The United States is on par with Russia in having more persons per capita in prison. Is that a sign that the United States is a nation that enforces its laws, or is it an
indication that something is inherently wrong with its criminal justice system? Please explain and then respond to a
According to the criminal justice system, the United States is the one that enforces the laws, and the poor are disproportionately represented in the prison population.
What is criminal?
The person who committed a crime is referred to as a "criminal." A individual is legitimately arrested if they are the indifferent perpetrator of the crime. Lawbreakers are classified into four types: persistent, moralistic, juridical, and organized. The perpetrator must be punished by the court.
According to the criminal justice, the United States is the one that writes the laws, and the crimes police are overburdened. A substantial proportion of the poor end up in prison.
Hence, the significance was the criminal aforementioned.
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When considering indeterminate sentencing,
which of these does not
apply.
A. The trial judge has great discretion,
B. Correctional authorities have the power to
release a prisoner before completion of the
maximum sentence imposed by the judge.
C. Prisoners may be released back into society
when rehabilitave goals have been reached.
D. Judges must follow strict sentence guidelines.
Answer:
Indeterminate sentencing is a system of sentencing in which there is more flexibility in deciding what an individual's sentence will be. Usually, the sentence is given in the form of a range, with a minimum and maximum amount of time to be served.
Explanation:
I hope this helps but you could've googled what is considered in indeterminate sentencing and what ever wasn't included is your answer
You're welcome though!
Considering indeterminate sentencing, Judges must follow strict sentence guidelines is not correct. Thus, option D is correct.
What is indeterminate sentencing?A sort of custodial sentence known as a "indeterminate sentence" is one in which the condemned person's release date is uncertain and consists of a range of years (for example, five to 10 years).
The state parole board performs a hearing to decide whether a prisoner is eligible for parole after serving a predetermined amount of time. The idea behind an indeterminate sentence is that some inmates will be rehabilitated while in jail, and those who demonstrate progress will be granted parole (conditional release) and may not serve out the remainder of their sentence behind bars.
Therefore, we can conclude that option D is correct.
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Which of the following is an example of an independent federal agency?
select all that apply.
FDIC
Amtrak
FEC
FCC
CIA
Fannie Mae
EPA
Answer:
FCCExplanation:
I hope it's helpful for you
describe the main aspect of the U.S. political system.
Sage files a complaint against Isabel, alleging that Isabel is responsible for damages to Sage's property. Isabel thinks the allegations are ridiculous and doesn't bother to respond to the complaint which she has been served. Which of the following is likely true?
Answer:
A court can judge in Sage's favor because Isabel seems to be constructively admitting to Sage's allegations.
-A court will not open a case or post a judgment until Isabel chooses to respond.
-A court can judge in Sage favor because Isabel is not bargaining in good faith.
-A court can judge in Isabel's favor even if she doesn't respond if it appears Sages allegations are frivolous.
The answer is A court can judge in Sage favor because Isabel is not bargaining in good faith.
Explanation:
Answer:
A court can judge in Sage's favor because Isabel seems to be constructively admitting to Sage's allegations.
Explanation:
How many calendar days does a new employee have to complete the RBS training program
Any on-premise alcohol server and manager must be certified by an accredited RBS training provider and pass an ABC exam within 60 calendar days from the first date of employment. The RBS exam is currently available in English, Spanish, Korean, Chinese, Vietnamese, Tagalog, Hindi, and Punjabi.
A buyer entered into a written contract with a seller to purchase his commercial property for $100,000. The contract did not specify the quality of title to be conveyed, and made no mention of easements or reservations. The closing was set for November 25, three months from the signing of the contract. Shortly thereafter, the buyer obtained a survey of the property, which revealed that the city had an easement for the public sidewalk that ran in front of the store. Because this actually enhanced the value of the property, the buyer did not mention it to the seller. Subsequently, the buyer found a better location for her business. On November 1, the buyer notified the seller that she no longer intended to purchase the property. The seller told her that he intended to hold her to her contract. At closing, the buyer refused to tender the purchase price, claiming that the seller's title is unmarketable and citing the sidewalk easement as proof of that fact. In a suit for specific performance, will the seller likely prevail? A: Yes, because the contract did not specify the quality of title to be conveyed. B: Yes, because the buyer was aware of the visible easement and it enhanced the value of the property. C: No, because an easement not provided for in the contract renders title unmarketable. D: No, because the buyer gave the seller sufficient notice of her change in plans and yet he made no effort to try to find another purchaser.
No, because an easement not provided for in the contract renders the title unmarketable.
The presence of an easement that was not addressed in the contract renders the title unmarketable, as stated in option C. As a result, the seller will not likely prevail in a suit for specific performance.
Specific performance is a legal concept where a court orders one party to perform a specific act. It is frequently employed in contract law cases. The goal of specific performance is to make the contract come to life. Specific performance is a legally binding contract remedy that allows a party to force the other party to perform their contractual obligations. According to the case mentioned, in a suit for specific performance, the seller is unlikely to prevail because an easement not provided for in the contract renders the title unmarketable. The buyer found out that there was an easement for the public sidewalk that ran in front of the store. Although it enhanced the value of the property, the buyer did not tell the seller about it.
The seller could hold the buyer to the contract, but the buyer refused to tender the purchase price because the title is unmarketable, citing the sidewalk easement as proof. Furthermore, the contract did not specify the quality of the title to be conveyed, nor did it mention easements or reservations.
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after answering a summons and complaint, shawna receives a set of written questions from the plaintiff's attorney. shawna is directed to respond to the questions in writing under oath. this discovery technique is called
After answering a summons and complaint, Shawna receives a set of written questions from the plaintiff's attorney. Shawna is directed to respond to the questions in writing under oath. this discovery technique is called interrogatories.
Interrogatories are a proper set of written questions propounded by one litigant and required to be answered with the aid of an adversary if you want to make clear subjects of reality and help to decide earlier what information may be presented at any trial in the case.
Interrogatories may be quicker, much less highly-priced, and much less complicated than depositions, but there are downsides. because the questions are written, the witness can also have greater time to assume and craft answers, in place of presenting greater candid solutions during discovery.
Interrogatories are to be raised at a pre-trial degree and ought to have a close reference to the problem in query, while pass examinations have a much wider scope of questions that can be asked.
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How does the Supreme Court determine whether or not to hear a case?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the highest court of all the land. There is much discretion, involving a lengthy process for a case to be accepted within this prestigious Court. Much like the President vetoing or accepting a bill to become a law. You see, the Supreme Court determines to hear a case through a unison of votes from at least four Justices. This vote is known as the "Rule of Four". They will review everything from the case's background to how well the case would withstand during the trial. In order to do so, they read the petition for certiorari. Before doing any of this, however, you will need to, of course, file a lawsuit within your district. I wish you luck if you are attempting to bring your case to the supremacy.
Mrs. Roberts has Original Medicare and would like to enroll in a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan. All types of PFFS plans are available in her area. Which options could Mrs. Roberts consider before selecting a PFFS plan?
The option that Mrs. Roberts could consider before selecting a PFFS plan is: A Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MA-PD) PFFS plan that combines both medical benefits and Part D prescription drug coverage.
What is Medicare?Medicare can be defined as a medical coverage that help to cover the medical expenses of those under the plan.
Based on the scenario she should a consider (MA-PD) which full meaning is Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug PFFS plan that tend to combines both medical benefits as well as Part D prescription drug coverage.
A PFFS plan that offers medical benefits, or a PFFS plan combine with a stand-alone prescription drug plan.
Therefore The option that Mrs. Roberts could consider before selecting a PFFS plan is: A Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MA-PD) PFFS plan that combines both medical benefits and Part D prescription drug coverage.
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Answer:
A Medicare Advantage Prescription Drug (MA-PD) PFFS plan that combines medical benefits and Part D prescription drug coverage, a PFFS plan offering only medical benefits, or a PFFS plan in combination with a stand-alone prescription drug plan.
Explanation:
There is no such thing as a PFFS Medigap Supplemental plan. So that rules out all the other answers that mention PFFS Medigap Supplemental.
Explain the crisis and a clash of American Government branches
on the example of overturn Roe vs. Wade
The potential overturning of Roe v. Wade would create a crisis and clash among government branches over abortion rights.
Roe v. Wade, a significant Supreme Court ruling on abortion rights, could be overturned, which would spark a crisis and conflict between the American Government's branches. The ruling that legalized abortion has generated controversy. If it were to be overturned, a lawsuit would need to be filed and then the Supreme Court would need to review the case.
The conflict would occur if Congress or the legislative branch passed laws restricting or outlawing abortion, overturning the precedent set by Roe v. Wade. Court disputes and challenges would result from this.
The crisis would result from the sharply conflicted views of the public regarding abortion. Passionate mobilization from both supporters and detractors would cause social and political unrest. The conflict between the executive and legislative branches of government would be a reflection of the larger societal and political divisions surrounding this extremely contentious issue.
The ultimate result would reflect the ongoing conflict between the various branches of government in formulating policy and have significant implications for reproductive rights.
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are there two types of addiction, psychological
and physical.
Answer:
this is true√
Explanation:
Your car must have two red taillights mounted on the rear visible from ______ feet
What is the difference between committee and subcommittee?
A committee is a group of individuals selected to investigate or work on a particular issue or problem, whereas a subcommittee is a smaller subset of a larger committee that is formed to investigate a specific issue or problem.
A committee is a group of people who are chosen to look into or resolve a particular issue. It is a formal organization that is tasked with performing a particular task. Committees can have both permanent and temporary members. A subcommittee, on the other hand, is a smaller group that is part of a larger committee. It is created when a committee wants to investigate a particular issue more closely. The subcommittee's main goal is to focus on a specific issue or problem and gather information to make recommendations to the larger committee. A subcommittee can be created for a specific purpose or as an ongoing standing subcommittee.
The main distinction between a committee and a subcommittee is that a committee is a formal organization that is tasked with carrying out a particular mission, whereas a subcommittee is a smaller group that is part of a larger committee and is created to investigate a specific issue or problem.
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in relation to marijuana traffic stops in kansas, the case of horton v. california effectively removed which requirement, previously embedded in the application of the plain view doctrine in warrantless search and seizures?
The United States Supreme Court dealt with the plain view doctrine in the case of a Horton v. California which discussed warrantless search and seizure.
In the Horton v. California case, the requirement that law enforcement officers have reasonable cause to believe that an item in plain view is contraband or proof of a crime before they can seize it without a warrant was eliminated. The plain view doctrine called for officers to have a legal right of access to the object and a strong suspicion that it is related criminal to activity prior to this case.
The Supreme Court ruled in Horton, however, that the requirement of a lawful right of access was unnecessary and that police only required probable cause to take something out of plain sight without a warrant.
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In 2010, Louisville-based metal plating business and its chief executive pleaded guilty to felony violations of the Negligence Act. National Environmental Policy Act. Pollution Prosecution Act. Clean Water Act.
The NEPA created an agency called the council on environmental quality and required that an environmental impact statement be prepared for any major federal action that might significantly affect the environmental quality.
Why was the National Environmental Policy Act passed?The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 was created to ensure federal agencies consider the environmental impacts of their actions and decisions.
What was the goal of the Environmental Protection Act?It was created in 1970. They establish programs that are aimed at reducing pollution and protecting the environment.
Describe the federal laws and regulations in place to prevent air pollution.
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https://brainly.com/question/1204242#SPJ4(a) What is the definition of a contract?
(b) What are the required elements?
Answer: A contract is a written agreement that you follow by. For example an NBA Player signs a Contract to a Team and he has to play there for the amount of time with their rules and plays for the amount of money said.
The required elements of a contract are, offer, acceptance, consideration, capacity, legality, and sometimes a written instrument
Explanation:
Stair and Erskine on the development of law
Answer:
Stair, Bell, and Erskine are the most well-known of these. In the 1660s, Stair brought together the elements of customary, feudal, and Roman law into one system based on legal principles and philosophy in his leading work The Institutions of the Law in Scotland (1681).
Explanation:
Hope this helps and have a great day!!!
How a bill becomes a law? (10 steps!)
Answer: Heyaa! ~
Here is how a bill becomes a law!
Explanation:
Step 1: The bill is draftedStep 2: The bill is introduced. Step 3: The bill goes to committee.Step 4: Subcommittee review of the bill. Step 5: Committee mark up of the bill. Step 6: Voting by the full chamber on the bill.Step 7: Referral of the bill to the other chamber. Step 8: The bill goes to the president.Step 9: Overriding a vetoStep 10: NOW A LAW!Hopefully this helps you! ~
Answer:
Here is how a bill becomes a law
Explanation:
Step 1: The bill is drafted
Step 2: The bill is introduced.
Step 3: The bill goes to committee.
Step 4: Subcommittee review of the bill.
Step 5: Committee mark up of the bill.
Step 6: Voting by the full chamber on the bill.
Step 7: Referral of the bill to the other chamber.
Step 8: The bill goes to the president.
Step 9: Overriding a veto
Step 10: NOW A LAW!
WILL GIVE BRAINLYIST!
What Enlightenment ideal does this quote show? "That whenever any
Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of
the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government .
Declaration of Independence 1776
A.stare decusis
B. federalism
C. separation of powers
D. socal contract
Answer:
Its D. social contract
Explanation:
Just did the quiz and C was incorrect
quizlet For prisoners, cases based on Sixth Amendment rights involve the right to a speedy trial and the problem of:
For prisoners, cases based on Sixth Amendment rights involve the right to a speedy trial and the problem of access to legal counsel. The Sixth Amendment guarantees individuals accused of a crime the right to a speedy and public trial.
This means that prisoners have the right to have their cases resolved promptly, without unnecessary delays. In addition, the right to a speedy trial ensures that the accused does not spend an excessive amount of time in jail before their case is heard.
Furthermore, prisoners face the problem of accessing legal counsel. The Sixth Amendment also guarantees the right to legal representation. However, many prisoners, especially those who cannot afford an attorney, struggle to obtain competent legal counsel. This can lead to a disadvantage in the legal process, as prisoners may not have the necessary resources or knowledge to effectively defend themselves.
In summary, prisoners' cases based on Sixth Amendment rights involve the right to a speedy trial, which ensures timely resolution of their cases, and the problem of accessing legal counsel, which can impact their ability to receive fair representation.
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If you were candidate Trump’s public relations advisor, how
would you have advised him to modify his approach?
*****No Plagiarism please. Please tell me the source as
well*****
I would advise candidate Trump to adopt a more inclusive and empathetic communication style, focusing on unity and collaboration rather than divisive rhetoric.
As candidate Trump's public relations advisor, I would emphasize the importance of building bridges and appealing to a wider audience. I would encourage him to choose his words carefully, avoiding inflammatory language and personal attacks. Instead, I would suggest emphasizing policy positions and highlighting his accomplishments, while also demonstrating empathy and understanding for diverse perspectives.
I would recommend engaging in constructive dialogue, actively listening to concerns, and presenting himself as a unifying force. By modifying his approach to be more inclusive and empathetic, candidate Trump could appeal to a broader range of voters and project a more presidential image.
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Please provide an example of a scenario where a police officer would, or would not, be legally entitled to stop and potentially frisk someone. Please explain why this is or is not legal.
Answer:
When Can the Police Stop and Frisk You on the Street?
A look at the history of "stop and frisk," and the circumstances required to make its use legal.
by Marcia Layton Turner
updated September 04, 2020 · 3 min read
Man standing by crosswalk
The United States' “stop and frisk" rule originated from the Fourth Amendment's language regarding unreasonable searches and seizures.
The policy actually allows police to stop and “pat down" anyone they suspect may be committing, have committed, or are about to commit a crime. Their suspicion alone is what permits them to stop you and search you.
The current stop and frisk policy has been legal since 1968, when the Supreme Court ruled in Terry v. Ohio to allow police officers the flexibility to temporarily detain and search someone they suspect has done or is in the process of doing something illegal.
Since then, all 50 states have adopted this ruling in some form.
Unfortunately, rather than rooting out crime, the American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) of New York reports that 9 out of 10 New Yorkers who have been stopped and frisked were innocent. Some people see stop and frisk as a form of harassment.
Explanation:
If a police officer suspects you are in some way involved in illegal activity, they have the authority to stop you, whether you're walking, driving, biking, boating, or engaged in some other activity.
“During a stop, you are not under arrest, but you are not free to leave," explains Tod Spodek, managing partner of the Spodek Law Group.
“When an officer stops your car, the officer must have a reasonable suspicion that someone in the car committed a crime, or probable cause to believe the driver committed a traffic violation."
2. Describe a situation in which a government has a great deal of power but does
not have political agthority. Then explain whether you think the rule of law would
likely be respected under such a government.
A situation in which a government has a great deal of power but does not have political authority might be a military dictatorship. In a military dictatorship, the military is in charge of the state and controls the majority of its resources. The military leadership makes all the decisions without input from the citizenry.
Whether or not the rule of law would be respected in such a government is highly dependent on the values of the leadership of the military. If they value the rule of law, they may respect it even though they have a great deal of power. On the other hand, if they value their own power and authority, they may be more likely to sidestep legal protections in favor of their own interests.
Which doctrine applies in construction contracts and means that the constructed building is, for practical purposes, just as good as the one contracted for?
a. substantial evidence
b. vicarious liability
c. due process
d. substantial performance
Doctrine applies in construction contracts and means that the constructed building is, for practical purposes, just as good as the one contracted for Substantial performance Therefore the correct option is D.
Substantial performance is a doctrine that applies in construction contracts, and it means that the constructed building is, for practical purposes, just as good as the one contracted for. This doctrine focuses on the idea of whether or not, even if there are minor mistakes or issues with the building's quality,
it still provides substantial performance to meet the standard of what was contracted for. The concept here is that if the overall quality of a building is close enough to meet the contract specifications and acceptable construction code requirements then any minor deficiencies can be overlooked.
Hence the correct option is D
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Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. To protect themselves from asset switching, creditors will charge a higher interest rate.
b. Firms borrowing money have greater flexibility to use that money when there are debt covenants.
c. An example of asset switching is an option to exchange one piece of real estate for another.
d. Lenders can't legally prevent a firm from engaging in asset switching.
e. None of the above.
The correct answer is option a. To protect themselves from asset switching, creditors will charge a higher interest rate.
Asset switching refers to the practice of a borrower transferring assets pledged as collateral for a loan to another entity in order to avoid defaulting on the loan. This can be detrimental to lenders who may then be unable to recover the full amount owed to them.
To protect themselves from this risk, lenders often charge a higher interest rate to borrowers. This compensates them for the increased risk of default resulting from asset switching. A higher interest rate also serves as a deterrent to borrowers who may be tempted to engage in asset switching.
Option b is incorrect because debt covenants are designed to restrict the actions of firms borrowing money, not provide greater flexibility. These covenants are terms included in loan agreements that limit a borrower's ability to take certain actions that may increase the risk of default.
Option c is incorrect because an example of asset switching would be the transfer of an asset pledged as collateral for a loan, not the exchange of one piece of real estate for another.
Option d is incorrect because lenders can legally include provisions in loan agreements that prevent or discourage asset switching. These provisions may include penalties for asset switching or restrictions on the transfer of assets.
In summary, option a is the correct answer because creditors often charge a higher interest rate to protect themselves from the risk of asset switching by borrowers.
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Which consumer protection law specifically provides for punitive damages?.
1
Which statement best describes recent voter trends in the United States?
• A.
People living in the Midwest and the South mostly vote Democratic.
B.
Women since the 1950s mostly vote Republican.
C
People living on the US coasts mostly vote for conservative candidates.
D.
Cuban American families mostly vote Republican.
The correct answer is option (C) Women since the 1950s mostly votes Republican.
Why did Women since the 1950s mostly votes Republican?The Constitution was written in 1787, while the Declaration of Independence was signed in 1776. There were other occasions when the United States was founded than these. These seven men—George Washington, Thomas Jefferson, John Adams, Benjamin Franklin, Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison—are regarded as the principal Founding Fathers in order of significance.
While many other people also played a part in the establishment of the United States, most people regard these seven to be the Founding Fathers. The Americas were found in 1492, according to Christopher Columbus.
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Pleading the Fifth" refers to what part of the Fifth Amendment?
Known as Miranda rights, these rights include the right to remain silent, the right to have an attorney present during questioning, and the right to have a government-appointed attorney if the suspect cannot afford one.
Pleading the Fifth" refers to what part of the Fifth Amendment?
The Fifth Amendment breaks down into five rights or protections: the right to a jury trial when you are charged with a crime, protection against double jeopardy, safety against self-incrimination, the proper to a fair trial, and safety against the taking of property by means of the authorities besides compensation riminatory.
What are the three parts of the 5th Amendment?
Known as Miranda rights, these rights include the proper to stay silent, the proper to have an lawyer current during questioning, and the right to have a government-appointed lawyer if the suspect can't find the money for one.
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Why is diversity in law enforcement important?