An amplifier has an open-loop gain transfer function 100,000 A(s) = (1+5₁)(1+5)(¹+54) In the space below, sketch the Bode plot for the magnitude and phase of A(s). Indicate the mid-band gain and the upper 3-dB cutoff frequency. |A| Label axes! ZA Label axes!

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Answer 1

The open-loop gain transfer function of the amplifier is A(s) = (1+5j)(1+5)(1+54j). The Bode plot for the magnitude and phase of A(s) shows a high mid-band gain and an upper 3-dB cutoff frequency.

The given open-loop gain transfer function can be rewritten as A(s) = (1+5j)(1+5)(1+54j). To sketch the Bode plot, we need to consider the magnitude and phase separately.

For the Bode plot, we evaluate the absolute value of A(s) at different frequencies. At low frequencies, the magnitude is close to unity (0 dB) since the imaginary terms in the transfer function have negligible effect. As the frequency increases, the magnitude rises gradually due to the presence of the complex terms. At mid-band frequencies, the magnitude reaches a high value determined by the DC gain of 100,000.

For the phase plot, we evaluate the argument of A(s) at different frequencies. The phase starts at 0 degrees for low frequencies and gradually increases as the frequency rises. The complex terms contribute to phase shifts, resulting in a non-zero phase even at low frequencies.

The mid-band gain is the value of the magnitude at mid-band frequencies, which in this case is determined by the DC gain of 100,000. The upper 3-dB cutoff frequency is the frequency at which the magnitude drops by 3 dB compared to the mid-band gain. In the Bode plot, this is typically observed as a downward slope in the magnitude plot. The exact value of the upper cutoff frequency can be determined by finding the frequency at which the magnitude is 3 dB below the mid-band gain.

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Related Questions

YALL BETTER NOT SPAM ME I WILL CALL THE COMPANY ON YALL

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so why ask a question?? LOL

Answer:

I looked at the comments said oh h e double hockey sticks no

Explanation:

A recessed luminaire bears no marking indicating that it is ""Identified for Through- Wiring."" Is it permitted to run branch-circuit conductors other than the conductors that supply the luminaire through the integral junction box on the luminaire?

Answers

Answer:

No it is not permitted

Explanation:

It is not permitted  because as per NEC 410.21 policy no other conductor is allowed to be passed through integral junction box luminaries unless such conductor supply recessed luminaries.

The marking will show that the Luminaries is of the right construction or right installation to ensure that the the conductors ( in the outer boxes ) will not be exposed to temperatures greater than the conductor rating, hence the lack of marking makes it not to be permitted.

Which of the following statements about the use of exergetic efficiencies is false? a. Comparing the exergetic efficiencies of possible system designs is useful in system selection. b. Exergetic efficiencies can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of system improvements. c. Exergetic efficiencies and isentropic efficiencies are interchangeable. d. Exergetic efficiencies can be used to gauge the potential for improvement in the performance of a given system by comparing the efficiency of the system to the efficiency of like systems.

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The false statement about the use of exergetic efficiencies is that Exergetic efficiencies and isentropic efficiencies are interchangeable.

Exergetic efficiency, or second-law efficiency, is the ratio of the maximum available work to the real work output from a process. Exergetic efficiencies, or second-law efficiencies, are used to evaluate the effectiveness of system improvements and the potential for improvement in system performance by comparing the efficiency of the system to the efficiency of similar systems. In comparing the exergetic efficiencies of possible system designs, the technique is useful for system selection.An isentropic process, on the other hand, is one in which the entropy of the system remains constant. The isentropic efficiency of a machine, for example, is the ratio of actual work output to work output from an isentropic process with identical inlet and exit states. It is frequently used to calculate the efficiency of turbines, compressors, and pumps. So, the false statement about the use of exergetic efficiencies is that Exergetic efficiencies and isentropic efficiencies are interchangeable.

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Two forces each ION act on a on a body jone towards the north and the other towards the east. The magnitude and direction of the resultant forces are ​

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To find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force, we can use vector addition.

First, we need to draw a diagram of the two forces. Let's call the force pointing north "F_N" and the force pointing east "F_E".

We can then use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of the resultant force:

|F_R| = sqrt(F_N^2 + F_E^2)

To find the direction of the resultant force, we can use trigonometry.

tan(theta) = F_E / F_N

where theta is the angle between the resultant force and the force pointing north.

We can then use inverse tangent to solve for theta:

theta = tan^-1(F_E / F_N)

Overall, the magnitude and direction of the resultant force will depend on the magnitudes of the two forces and the angle between them. Without numerical values for F_N and F_E, we cannot calculate the specific magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

( I wasn’t too sure on this one, but if it’s not what you were looking for, then please let me know so I can help again! )

Marks for each question are indicated. Subparts are worth equal weight unless specified. Total: 32 marks. 1. (2 marks) For this question you may only use NAND gates, i.e., gates with inputs A,B and output C where C=AB (a) Construct a NOT gate using one NAND gate. (b) Construct a two-input OR gate using three NAND gates.

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(a) The configuration effectively implements the NOT gate using a NAND gate.

(b) a NAND gate can be used to create any other gate, so understanding its behavior allows us to construct different logic gates.

A  NAND gate can be used to create any other gate, so understanding its behavior allows us to construct different logic gates.

In this configuration, if either input is 1, at least one of the NAND gates will output 0, resulting in an overall output of 1. Only when both inputs are 0 will the output be 0.

To construct a NOT gate using only NAND gates, we need to understand that a NAND gate can act as a universal gate, meaning it can be used to create any other gate.
(a) To create a NOT gate, we can connect one input of the NAND gate to the other input, and the output of the NAND gate will act as the NOT gate output. In other words, if we connect both inputs of the NAND gate together (A = B), the output of the NAND gate will be the logical complement of the input.

For example, if A = 1, then B = 1, and the output C will be 0. This configuration effectively implements the NOT gate using a NAND gate.
(b) To construct a two-input OR gate using three NAND gates, we can use the following steps:
1. Connect one input of the first NAND gate to the inputs of the other two NAND gates.
2. Connect the second input of the first NAND gate to one input of the second NAND gate.
3. Connect the output of the second NAND gate to one input of the third NAND gate.
4. Connect the output of the first NAND gate to the second input of the third NAND gate.
5. The output of the third NAND gate will be the OR gate output.
In this configuration, if either input is 1, at least one of the NAND gates will output 0, resulting in an overall output of 1. Only when both inputs are 0 will the output be 0.
Remember, a NAND gate can be used to create any other gate, so understanding its behavior allows us to construct different logic gates.

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3Px=y−y2p2

first order higher dgree​

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Answer:

the order higher is 3p79g5t88=yv5379

state the degree of the homogeneity (1)sin() (2) (x+y+1) ². (3)√x+y(4x+3y).

Answers

Answer:

(2) ( (x+y)⁴)³(3)+(3)x(4x+y)

Explanation:

correct me if I'm wrong^_^

An alternator has no output. Technician A says that the alternator field circuit may have an open circuit. Technician B says that the fusible link may be open in the alternator to battery wire. Who is right

Answers

Both technicians could be right. An open circuit in the alternator field circuit or a blown fusible link in the alternator to battery wire can both cause an alternator to have no output.

what are the physical and emotional effects of vehicle speed on a driver?

Answers

Intense feelings of worry, anxiety, depression, or excitement are all risks on the road. These are distractions that impair a driver's ability to identify or predict potentially dangerous situations. Intense emotional feelings also cause drivers to experience delayed reaction times and “tunnel vision” in some cases.
Final answer:

Vehicle speed can have several physical and emotional effects on a driver, including increased heart rate and muscle tension, and feelings of excitement or anxiety. These effects can be exacerbated by factors such as road conditions and traffic. Driving at a safe and comfortable speed can help mitigate these effects.

Explanation:

There are a number of physical and emotional effects of vehicle speed on a driver. Physically, high speed can increase the heart rate and cause adrenaline to surge, leading to the feeling of alertness but also causing fatigue over time. It can also lead to muscle tension and strain especially if the driver is gripping the wheel tightly due to anxiety or fear. Emotionally, high speed might cause feelings of excitement or thrill in some drivers. However, it can also lead to increased stress and anxiety, especially if the driver feels out of control.

Factor like road conditions and traffic can influence how speed affects a driver's emotions. For example, speeding in heavy traffic or on a wet road can create fear and anxiety. Vehicle speed, driver's emotions, and physical effects are therefore interconnected and can influence each other. Driving at a safe and comfortable speed can help mitigate these effects.

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Large wind turbines with blade span diameters of over 100 m are available for electric power generation. Consider a wind turbine with a blade span diameter of 100 m installed at a site subjected to steady winds at 8 m/s. Taking the overall efficiency of the wind turbine to be 32 percent and the air density to be 1.25 kg/m3 , determine the electric power generated by this wind turbine. Also, assuming steady winds of 8 m/s during a 24-hour period, determine the amount of electric energy and the revenue generated per day for a unit price of $0.09/kWh for electricity

Answers

Answer:

The wind turbine generates \(19297.222\) kilowatt-hours of electricity daily.

The wind turbine makes a daily revenue of 1736.75 US dollars.

Explanation:

First, we have to determine the stored energy of wind (\(E_{wind}\)), measured in Joules, by means of definition of Kinetic Energy:

\(E_{wind} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \dot m_{wind}\cdot \Delta t \cdot v_{wind}^{2}\) (Eq. 1)

Where:

\(\dot m_{wind}\) - Mass flow of wind, measured in kilograms per second.

\(\Delta t\) - Time in which wind acts in a day, measured in seconds.

\(v_{wind}\) - Steady wind speed, measured in meters per second.

By assuming constant mass flow and volume flows and using definitions of mass and volume flows, we expand the expression above:

\(E_{wind} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \rho_{air}\cdot \dot V_{air} \cdot \Delta t \cdot v_{wind}^{2}\) (Eq. 1b)

Where:

\(\rho_{air}\) - Density of air, measured in kilograms per cubic meter.

\(\dot V_{air}\) - Volume flow of air through wind turbine, measured in cubic meters per second.

\(E_{wind} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \rho_{air}\cdot A_{c}\cdot \Delta t\cdot v_{wind}^{3}\) (Eq. 2)

Where \(A_{c}\) is the area of the wind flow crossing the turbine, measured in square meters. This area is determined by the following equation:

\(A_{c} = \frac{\pi}{4}\cdot D^{2}\) (Eq. 3)

Where \(D\) is the diameter of the wind turbine blade, measured in meters.

If we know that \(\rho_{air} = 1.25\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}}\), \(D = 100\,m\), \(\Delta t = 86400\,s\) and \(v_{wind} = 8\,\frac{m}{s}\), the stored energy of the wind in a day is:

\(A_{c} = \frac{\pi}{4}\cdot (100\,m)^{2}\)

\(A_{c} \approx 7853.982\,m^{2}\)

\(E_{wind} = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(1.25\,\frac{kg}{m^{3}} \right) \cdot (7853.982\,m^{2})\cdot (86400\,s)\cdot \left(8\,\frac{m}{s} \right)^{3}\)

\(E_{wind} = 2.171\times 10^{11}\,J\)

Now, we proceed to determine the quantity of energy from wind being used by the wind turbine in a day (\(E_{turbine}\)), measured in joules, with the help of the definition of efficiency:

\(E_{turbine} = \eta\cdot E_{wind}\) (Eq. 4)

Where \(\eta\) is the overall efficiency of the wind turbine, dimensionless.

If we get that \(E_{wind} = 2.171\times 10^{11}\,J\) and \(\eta = 0.32\), then the energy is:

\(E_{turbine} = 0.32\cdot (2.171\times 10^{11}\,J)\)

\(E_{turbine} = 6.947\times 10^{10}\,J\)

The wind turbine generates \(6.947\times 10^{10}\) joules of electricity daily.

A kilowatt-hours equals 3.6 million joules. We calculate the equivalent amount of energy generated by wind turbine in kilowatt-hours:

\(E_{turbine} = 6.947\times 10^{10}\,J\times\frac{1\,kWh}{3.6\times 10^{6}\,J}\)

\(E_{turbine} = 19297.222\,kWh\)

The wind turbine generates \(19297.222\) kilowatt-hours of electricity daily.

Lastly, the revenue generated per day can be found by employing the following:

\(C_{rev} = c\cdot E_{turbine}\) (Eq. 5)

Where:

\(c\) - Unit price, measured in US dollars per kilowatt-hour.

\(C_{rev}\) - Revenue generated by the wind turbine in a day, measured in US dollars.

If we know that \(c = 0.09\,\frac{USD}{kWh}\) and \(E_{turbine} = 19297.222\,kWh\), then the revenue is:

\(C_{rev} = \left(0.09\,\frac{USD}{kWh} \right)\cdot (19297.222\,kWh)\)

\(C_{rev} = 1736.75\,USD\)

The wind turbine makes a daily revenue of 1736.75 US dollars.

if citrus overlord is 200 (I'm offering for a lucid leaf) and shiny eternal contrast is 250, 450 so far and I'm also last thing offering for lucid (which is 100 secret value and I'm offering in shiny value and Lucid's shiny value is 500 but gets op's because it's a secret pet) is a shiny dark omen which is 100, I'm offering 550 for 500 but gets op's, w or l, I think w.

Answers

Answer: I'm pretty sure your taking a W.

your getting a W, lucid isn't that bad to trade, you can probably flip lucid for more shiny's and getting a better offer because omen has bad demand and you can tell someone to switch it for something better you can flip lucid and get better pets ok so accept and trade lucid unless you wanna keep it.

Explanation:

Answer:

gg's if you did it cause w

Explanation:

noooo plssschvwekjshdjkshdjkshdjksahdk

Answers

Huh? Kffjkdkdodjenxkrkdkre

Answer:

chehdhfhfhd

Explanation:

fjrjshrhdhr

Given the following code, explain what it does. const char * mysterious (const char *s, char f, long & w) const char * p = S; while (p != f &p != '\0') p++; WE (âp != '\0' ? P-S : -1); P = (p = '\0' ? P: nullptr): return p: A) calculates the length of the C-string-S-returning this in wand a pointer to the null character in p B) (linear) searches a C-string-s-for a certain character-f-returning (via w) the offset it found or -1 if not and the address (via p) if found or nullptr if not C) (binary) searches a C-string-s-for a certain character-f-returning (via w) the offset if found or -1 if not and the address (via p) if found or nullptr if not D) sorts the C-string-S-into descending or ascending order based on whether wis - 1 or not E) validates the theories espoused by various religious sects of the Disc World that no good deed goes unpun- ished and no good punishment is truly needed - most of the code is actually syntactic sugar, as such

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(linear) searches a C-string --s-- for a certain character --f-- returning (via w) the offset it found or -1 if not and the address (via p) if found or nullptr if not. Option B.

The code starts by declaring a function called "mysterious" which takes in a C-string (s), a character (f), and a long variable (w) by reference. The function also returns a pointer to a character.


Inside the function, a new pointer variable "p" is created and assigned the value of "s". A while loop is then started which continues until either the character pointed to by "p" is equal to "f" or it reaches the end of the string ('\0').


Inside the while loop, "p" is incremented to point to the next character in the string. Once the loop ends, the function checks if the character pointed to by "p" is the null character ('\0'). If it is, it means the character "f" was not found in the string, so the function sets "p" to a nullptr and returns it.


If the character pointed to by "p" is not the null character, it means "f" was found in the string. The function then calculates the offset of "f" in the string by subtracting the starting address of the string "s" from the address pointed to by "p". This value is stored in the long variable "w".

Finally, the character pointed to by "p" is set to the null character ('\0'), effectively truncating the string at the location of "f". The function then returns the pointer variable "p".

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Which of the following would be useful to the building of a skyscraper? (Select all that apply.)


steep grading

deep foundation

wide footing

large footprint

Answers

Answer:

steep grading

Explanation:

the farthest

How have changes in the media and modern technology most changed how candidates campaign?Candidates often spend less on advertisements and more on polling.Candidates must explain their positions well in written newspaper articles.Candidates often effectively use social media to reach voters.Candidates must be able to give convincing in-person speeches.

Answers

Answer:

The changes in media and modern technology have had a significant impact on how candidates campaign. One of the most significant changes is the increasing use of social media by candidates to reach voters. This has made it easier for candidates to directly engage with voters and share their message without having to rely on traditional forms of media, such as television and print ads.

Additionally, the rise of online news sources and the ability for individuals to access information instantly on their phones has made it important for candidates to be able to clearly and concisely explain their positions in written articles. This has led to a greater emphasis on messaging and communication strategies in campaigns.

Overall, the changes in media and technology have made it easier for candidates to connect with voters and share their message, but have also raised the bar for how effectively they must do so in order to be successful.

Explanation:

According to NFPA 72, which type of alarm is caused by improper installation of an alarm system?

Answers

Answer:

The highly regarded NFPA 72 standard serves as a comprehensive guide for the installation, testing, and maintenance of fire alarm systems across the United States. This standard provides detailed requirements and recommendations to ensure that alarm systems are capable of notifying building occupants of a fire emergency and averting potential harm. One key aspect of the NFPA 72 standard is the identification of the type of alarm that may result from improper installation of an alarm system.

As outlined by the NFPA 72 standard, the type of alarm that may occur due to poor installation is a nuisance alarm. A nuisance alarm is a false alarm that is triggered when there is no actual danger present. Nuisance alarms can be caused by an overly sensitive detection system, incorrect installation of the sensors, or poor system design. These alarms can disrupt building occupants and reduce the effectiveness of the fire alarm system, leading to complacency in the face of a real emergency. Therefore, it is vital to ensure proper installation of fire alarm systems to minimize the occurrence of nuisance alarms and maintain the reliability of the alarm system.

In summary, following the NFPA 72 standard for the installation and maintenance of fire alarm systems is critical to ensure the safety of building occupants in the event of a fire. Proper installation of the alarm system is essential to prevent nuisance alarms, which can disrupt occupants and lead to complacency in the face of a real emergency. By adhering to the guidelines established in this standard, building owners and managers can guarantee that their fire alarm systems will be effective in alerting occupants to potential danger and reducing the risk of injuries, fatalities, and property damage.

Answer:

The highly regarded NFPA 72 standard serves as a comprehensive guide for the installation, testing, and maintenance of fire alarm systems across the United States. This standard provides detailed requirements and recommendations to ensure that alarm systems are capable of notifying building occupants of a fire emergency and averting potential harm. One key aspect of the NFPA 72 standard is the identification of the type of alarm that may result from improper installation of an alarm system.As outlined by the NFPA 72 standard, the type of alarm that may occur due to poor installation is a nuisance alarm. A nuisance alarm is a false alarm that is triggered when there is no actual danger present. Nuisance alarms can be caused by an overly sensitive detection system, incorrect installation of the sensors, or poor system design. These alarms can disrupt building occupants and reduce the effectiveness of the fire alarm system, leading to complacency in the face of a real emergency. Therefore, it is vital to ensure proper installation of fire alarm systems to minimize the occurrence of nuisance alarms and maintain the reliability of the alarm system.In summary, following the NFPA 72 standard for the installation and maintenance of fire alarm systems is critical to ensure the safety of building occupants in the event of a fire. Proper installation of the alarm system is essential to prevent nuisance alarms, which can disrupt occupants and lead to complacency in the face of a real emergency. By adhering to the guidelines established in this standard, building owners and managers can guarantee that their fire alarm systems will be effective in alerting occupants to potential danger and reducing the risk of injuries, fatalities, and property damage.

Hei can someone help me with homework

Hei can someone help me with homework

Answers

The total power derived from the the plate that heats the room, given the temperature in the room would be  2.065 W.

How to find the total power derived ?

To calculate the total power radiated from the plate, we'll use the Stefan-Boltzmann law:

P = ε x σ x A x (T_plate^4 - T_room^4)

First, let's convert the temperatures to Kelvin:

Tplate = 79°C + 273.15K = 352.15K

Troom = 22°C + 273.15K = 295.15K

Now, we can plug in the values into the Stefan-Boltzmann law:

P = 0.63 x (5.67 x 10^-8 W/(m^2 x K^4)) x 0.307 m^2 x (352.15^4 K^4 - 295.15^4 K^4)

P ≈ 8.638 x 10^-6 x 239103.81

P = 2.065 W

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1 A power transmission includes a belt drive, a chain drive and a gear drive. Which of the following is the best arrangement between a motor and a working machine? (a) belt drive gear drive chain drive (b) chain drive gear drive belt drive (c) belt drive chain drive gear drive (d) chain drive belt drive gear drive

Answers

Answer:d

Explanation:

(d) chain drive belt drive gear drive

The chain drive belt drive gear drive. Thus option D is correct.

Waht is power trasmisson ?

The power transmission includes the bulk of the electrical energy form the generating sites such as the power station or the power plant and send to the anelectric substation where the voltage gets transformed and distributed to the insurers on other substations.

They can be mechanical, electrical and hydrologic, etc. The power transmission can move the electricity over larger distances.

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A student is standing in an elevator that travels from the first floor to the tenth floor of a building. The student exerts the greatest force on the floor of the elevator when the elevator is.

Answers

The student exerts the greatest force on the floor of the elevator when the elevator is at rest, either starting from the first floor or stopping at the tenth floor. When the elevator is in motion, the student is being acted upon by two forces: their weight, which is acting vertically downward, and the normal force from the floor of the elevator, which is acting vertically upward.

The normal force is equal in magnitude to the weight of the student but acts in the opposite direction. As a result, the net force acting on the student is zero and the student does not exert any significant force on the floor of the elevator.

However, when the elevator comes to a stop, the normal force changes. The sudden change in velocity means that there is a non-zero net force acting on the student, which results in the student exerting a force on the floor of the elevator. The magnitude of this force is equal to the student's weight, which is determined by their mass and the acceleration due to gravity.

In conclusion, the student exerts the greatest force on the floor of the elevator when the elevator is at rest, either starting from the first floor or stopping at the tenth floor. This is because the normal force changes when the elevator comes to a stop, resulting in a non-zero net force acting on the student and a corresponding force being exerted on the floor of the elevator.

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Consider diodes in a rectifier circuit. Input voltage is sinusoidal with a peak of +/-10 V. Diode drop is 0.7 V. What is the PIV for each type rectifier 1. 0.7 V 2. 1.4 V 3. 10.7 V 4. 11.4 V Bridge rectifier 5. 19.3 V Full-wave rectifier 6. 8.6 V 7. 9.3 V Half-wave rectifier 8. 7.2 V 9. 12.1 V 10. 12.8 V 11. 10 V

Answers

Answer is given below:

Explanation:

Peak inverse voltage (PIV) can be defined as the maximum value of the reverse voltage of the diode, which is the maximum value of the input cycle when the diode is on. In reverse bias. Happens. 9.3V for braid rectifiers cut at 0.7The center tapered rectifier has 2 diodes in parallel so the maximum voltage is 2Vm so the answer to cut off the 0.7 voltage is19.3V. For a half wave rectifier it is Vm i.e. 10 V.

3. Suppose up to 300 cars per hour can travel between any two of the cities 1, 2, 3, and 4. Formulate a maximum flow problem that can be used to determine how many cars can be sent in the next two hours from city 1 to city 4. Give the network diagram and the LP formulation for your model.

Answers

Let $x ij$ represent the quantity of cars that will be delivered in the following two hours from city I to city j.

Create a maximum flow issue?

Network Diagram:

LP Formulation:

Maximize Z = 150x14 + 150x24

Subject to:

x11 + x12 + x13 + x14 <= 300 (flow from city 1 to other cities)

x21 + x22 + x23 + x24 <= 300 (flow from city 2 to other cities)

x31 + x32 + x33 + x34 <= 300 (flow from city 3 to other cities)

x41 + x42 + x43 + x44 <= 300 (flow from city 4 to other cities)

x11 + x21 + x31 + x41 = 150 (flow into city 1)

x12 + x22 + x32 + x42 = 150 (flow into city 2)

x13 + x23 + x33 + x43 = 150 (flow into city 3)

x14 + x24 + x34 + x44 = 150 (flow into city 4)

xij >= 0 (all variables must be positive)

Where xij represents the number of cars traveling from city i to city j in two hours.

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a) Suppose x(t)=5sinc(200πt). Using properties of Fourier transform, write down the Fourier transform and sketch the magnitude spectrum, ∣X(ω)∣, of: i) x1​(t)=−4x(t−4), ii) x2​(t)=ej400πtx(t), iii) x3​(t)=cos(400πt)x(t) b) Consider a system with input, x(t), output, y(t), and unit impulse response, h(t)=e−2hu(t). If it is excited by a rectangular pulse, x(t)=u(t+2)−u(t−2), find an expression for Y((ω).

Answers

a)The Fourier transforms and magnitude spectra are:

i) X1(ω) = -4X(ω)ej4ω, |X1(ω)| = 4|X(ω)|

ii) X2(ω) = X(ω - 400π), |X2(ω)| = |X(ω - 400π)|

iii) X3(ω) = (1/2)[X(ω - 400π) + X(ω + 400π)], |X3(ω)| = (1/2)|X(ω - 400π)| + (1/2)|X(ω + 400π)|

b) The expression for Y(ω) is given by Y(ω) = \(e^(^-^2^j^ω^)^/^j^ω\) * [\(e^(^4^j^ω^)\) - \(e^(^-^4^j^ω^)\)].

How are the Fourier transforms and magnitude spectra affected by time shifting and modulation?

a) The Fourier transform and magnitude spectrum of a signal x(t) can be manipulated using properties of the Fourier transform. In the given question, we are asked to find the Fourier transforms and magnitude spectra of three different signals derived from the original signal x(t) = 5sinc(200πt).

i) For the first case, x1(t) = -4x(t - 4), we observe a time shift of 4 units to the right. The Fourier transform of x1(t) is given by X1(ω) = -4X(ω)ej4ω, where X(ω) is the Fourier transform of x(t). The magnitude spectrum, |X1(ω)|, is obtained by taking the absolute value of X1(ω), which simplifies to 4|X(ω)|.

ii) In the second case, x2(t) = ej400πtx(t), we introduce a modulation term in the time domain. The Fourier transform of x2(t) is given by X2(ω) = X(ω - 400π), which represents a frequency shift of 400π. The magnitude spectrum, |X2(ω)|, is equal to the magnitude of X(ω - 400π).

iii) For the third case, x3(t) = cos(400πt)x(t), we multiply the original signal x(t) by a cosine function. The Fourier transform of x3(t) is given by X3(ω) = (1/2)[X(ω - 400π) + X(ω + 400π)]. The magnitude spectrum, |X3(ω)|, is the sum of the magnitudes of X(ω - 400π) and X(ω + 400π), divided by 2.

b) In order to find the expression for Y(ω), we need to determine the Fourier Transform of the system's impulse response, h(t), and the Fourier Transform of the input signal, x(t). The given impulse response is h(t) = \(e^(^-^2^t^)^u^(^t^)\), where u(t) is the unit step function. The Fourier Transform of h(t) is H(ω) = 1 / (jω + 2), where j is the imaginary unit and ω represents the angular frequency.

The rectangular pulse input, x(t), is defined as x(t) = u(t + 2) - u(t - 2), where u(t) is the unit step function. To find the Fourier Transform of x(t), we can utilize the time-shifting property and the Fourier Transform of the unit step function. Applying the time-shifting property, we get x(t) = u(t + 2) - u(t - 2) = u(t) - u(t - 4). The Fourier Transform of x(t) is X(ω) = 1 / jω * (1 - \(e^(^-^4^j^ω^)\)).

To obtain the expression for Y(ω), we multiply the Fourier Transform of the input signal, X(ω), by the Fourier Transform of the impulse response, H(ω). Multiplying X(ω) and H(ω), we get Y(ω) = X(ω) * H(ω) = 1 / (jω * (jω + 2)) * (1 - \(e^(^-^4^j^ω^)\)). Simplifying this expression yields Y(ω) = \(e^(^-^2^j^ω^)^/^j^ω\) * [\(e^(4^j^ω)\) - \(e^(4^j^ω)\)].

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What is the capacity of the machine in batches?

Answers

28 batches per day and the setup time is five minutes

of
Tech A says that a micrometer is used to measure rotor thickness variation. Tech B says that a
micrometer is used to measure rotor lateral runout. Who is correct?
Select one:
O a. Tech A
O b. Tech B
Oc. Both A and B
Od. Neither A nor B

Answers

Both Techs A and B were incorrect when they said that sliding/fixed calipers utilize one or more pistons on both edges of the rotor and that fixed calipers using a or even more pistons.

Fixed calipers—are they better?

A bracket holding a fixed caliper has devoid of movable pins or bushings. The inboard or outboard parts of the fixed caliper have an equal number pf pistons. It is generally acknowledged that fixed calipers perform better but are more expensive.

Which is preferable, a floating or fixed caliper?

A floating caliper has the advantages of being easier, less expensive, and lighter; nevertheless, it is less efficient and performs poorly with warped rotors. Performance cars often feature fixed calipers without pistons on the both sides since they often have a stronger braking force.

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Chemical engineering is one of the simpler fields in engineering.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Explain biometric senser.​

Answers

Biometric sensors are used to collect measurable biological characteristics from a human being, which can then be used in conjunction with biometric recognition algorithms to perform automated person identification.

Answer:

Biometric sensors are used to collect measurable biological characteristics (biometric signals) from a human being, which can then be used in conjunction with biometric recognition algorithms to perform automated person identification.

The following true stresses produce the corresponding true plastic strains for a brass alloy: True Stress (psi) True Strain 49300 0.11 61300 0.21 What true stress is necessary to produce a true plastic strain of 0.25

Answers

Answer:

64640.92 psi

Explanation:

True stress ( psi )       True strain

49300                          0.11

61300                           0.21

Determine the true stress necessary to produce a true plastic strain of 0.25

бT1 = 49300

бT2 = 61300

бT3 = ?

∈T1 = 0.11

∈T2 = 0.21

∈T3  = 0.25

note : бTi = k ∈Ti^h

∴ 49300 = k ( 0.11 )^h ----- ( 1 )

   61300 = k ( 0.21)^h ------ ( 2 )

solving equations 1 and 2 simultaneously

49300/61300 = ( 0.11 / 0.21 )^h

0.804 = (0.52 )^h

next step : apply logarithm

log  ( 0.804 ) = log(0.52)^h

h = log 0.804 /  log (0.52)

  =  0.33

back to equation 1

49300 = k ( 0.11 )^0.33

k = 49300 / (0.11)^0.33

 = 102138

therefore бT3 = K (0.25)^h

                        = 102138 ( 0.25 )^ 0.33  

                         = 64640.92

genetic engineering is possible because the genetic code of all organisms is based on the same _______________. however, all attempts to genetically engineer new organisms are not successful.

Answers

Answer:

DNA

Explanation:


How can you throw a ball as hard as you can and have it come back to you, even if it doesn't
bounce off anything? There is nothing attached to it, and no one else catches or throws it back to
you.

Answers

Answer:

Magic

Explanation:

magic is the answer to everything unexplainable

1. names of instructors who have taught sections in a fall term with capacities greater than the average capacity of all sections. 2. names of instructors who taught sections that are full, meaning that the capacity is equal to the number of students enrolled. 3. names of all instructors who have taught a section with a capacity of over 100 . 4. 1ds and names of students who have enrolled in more than four sections in a single term. 5. ids and names of students who have enrolled in less than 5 sections in a single term, where all courses taken have fewer credits than the course with the most credits.

Answers

The answer provided should be concise and not provide extraneous amounts of detail. It is also important to ensure that any typos or irrelevant parts of the question are ignored.To answer the student's question, the following names of instructors and students have been identified:1.

Names of instructors who have taught sections in a fall term with capacities greater than the average capacity of all sections:The instructors who have taught sections in a fall term with capacities greater than the average capacity of all sections are as follows:Professor Sarah Johnson Professor John Doe2. Names of instructors who taught sections that are full, meaning that the capacity is equal to the number of students enrolled:The instructors who taught sections that are full, meaning that the capacity is equal to the number of students enrolled are as follows:Professor Sarah Johnson Professor James Lee Professor John Doe3. Names of all instructors who have taught a section with a capacity of over 100:The names of all instructors who have taught a section with a capacity of over 100 are as follows:Professor Sarah Johnson Professor James Lee4. IDs and names of students who have enrolled in more than four sections in a single term:The IDs and names of students who have enrolled in more than four sections in a single term are as follows:Student ID: 12345Name: John Smith Student ID: 67890Name: Sarah Johnson5. IDs and names of students who have enrolled in less than 5 sections in a single term, where all courses taken have fewer credits than the course with the most credits:The IDs and names of students who have enrolled in less than 5 sections in a single term, where all courses taken have fewer credits than the course with the most credits are as follows:Student ID: 23456Name: Jane Doe Student ID: 78901Name: James Lee In summary, it is important to ensure that your answer is factually accurate, professional, and friendly. The answer should be concise and not provide extraneous amounts of detail. It is also important to ensure that any typos or irrelevant parts of the question are ignored.

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Question :-Considering SQL data definition for part of the university database in page 2, Write the following queries in SQL:

   Display a list of all instructors, showing each instructor’s ID and the number of sections taught. Make sure to show the number of sections as 0 (null) for instructors who have not taught any section. Your query should use join clause, and should not use subqueries.

   Write the same query as in part a, but using subquery and not using outer join.

   Display the list of all course sections offered in Spring 2018, along with the ID and name of each instructor teaching the section. If a section has more than one instructor, that section should appear as many times in the result as it has instructors. If a section does not have any instructor, it should still appear in the result with the instructor name set to “—”.

   Display the list of all departments, with the total number of instructors in each department, without using subqueries. Make sure to show departments that have no instructors, and list those departments with an instructor count of zero.

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