, 9) = (0)^2(9) = 0

f(6, 3) = (6)^2(3) = 108

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The quantity of energy moved or transformed per unit of time is referred to as power. The amount of energy that is consumed by the hairdryer in 15 minutes will be 0.3 kWh.

The quantity of energy moved or transformed per unit of time is referred to as power.

Formula: Power = Energy / Time

Units: kW = kWh / hour

The power of electric equipment is given by the formula,

P = E/t

where E is the energy consumed in kWh and t is the time in hours.

Given the power of the hairdryer is 1.200 kW while the time for which it is kept on is 15 minutes, therefore, 0.25 hours. Now, the energy consumed by the dryer in 15 minutes will be,

1.200 kW = E / 0.25

0.3 kWh = E

Hence, the amount of energy that is consumed by the hairdryer in 15 minutes will be 0.3 kWh.

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The minimum weight a bag of dog food could be and remain in the top 10% of all bags filled is 32.0625 kilograms.

To calculate the minimum weight a bag of dog food could be and remain in the top 10% of all bags filled, we need to first determine the z-score at which 90% of the bags are below. To do this, we use the z-score formula to calculate the z-score where 90% of the bags are at or below a certain weight. The z-score formula is z = (x - μ) / σ, where x is the value, μ is the population mean, and σ is the population standard deviation. In this case, the population mean is 30 kilograms and the population standard deviation is 1.25 kilograms. Using the z-score formula, we get a z-score of 1.6. Then, using the inverse z-score formula, we can calculate the minimum weight of a bag of dog food to be in the top 10%: x = μ + (z * σ), where x is the value, μ is the population mean, z is the z-score, and σ is the population standard deviation. In this case, x = 30 + (1.6 * 1.25), which equals 32.0625 kilograms. Therefore, the minimum weight for a bag of dog food

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The mean and variance of a binomial random variable with n trials and success probability p are np and np(1-p), respectively.

The mean and variance of a binomial random variable with n trials and success probability p are given by the following formulas:

Mean = np

Variance = np(1-p)

Where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success in each trial.

To understand this better, let's consider an example. Suppose we conduct an experiment where we toss a coin 10 times and we want to know the probability of getting exactly 5 heads.

This is a binomial experiment because there are only two possible outcomes (heads or tails) and each trial is independent of the others. The probability of getting a head on any given trial is 0.5.

Using the formula for the mean, we get:

Mean = np = 10 x 0.5 = 5

This means that on average, we can expect to get 5 heads out of 10 tosses.

Using the formula for the variance, we get:

Variance = np(1-p) = 10 x 0.5 x (1-0.5) = 2.5

This means that the spread of the distribution is relatively large, indicating that there is a significant amount of variability in the number of heads we can expect to get.

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ya man it's kinda hard I don't really know

The volume of oil exiting the pipe is approximately 100 cu in/hr, 2,400 cu in/day, and 1.39 cu ft/day when converting cu in/day to cubic feet per day.



To calculate the volume of oil exiting the pipe every hour, you would need to know the flow rate of the oil in cubic inches per hour. Let's assume the flow rate is 100 cubic inches per hour.To find the volume of oil exiting the pipe every day, you would multiply the flow rate by the number of hours in a day. There are 24 hours in a day, so the volume of oil exiting the pipe every day would be 100 cubic inches per hour multiplied by 24 hours, which equals 2,400 cubic inches per day.

To convert the volume from cubic inches per day to cubic feet per day, you would need to divide the volume in cubic inches by the number of cubic inches in a cubic foot. There are 1,728 cubic inches in a cubic foot. So, dividing 2,400 cubic inches per day by 1,728 cubic inches per cubic foot, we get approximately 1.39 cubic feet per day.

Therefore, the volume of oil exiting the pipe is approximately 100 cubic inches per hour, 2,400 cubic inches per day, and 1.39 cubic feet per day.

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Answer:

\( \frac{1}{3} ( {21}^{2} ) \sqrt{ {23}^{2} - {10.5}^{2} } \)

\( = 3008.1\)

The volume of this square pyramid is about 3,008.1 mm^2.

Answer:

<b> <i>

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answer is 28. Hope this helps:)

Answer:

-1

hope this helps

plz mark brainleist

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if it is wrong

-10

hope this helps :)

Answer:

TYSM!! I wanted to know how to calculate the kinetic energy of an object for so long!

A pendulum at the top of its swing, when it stops moving does not have any speed and therefore it has no kinetic energy.

Kinetic energy is the energy an object has because of its motion. If we want to accelerate an object, then we must apply a force.

Given that, Kinetic energy = 1/2 × mass × velocity²

If the kinetic energy of the pendulum at the top of its swing is 0, then this tells us that the velocity of the pendulum at that point is 0.

Here, mass m = 0, This shows that the pendulum has no mass and

velocity (v) = 0 meaning the velocity is zero, it is stopped at once.

The velocity that is moving one way or direction can be said to be in a positive direction or positive velocity.

It does slows down when it reaches the top of its swing then move again back to the opposite direction making it to move in the opposite or negative direction with negative velocity. This make a positive velocity and a negative velocity which has pass through to be zero.

Therefore, a pendulum at the top of its swing, when it stops moving does not have any speed and therefore it has no kinetic energy.

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