the adrenal cortex secretes all of the following hormones except a. androgens. b. estrogens. c. aldosterone. d. progesterone. e. corticosterone. quizlewt

Answers

Answer 1

The adrenal cortex secretes all of the following hormones except estrogens.

The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the adrenal glands, and it is responsible for producing several hormones. These hormones include glucocorticoids (such as cortisol and corticosterone), mineralocorticoids (such as aldosterone), and small amounts of androgens (such as dehydroepiandrosterone, DHEA). However, estrogens are primarily produced by the ovaries in females and to a lesser extent by the testes in males.

While the adrenal cortex does produce androgens, including DHEA, which can be converted to estrogens in peripheral tissues, the primary source of estrogens in the body is not the adrenal cortex. Estrogens play a crucial role in female sexual development and reproductive function. They are involved in the growth and development of female secondary sexual characteristics, regulation of the menstrual cycle, and maintenance of pregnancy.

Therefore, among the listed options, estrogens are not directly secreted by the adrenal cortex.

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Related Questions

Which describes how water is being
partitioned when many animals are
at a watering hole simultaneously?
A. limiting the amount of a resource being used
B. splitting up when a resource is used
C. splitting a resource between organisms
D. hoarding a resource to keep competition low
when it is in short supply

Answers

C. Because animals are organisms alive that share the resource or water

The surgical creation of a stoma into the trachea in order to insert a temporary or permanent tube to facilitate breathing.:__

Answers

The surgical creation of a stoma into the trachea in order to insert a temporary or permanent tube to facilitate breathing is called a tracheostomy.

A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening called a stoma in the front of the neck and directly into the trachea, or windpipe. This opening allows for the insertion of a tube, known as a tracheostomy tube, which provides an alternative airway route for breathing.

Tracheostomies may be performed for various reasons, such as to assist with breathing in cases of severe respiratory distress, to bypass an obstruction in the upper airway, or to aid in long-term ventilation support. The procedure can be temporary or permanent, depending on the patient's condition.

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the most dangerous outcome of a taenia solium infection occurs when humans ingest tapeworm eggs rather than cysticerci. this type of transmission occurs by _______.

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The most dangerous outcome of a taenia solium infection occurs when humans ingest tapeworm eggs rather than cysticerci. This type of transmission occurs by fecal-oral contamination.

Taenia solium is a pork tapeworm that lives in the intestines of pigs. The eggs of Taenia solium are the infective form of the parasite that causes taeniasis, an intestinal infection caused by adult tapeworms.

When humans ingest tapeworm eggs rather than cysticerci, this type of transmission occurs by fecal-oral contamination.

The symptoms of taenia solium include stomach upset, malaise, fever, and weight loss. In addition, adult tapeworm infection can cause severe pain in the abdomen and vomiting, as well as digestive system obstruction due to the presence of the tapeworm.

The migration of cysticerci (the larvae) can lead to serious neurological symptoms. These symptoms include seizures, headaches, vision problems, and even death.

Thus, the correct answer is fecal-oral contamination.

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he division of a bacterial cell occurs as the: multiple choice chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell. cell wall develops cracks around the equator of the cell. actin and microtubules constrict the cytoplasm. new membrane and cell wall materials begin to grow and form a septum.

Answers

The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell (option A).

What is cell division?

Cell division is the process by which a cell divides into two cells. All living organisms are capable of undergoing cell division.

Bacteria grow and reproduce by the process of binary fission. A bacterial cell begins to divide when the number of its cellular components reaches a critical mass.

The DNA must first be replicated and then allocated into the daughter cells. The cytoplasmic contents must also be divided to give both new cells the machinery to sustain life.

In bacterial cells specifically, the genome consists of a single, circular DNA chromosome; therefore, the process of cell division is simplified. The circular double-stranded DNA molecule makes up the bacterial chromosome, which then segregates into the opposite sides of the cell.

Therefore, it can be said that the pulling of chromosomes towards the end of the cell begins the process of cell division in bacteria.

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a specialty store would be best defined as offering:

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Answer:

A specialty store is best defined as offering a narrow range of specialized products or services within a specific industry or niche. These stores typically focus on a particular category or type of product and provide a wide variety of options within that category. The products found in a specialty store are often unique, high-quality, or cater to specific customer preferences. Examples of specialty stores include boutique clothing stores, gourmet food shops, electronics stores specializing in a specific brand, or art supply stores. The key characteristic is that they offer a specialized and curated selection of products or services to cater to a specific target market or customer need.

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Individual bones within the spinal column are called:

A) Vertebrae
B) Ganglia

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A) Vertebrae

Ganglia is incorrect because they are clusters of nerve cell bodies

The individual bones within the spinal column is called the Vertebrae.

A scientist wants to prove that certain chemicals in cosmetics are likely to cause harm to developing fetuses, when used by a pregnant woman. What is the most likely limitation she will face in her scientific design?

Answers

The most likely limitation the scientist will face in her scientific design is ethical constraints and limitations on conducting experiments on pregnant women. Ethical guidelines prioritize the safety and well-being of pregnant women and their fetuses, making it challenging to directly test the effects of cosmetics on developing fetuses.

When studying the potential harm caused by certain chemicals in cosmetics on developing fetuses, conducting controlled experiments on pregnant women is not ethically permissible. Pregnant women are considered a vulnerable population, and exposing them to potentially harmful substances for research purposes raises ethical concerns. Researchers must adhere to strict ethical guidelines that prioritize the protection of pregnant women and their unborn children.

Instead, the scientist would need to rely on other research methods, such as observational studies, animal studies, in vitro testing, or analyzing existing data and literature. These alternative methods can provide valuable insights, but they may have limitations in terms of directly correlating the use of specific cosmetics to harm in developing fetuses. Ethical considerations play a crucial role in research involving human subjects, particularly in cases where the subjects are pregnant women, necessitating the exploration of alternative approaches to gather evidence in support of the hypothesis.

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A population of bacteria is growing according to the Malthusian model. If the population triples in 10 hours, what is the reproduction rate

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A population of bacteria is growing according to the Malthusian model. If the population triples in 10 hours, 0.2 per hour is the reproduction rate.

By observing the population and the time changes, the reproduction rate of that population can be determined. In the case of this population of bacteria, if the population triples in 10 hours, then the reproduction rate can be calculated by comparing the final population to the initial population.

If the population tripled in 10 hours, then it must have increased by 2 over 10 hours (3/1). This gives the reproduction rate of 2 over 10 hours or 0.2 per hour. The Malthusian model is a useful tool for understanding the natural growth of a population, and the reproduction rate of each population provides a sense of how quickly that population grows.

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What Are some of the largest organisms
on earth

Answers

Answer:

Oregon's Giant

Explanation:

Oregon's Giant is a huge fungus long been known as the largest organism on the planet.

The pathogenesis of pneumonia includes the inhalation of microbial agents and the resulting of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Inflammation Lung consolidation Formation of exudates Alveolar wall thickening Decreased lung compliance

Answers

Answer:

Inflammation

Lung consolidation

Formation of exudates

Explanation:

Pneumonia could be caused by Bacteria, viruses, and fungi. The air sacs are usually affected and characterized by presence of pus in the sacs. It could be serious and life threatening and can be treated with antibiotics.

The pathogenesis of pneumonia includes the inhalation of microbial agents, Inflammation , Lung consolidation and Formation of exudates.

How do producers obtain their carbon from the environment?

Answers

Answer:

producers go through photosynthesis which happens from the sun giving them the energy they need to obtain carbon.

Explanation:

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In lambda phage, why is the cII gene essential to initiate lysogeny?
The cII protein can activate transcription from the PRM promoter.
The cII protein has greater affinity and blocks Cro from binding the OR3 operator.
The cII protein represses the FtsH protease.
The cII protein can activate transcription from the PRE promoter.
The cII protein represses cro transcription until the cI gene can be expressed.

Answers

In lambda phage, the cII gene essential to initiate lysogeny because: The cII protein represses the FtsH protease.

It has multiple functions that help to establish and maintain the lysogenic state. Firstly, the cII protein can activate transcription from the PRE and PRM promoters, which are necessary for expression of the cI gene and establishment of lysogeny.

Secondly, the cII protein has greater affinity for binding to the OR3 operator, which prevents the Cro protein from binding to OR3 and blocking cI expression. Thirdly, the cII protein can also repress the FtsH protease, which is responsible for degradation of the cII protein.

Therefore, cII protein plays a crucial role in regulating the expression of other genes involved in lysogeny and preventing the lytic cycle from occurring.

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what is photosynthesis​

Answers

Answer:

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide to create oxygen and energy in the form of sugar.

Explanation:

photosynthesis, the process by which green plants and certain other organisms transform light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis in green plants, light energy is captured and used to convert water, carbon dioxide, and minerals into oxygen and energy-rich organic compounds.

Photosynthesis is a process by which plants and other organisms, such as algae, convert solar energy into chemical energy and use it to produce organic molecules. Photosynthesis is the main source of energy in the biosphere.

different chains of sugars added to red blood cell proteins determine an individual's blood type. this is an example of which of the following posttranslational modifications?

Answers

This is an example of glycosylation, which is a type of post-translational modification. This is a process in which a sugar chain is added to the protein of a red blood cell to determine an individual's blood type. This sugar chain is made up of a variety of sugar molecules, such as glucose, galactose, mannose, or sialic acid. This is an example of an epitope or antigen, which is used by the immune system to identify and respond to the foreign substance.

The glycosylation process begins with the attachment of an activated sugar to the protein, typically in the endoplasmic reticulum or the Golgi apparatus. This is followed by a series of chemical modifications of the attached sugar, leading to the final structure of the glycoconjugate.

The glycoconjugate is then further modified in the cell membrane, where it forms a specific antigenic structure on the surface of the red blood cell. This antigenic structure is recognized by the immune system and determines the individual's blood type.

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Living organisms share certain characteristics of life. Two living organisms, a pine tree and a sea urchin, are pictured below. A large pine tree. A sea urchin. Photo by David Which statement describes a difference in one of the characteristics of life shared by these organisms? One of the organisms produces asexually, the other does not. One of the organisms uses plants for energy, the other uses animals for energy. One of the organisms gets energy from the sun, the other does not. One of the organisms grows and changes, but the other does not.

Answers

Answer:

Living organisms share certain characteristics of life. Two living organisms, a pine tree and a sea urchin,

Answer:

the correct answer is c

Explanation:

assuming independent assortment, what proportion of the offspring of the cross aabbccdd × aabbccdd will have the aabbccdd genotype?

Answers

100% of the offspring of the cross aabbccdd × aabbccdd will have the aabbccdd genotype.

What is independent assortment?

Independent assortment is a fundamental principle of genetics that states that the distribution of one set of genes into gametes is independent of the distribution of another set of genes.

This means that the genes for one trait are not influenced by the genes for another trait, and that each gene is passed on to offspring randomly and independently of the others. This principle was first described by Gregor Mendel and is a key concept in understanding the laws of inheritance and the way that traits are passed from one generation to the next.

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Hello people ~
Embryo sac is called monosporic when it develops from

a) One of the megaspores out of the four megaspores which are derived from division of megaspore mother cell

b) Three megaspores

c) Only from two functional megaspores

d) None of these

Answers

Answer:

One of the megaspores out of the four megaspores which are derived from division of megaspore mother cell

Explanation:

The main process behind this division is meiosisFirst mother megaspore divide itself into half.Then it again divides into half to form haploid

Option A

What is the major cause of air pollution?

Answers

Answer: Air pollution occurs when harmful or excessive quantities of substances including gases, particulates, and biological molecules are introduced into Earth's atmosphere.

Explanation: Hope this helps!!!

Part A Bipotential state Which of the following statements best describes the bipotential state of a developing fetus? Hints O a stage of development when the internal and external reproductive organs have developed into both male and female O a stage of development when the internal and external reproductive organs are only female O a stage of development when the internal and external reproductive organs are only male O a stage of development when the internal and external reproductive organs have the potential to be either male or female

Answers

The Bipotential state of the growing fetus is a stage of development when the internal and external reproductive organs have the potential to be either male or female. Correct option(C)

During fetal development after two months the generation of sex organs or gonads take place to determine the sex of the growing fetus.

Until about two months after fertilization the immature gonads of human embryos are potential means that they can develop either into testes or ovaries. Undifferentiated gonads of XX or XY individuals are apparently identical and can form either ovaries or testes.

This period of Bipotential stage is also known as indifferent stage of gonads development.

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people who believe in the ""nature"" side of the nature versus nurture debate believe that the environment has the strongest effect on children. true false

Answers

The statement "People who believe in the 'nature' side of the nature versus nurture debate believe that the environment has the strongest effect on children" is false.

The nature versus nurture debate is a longstanding argument that considers whether genetics or the environment has the greatest impact on an individual's behavior, intelligence, and personality.People who believe in the "nature" side of the debate believe that an individual's genetic makeup is the primary determinant of their behavior, intelligence, and personality. They argue that our physical and mental characteristics are primarily determined by our genes.People who believe in the "nurture" side of the debate, on the other hand, believe that the environment has the strongest effect on children. They argue that factors such as parenting, education, culture, and experiences shape an individual's behavior, intelligence, and personality.

Therefore, the statement "People who believe in the 'nature' side of the nature versus nurture debate believe that the environment has the strongest effect on children" is not true.

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WHICH EVIDENCE SUPPORT THE STUDENTS CLAIM THAT ALL OF THE SAMPLES ARE LIVING THING

WHICH EVIDENCE SUPPORT THE STUDENTS CLAIM THAT ALL OF THE SAMPLES ARE LIVING THING

Answers

All of the samples in the given scenario are living things.

The following evidences support the students’ claim: There is an observable difference between living things and non-living things. Living things have life processes, whereas non-living things do not. When students observed the samples under the microscope, they were able to see and identify characteristics that are only found in living things such as cells, cytoplasm, and nucleus.

These characteristics prove that the samples are living things. All living things need energy to survive and carry out life processes. In the given scenario, the samples were observed moving in their containers. Movement is a sign of life, which indicates that the samples are living things. The students also observed the samples feeding, which is another life process and confirms that the samples are living things.

Living things grow and develop over time. In the given scenario, students observed changes in the size of the samples over a period of time. This indicates that the samples are living things, as they are growing and developing. Living things reproduce and pass on their traits to their offspring.

Students observed that the samples were reproducing, which indicates that they are living things. In conclusion, all of the samples in the given scenario are living things, as they exhibit all of the characteristics of life processes, including cells, energy use, movement, growth and development, and reproduction.

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two stimuli occur on the same neuron more than a minute apart. the second stimulus is more than ten times greater than the first. if we compare the two resulting action potentials, which is true?

Answers

The relative refractory period is the window of time during which a second action potential may start, but it will need a stronger stimulation to start than the first one did. Every second, more than 1 million new brain connections are made.

How many action potentials a second can neurons produce?

Most neurons complete the procedure in a thousandth of a second or less. Action potentials are continuously released by a variety of neuronal types at rates of up to 10-100 per second. Other varieties, meanwhile, are a lot quieter and can go for several minutes or even an extended period of time without ejecting any action potentials.

What takes place when two action potentials collide?

Clear evidence from computational and experimental research shows that colliding action potentials are mutually destroyed rather than passing each other.

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What is the ultimate nature of reality, and can it be fully comprehended by human intelligence?

Answers

Answer:

The ultimate nature of reality is a complex and debated philosophical question, with different schools of thought providing different answers. There is no consensus on whether the human mind can fully comprehend the ultimate nature of reality.

Name at least two things a member of a species would compete for.

Answers

Species could compete for water, food, land, etc.

what is a photon. A. part of a ribosome B. A light particle C. A carbon dioxide molecule D. Part of a chloroplast

Answers

B. A light particle because it is the basic unit of all light. It is a quantum of energy with a visible wavelength

Give five (5) examples of animal species and five (5) examples of plant species that are being threatened and are disappearing in our country. Find out the causes of disappearance of each species.
(Please Indicate sources/references)
Search for five (5)beneficial and five (5) harmful effects on the evolutionary process if genetic engineering is widely applied to plants and animals.
(Please Indicate sources/references)

Answers

Threatened Animal Species in India:

1. Bengal Tiger (Panthera tigris tigris):

Human-wildlife conflict, habitat loss and poaching are the main causes of extinction.

Source: Wildlife Institute of India

2 .Indian Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis):

Causes of extinction include habitat degradation due to agricultural and infrastructure development as well as poaching for its horn.

Source: World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

3. Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica):

Habitat loss, hunting and population fragmentation are the main causes of extinction.

Source: IUCN Red List

4. Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus):

Causes of extinction include decreased prey availability and the use of veterinary drugs on livestock, which has led to a decline in the vulture population.

Source: Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

5. Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangetica):

Water pollution, habitat destruction and unintentional entanglement in fishing nets are the main causes of extinction.

Source: Zoological Survey of India

Threatened Plant Species in India:

1. Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus):

Illegal logging for its valuable redwood and habitat loss are the main causes of extinction.

Source: Botanical Survey of India - http://bsi.gov.in/imp-publication_en

2. Indian Ghost Tree (Davidia involucrata var. vilmoriniana):

Habitat degradation and unsustainable harvesting for its distinctive white bracts are the main causes of extinction.

Source: Biodiversity Heritage Library

3. Himalayan Yew (Taxus wallichiana):

Over-harvesting of its bark, leaves and seeds, which contain chemicals useful in cancer treatment, is one of the reasons for its extinction.

Source: Indian Journal of Traditional Knowledge

4. Indian Pitcher Plant (Nepenthes khasiana):

Habitat loss related to deforestation and illegal collection for the horticulture trade are the main causes of extinction.

Source: Journal of Threatened Taxa

5. Kani Maranjandu (Cycas sphaerica):

Habitat loss, ornamental collection, and ignorance of the conservation status of the species are the main reasons for the disappearance.

Source: International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)

Beneficial effects of genetic engineering on evolutionary processes

1. Increase in agricultural yield: By incorporating traits such as pest and disease resistance and tolerance to environmental stress, genetic engineering can increase the productivity of crops and increase agricultural yield.

Source: National Academies of Sciences, Engineering, and Medicine

2. Increase in nutrient content: Genetic engineering can be used to enhance plant nutrition, such as increasing the amount of vitamins, minerals and other important nutrients in food crops. This could help combat malnutrition and promote human health.

Source: World Health Organization (WHO)

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What goes first with organ ,epithelial tissue ,epithelial cell and organ system

Answers

Epithelial tissue lines the organs of the body, including the lungs, heart, and stomach.

Is epithelium an organ system?

Epithelium, endothelium, and mesothelium are three types of epithelial cell sheets that line your internal organs, and body space and form the outer layer of your skin. Epithelium generally lines alleyways that are open to the external environment, such as your respiratory area and digestive system.

Glandular epithelial tissue is also established as part of the glands, including hormone-manufacture organs like the liver, pancreas, and spleen. Epithelial tissues are widespread all around the body. They form the covering of all body surfaces.

So we can conclude that Simple epithelial tissues are normally classified by the shape of their cells.

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How could you describe the levels of organization in a decomposer?

Answers

an organism, especially a soil bacterium, fungus, or invertebrate, that decomposes organic material.

the shortening and thickening of chromosomes in m phase depends on which of the following?A. microtubules.
B. actin and myosin.
C. condensins.
D. cohesins.
E. All of the above

Answers

The shortening and thickening of chromosomes in M phase depend on condensins, which are responsible for compacting the chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C: condensins.

During M phase (mitosis), the chromosomes undergo a process called condensation, where they become shorter and thicker. This condensation is crucial for the proper segregation of chromosomes into daughter cells. The main proteins responsible for chromosome condensation are called condensins. Condensins are multi-subunit protein complexes that play a vital role in organizing and compacting the DNA molecules within the chromosomes. Microtubules, actin, and myosin are involved in various aspects of cell division, such as spindle formation and cytokinesis, but they are not directly responsible for the shortening and thickening of chromosomes in M phase. Cohesins, on the other hand, are protein complexes that hold sister chromatids together, ensuring their proper separation during cell division, but they are not directly involved in chromosome condensation. In summary, the shortening and thickening of chromosomes in M phase rely on the activity of condensins, making option C the correct answer.

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A marine fossil is found in a location that is now dry land. what can you predict about what the enviroment was like in the area many year sago?

Answers

If a marine fossil is found in a location that is now dry land, it suggests that the area was once underwater or part of a marine environment. This indicates a significant geological change, such as uplift or sea level regression.

Based on this information, we can make several predictions about the environment in the area many years ago:

Presence of an Ancient Sea: The marine fossil indicates that there was a body of water, such as an ocean, sea, or lake, in the area. The presence of marine organisms suggests a connection to the ocean, rather than just a freshwater lake.

Sedimentary Deposits: The presence of marine fossils suggests the accumulation of sedimentary deposits in the area. Sedimentary rocks, such as sandstone, limestone, or shale, may be found in the vicinity, indicating the former presence of water and the deposition of sediment over time.

Paleoenvironment: The types of marine fossils found can provide insights into past environmental conditions. For example, the presence of coral fossils suggests the existence of coral reefs, while the presence of shell fossils may indicate a shallow marine environment.

Geological History: The discovery of a marine fossil on dry land implies a geological change that occurred over time. It could be the result of tectonic movements, such as uplift or the emergence of land due to plate tectonics, or changes in sea level, such as sea level regression.

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A patient reports frequent heartburn twice a week for the past 4 months. What other symptoms reported by the patient may indicate the patient has GERD? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY:*A. Bitter taste in mouthB. Dry coughC. MelenaD. Difficulty swallowingE. Smooth, red tongueF. Murphy's Sign Part 2: University Library Experience Write a 150- to 200-word response to the following:- Briefly describe your experience using the library databases to research your chosen topic. Remember to include the names of the two databases you used. Discuss any challenges you encountered. - What strategies will you use to find sources in the University Library going forward? Enter your response here. Gregory's cell phone company offers two different text message plans. One plan would allow Gregory to send or receive 200 text messages a month. The other plan would allow him unlimited text messages a month, but it costs four times as much. Gregory chooses the cheaper plan because he does not think he will use many text messages. At the end of the month, Gregory finds that he has gone a few messages over his limit. Extra charges have been added for each extra message, and Gregory ends up paying more money than he would have if he had signed up for the unlimited plan. The phone company probably hopes that Gregory will respond byA. signing up for the more expensive plan in the future.B. Telling his friends and family about what happened.C. Cancelling his service and finding a new phone companyD. Reducing the number of text messages that he sends. The duration of shoppers' time in BrowseWorld's new retail outlets is normally distributed with a mean of 41.8 minutes and a standard deviation of 17.3 minutes. How long must a visit be to put a shopper in the longest 20 percent Simplify the expression: 2 * | 12 - 14 | = A sample of gas has a pressure of 3.2 atm and a volume of 345 ml. 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Madeline wants to buy a camera for $200 dollars. Her weekly allowance is $15. If she saves $10 each week toward the cost of the camera, how many weeks will it take Madeline to save enough to buy it? Rattlesnake Frequency A timber rattlesnake (Crotalus horridus) shakes its rattle at a characteristic frequency of about 3100 shakes per minuteWhat is this frequency in shakes per second? please select the whether the aoii team position is professional staff, an elected volunteer, or an appointed volunteer. international standing committees 4. (10 pts) Glycolysis. Suppose you've discovered a mutant organism whose glycolytic pathway was shorter because of the presence of a new enzyme catalyzing the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (GAP) to 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG), thereby creating a "shortcut". GAP + H2O + NAD 3PG + NADH + H+ a. Compared to the wild-type organism, how would the net production of ATP be affected via the anaerobic pathway? 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The graph is/hasA. order 2 rotational symmetry about the originB. neither symmetry about the y-axis nor has order 2 rotational symmetry about the originC. symmetry about the y-axisD. odd i need help with this problem Place the following steps of lymphatic flow in the correct order beginning with the interstitial fluid and ending with the blood vessels.a. Interstitial fluidb. Lymph capillariesc. Lymph vesselsd. Lymph trunkse. Lymph ductsSubclavian veins Determine the number of zeros of the function f(2)= 24-22 +92 + z - 1 in the disk D[0, 2]. What are the domain and range for this list of ordered pairs:{(15, 4), (7,-5), (13,-7), (-3,4)}Domain: {15, 4, 7, -5}Range: {13, -7, -3,4}Domain: {-7, -5,4}Range: {-3, 7, 13, 15)Domain: {-3, 7, 13, 15}Range: {-7, -5,4}Domain: {15, 7, 13, -3}Range: {4, -5, -7, -3} Consider a triangle ABC like the one below. Suppose that =A110, =b25, and =c4. (The figure is not drawn to scale.) Solve the triangle.Carry your intermediate computations to at least four decimal places, and round your answers to the nearest tenth.If there is more than one solution, use the button labeled "or". can someone pls pls help me? According to article about forests, what are the two types of forests located in both Europe and Russia?A.tropical rainforests and temperate deciduous forestsB.boreal forests and temperate deciduous forestsC.tropical seasonal forests and boreal forestsD.savannas and temperate evergreen forests